Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Terrace cultivation is one of the methods for soil conservation. Terracing is a soil conservation practice applied to prevent rainfall runoff on sloping land from accumulating and causing serious erosion. Terraces consist of ridges and channels constructed across the slope.

Statement 2 is correct: In eluviation, when rainfall surpasses evaporation, dissolved or suspended material is removed from a layer or layers of soil by water movement. Illuviation involves the deposition of these nutrients and organic materials in deeper horizons, forming horizons in organic materials.

Statement 3 is correct: Different trials with pigeon peas for preserving the topsoil have been successful because of their vigorous and rapid canopy development. The soft soil and high soil moisture on the riverbanks help the pigeon pea plants in developing strong and deep root systems which help in holding the soil together.

Statement 4 is correct: Rill erosion is a type of erosion that produces small but distinct streams. It occurs when rainwater does not soak into the soil but instead runs across it. Rill erosion is removal of soil by concentrated water flow, and it occurs when the water forms small channels in the soil as it flows off site. The rills or small channels (often only 30cm deep) form when water flowing across the ground collects in a natural depression in the soil and erosion is concentrated as the water flows through the depression.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

 Black soil is the third most common type of soil in India. The name “black soil” comes from the color of the soil, which is black. It is most suited for cotton cultivation, as well as groundnut, sugarcane, tobacco, wheat, millets, and oilseeds.

Statement I is correct. Black soil is also referred to as Self-ploughing soil. Self-ploughing soil is simple to cultivate. Soil that can retain or absorb water and expands as a result of moisture accumulation. Such soil necessitates a significant amount of labor during the wet season.

Statement II is correct and the correct explanation of Statement I. Black soil is high in potassium, magnesium, calcium carbonate, and lime but low in nitrogen and phosphorus. 

1. It has a clayey texture and is very fertile. 
2. It has a great water retention quality, making it useful for farming. 
3. In the summer, soil cracks, and during the monsoon, these cracks serve to absorb water. 
4. The black color of soil is caused by soil development from weathered lava. 

Because of these features, ploughing the soil gets easier, or we may say it is self-ploughing. As a result, black soil is also known as self-ploughing soil. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Intensive-subsistence farming mainly results from a single cause of limited land. And as land is passed on from one generation to the next, it is fragmented into smaller plots to divide among the offspring of the farmers. So, it goes on getting smaller and smaller until it cannot produce enough to even satisfy the needs of a single family and the farmer uses intensive practices to fulfil production.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The small size of the landholdings (and not large size of the landholdings) of the farmers is the primary feature of the intensive-subsistence agricultural system. Commercial farming involves farming a single crop over the entire piece of land for the commercial purpose for say imports and exports of the crops. Thus, commercial farming has the feature of large landholdings.

Statement 2 is correct: The use of animal and plant manures as a characteristic of intensive-subsistence agriculture is also related to the lack of money to afford chemical or artificial fertilizers by the farmer. But this is a good thing since bio-fertilizers made from kitchen waste, human excreta, farm waste, plants, and animal dung doesn’t affect the soil and the environment. So, this is one of the good aspects of this form of farming practice since even though it puts pressure on the soil and land, the addition of nutrients in the form of manures and bio-fertilizers tries to balance it out.

Statement 3 is correct: Paddy is the most grown crop in the intensive-subsistence agricultural system and several other food crops are also extensively grown and they vary according to location and its climate, soil, and topography. For example, wheat, soybeans, and barley are majorly grown intensively in subsistence farms of northern parts of China, Japan, and Korea and also parts of India like Punjab. In areas where rainfall is not adequate, food crops like millet and sorghum are grown. Maize is also often included in the crop rotation at one time of the year. Peas and other vegetables are often integrated with plants like maize.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Among the non-metallic minerals produced in India, mica is the important one. India is one of the world’s largest producers of mica, and it has significant mica deposits. The states of Jharkhand, Bihar, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh are known for their mica production.

Statement-I is correct: It is true that Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It is also used in cosmetics, such as makeup and skincare products, for its shimmering and reflective properties. Mica is also added to paints, coatings, and automotive finishes for its reflective effects.

Statement-II is incorrect: Mica is a poor conductor of electricity and it is used mainly as an insulator in electronic industries. Mica has exceptional electrical insulating properties. It is a dielectric material that can withstand high voltage without conducting electricity. This makes it ideal for use in electrical equipment and components where electrical insulation is critical, Also the property of Mica to be split into thin, flexible layers, makes them easy to work with and suitable for wrapping around conductors and insulating materials. 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

A floodplain (or floodplain) is a generally flat area of land next to a river or stream. It stretches from the banks of the river to the outer edges of the valley. Floods are usually seasonal and can be predicted months ahead of time. This predictability can make floodplains ideal locations to develop urban areas.

Option 1 is correct. Harvesting water from floodplains is a source of water for urban regions across the country and can be used as a regular and a contingency water reserve. 

Option 2 is incorrect. Floodplains are usually very fertile agricultural areas. Floods carry nutrient-rich silt and sediment, and distribute it across a wide area. Floodplains are flat and often have relatively few boulders or other large obstacles that may prevent farming. The relatively level land can be developed either as agricultural fields or sites for habitation or business. 

Option 3 is correct. A floodplain’s flat terrain and slow-flowing rivers can provide excellent transportation corridors. Roads, bridges, railways, and even airports can be constructed on the even surface. Ships and barges can often haul cargo faster and more efficiently than roadways. Rivers provide both a natural transportation network and source of water for irrigation and industry. 

Option 4 is incorrect. Floodplains have dazzling arrays of biodiversity. These seasonal riparian wetlands boast greater biodiversity than the rivers themselves. The floodplains of Congo River tributaries, for instance, boast one of the most unusual fish on the planet: the West African lungfish.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Agri Stack is a collection of technologies and digital databases that focuses on farmers and the agricultural sector. It will create a unified platform for farmers to provide them end to end services across the agriculture food value chain.

The project will collect granular data to provide growers with a range of customized services. Like, what to plant, where to sell, market information on price movements, and linkages to formal credit arrangements. Each farmer will be provided a unique farmer’s ID, which will be linked to her Aadhaar number.  

It will contain details related to land ownership, the crops she grows, soil health and the benefits available under government schemes such as direct cash transfers, crop insurance and subsidized credit.

Solution (d)

Explanation:  

Zero tillage farming (no till farming) is an agricultural technique for growing crops or pasture without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till farming decreases the amount of soil erosion tillage causes in certain soils, especially in sandy and dry soils on sloping terrain

Option 1 is correct.  The zero-tillage system is being followed in the Indo-Gangetic plains where rice-wheat cropping is present. Wheat will be planted after rice harvest without any operation. Hundreds of farmers are following the same system and getting more yields and profits by reducing the cost of cultivation. Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation, reduce labour, machinery cost and irrigation and therefore it saves around 80% of the cost.

Option 2 is correct. The presence of mulching also helps to reduce the surface runoff which keeps soil moisturized and helps to keep nutrients intact. Residual moisture can be effectively utilized and number of irrigation’s can be reduced.

Option 3 is correct. The organic matter content of the soil is increased through the decomposition of roots and the contribution of vegetative residues on the surface. This organic material decomposes slowly, and thus the liberation of Carbon to the atmosphere also occurs slowly and it helps to increase the organic content in the soil.

Option 4 is correct. No tillage reduces the compaction of the soil and reduces the water loss by runoff and prevent soil erosion. As the soil is intact and no disturbance is done, No Till lands have more useful flora and fauna.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Stainless steel is a corrosion-resistant alloy of iron, chromium, and other elements like nickel, molybdenum, and manganese. It is known for its exceptional durability, resistance to corrosion and staining. 

Statement-I is correct: It is true that Stainless steel does not expand significantly when exposed to heat. This property is advantageous in various applications where dimensional stability and resistance to thermal expansion and contraction are essential, such as in precision instruments, industrial equipment, and structures subject to temperature variations. 

Statement-II is correct:  Stainless steel contains a significant amount of chromium. Most stainless steel contains about 18 percent chromium. Chromium is known for its ability to form a passive oxide layer on the surface of the steel when exposed to oxygen. This oxide layer acts as a protective barrier and contributes to the low thermal expansion of stainless steel by preventing the migration of atoms and minimising changes in the crystal lattice structure at elevated temperatures. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Petroleum refineries convert (refine) crude oil into petroleum products for use as fuels for transportation, heating, paving roads, and generating electricity and as feedstocks for making chemicals.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Simple hydro skimming refineries mainly execute the distillation process. Whereas Complex refineries perform two additional functions: conversion of the hydrocarbon fractions produced in the crude distillation process into other products, and the processing of intermediate products to obtain higher value products.

It is true that Simple refineries are often located close to oil fields to minimise transportation costs, whereas complex refineries, which focus on further processing and value addition, are commonly found near markets. 

Statement 3 is incorrect:  Baruni Refinery is located in Baruni, Bihar and Digia Refinery is situated in Digia, Assam. Baruni refinery is located close to the market and an example of a market-based refinery. Whereas Digia refinery is located close to the oil field and an example of field-based refinery in India.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

India has several ingenious methods of water conservation and management tailored to the specific geographical and climatic conditions of the regions in which they are employed. Jihad, Khond, and Tanka are some of the traditional water conservation structures used in different parts of India. 

Statement 1 is correct: Jihad is a rainwater harvesting technique commonly found in the arid regions of Rajasthan. It involves building shallow earthen check dams to capture rainwater and recharge groundwater.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Khond is a type of water storage structure used commonly in the hilly areas of Himachal Pradesh, not in the coastal regions of Kerala. It consists of terraced fields or agricultural plots that are constructed in a stepped or layered manner along the slopes of the hills. The terraces are designed to slow down the flow of rainwater, allowing it to percolate into the soil and recharge groundwater.

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Tanka (or Kund) is an underground water storage system prevalent in the arid regions of Rajasthan, not in the hilly areas of Himachal Pradesh. It is an underground water storage tank or reservoir designed to capture and store rainwater during the monsoon season.

Tanka systems are typically constructed using materials like stone, brick, or concrete and are covered with a protective layer to prevent evaporation and contamination.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is also

used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore wells, pits and wells. 

Statement 1 is correct: Rainwater harvesting helps reduce soil erosion by capturing rainwater and preventing it from flowing over the surface and eroding topsoil.

Statement 2 is correct: In rainwater harvesting involves the process of collecting rainwater and directing it underground. When rainwater is collected and directed into the ground through methods like percolation pits or recharge wells, it replenishes the groundwater reserves. This helps maintain a higher water table, which acts as a barrier against the encroachment of saltwater.

Statement 3 is correct: Rainwater harvesting contributes to the augmentation of groundwater by storing rainwater for future use, which can then percolate into the ground, replenishing aquifers. This increasing level of groundwater table enables farmers to pump out groundwater using less electricity. 

Statement 4 is incorrect: Rainwater harvesting is typically suitable for household or small-scale agricultural use. It may not provide a sufficient supply for large-scale industrial or agricultural operations as it depends on factors such as storage capacity of rainwater harvesting plant, requirement of industries etc. Hence the statement that rainwater harvesting essentially ensures sufficient supply of water of large-scale industrial usage is incorrect.   

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Natural gas is a fossil fuel composed primarily of methane (CH4) but can also contain small amounts of other hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrogen (N2). It is formed over millions of years from the decomposition of organic matter deep underground.

Statement 1 is correct: It is true that Natural gas is a key raw material in the production of ammonia-based fertilisers. It provides the hydrogen necessary for the Haber-Bosch process, which converts nitrogen from the air into ammonia.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Natural gas used as a fuel in the form of compressed natural gas (CNG) reduces the emissions of carbon monoxide (CO) and other Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions compared to petroleum or diesel vehicles. It is important to note that while CO emissions are reduced, they are not entirely eliminated, hence the statement is not correct. 

Statement 3 is correct: The kilns used in cement production are generally heated using natural gas or coal, adding another source of carbon dioxide into addition to that which is generated through calcination.

Statement 4 is correct: Natural gas is a common feedstock for the production of hydrogen through a process called steam methane reforming (SMR). In SMR, methane from natural gas is chemically reacted with steam to produce hydrogen gas. Thus, at present, natural gas is widely used in the production of Hydrogen. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

India has several nuclear power plants in operation spread across the nation. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited is wholly owned by the Government of India and is responsible for the generation of electricity from nuclear power. NPCIL is administered by the Department of Atomic Energy. 

Pair 1 is correct: Naroda Atomic Power Station is located at Naroda, Uttar Pradesh. The Nuclear power plant is equipped with Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR), and it has a total power generation capacity of over 440 MW.

Pair 2 is correct: Kaaga Atomic Power Station is located at Kaaga (a village in Uttara Kannada district), Karnataka. Kaaga nuclear power plant is equipped with Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)

Capacity: The station has several units with a total capacity of over 800 MW.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Kakra par Atomic Power Station (KAPS) is located at Kakra par, Gujarat (not Rajasthan). The Nuclear power plant is equipped with Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) and it has a total power generation capacity of over 600 MW.

The Rajasthan Atomic Power Project (RAPPS) is a nuclear power project built in the Aryabhata in the northwestern part of Rajasthan.

Pair 4 is correct: Kurakula Nuclear Power Plant is located at Kurakula (a town in the Tirunelveli district), Tamil Nadu. It is the largest nuclear power station in India. KKNPP is scheduled to have six VVER-1000 reactors built in collaboration with Russia with an installed capacity of 6,000 MW of electricity.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The cotton textile industry is one of the traditional industries of India. In 1854, the first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai. 

Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike Sugarcane which loses its weight in the manufacturing process, Cotton is a pure raw material which does not lose weight in the manufacturing process. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: 

The details of production of cotton during the last 5 years is given below: –

So, the statement is incorrect as the production of cotton has not steadily increased in last 5 years.

Statement 3 is correct: Ministry of Textiles (Moot) has launched PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel Parks (MITRAs) Scheme to strengthen the Indian textile industry. The scheme aims to develop integrated large scale and modern industrial infrastructure facility for total value-chain of the textile industry. It aims to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers and generators. It is mixed with gold to provide strength to jewellery.

The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singh hum district in Jharkhand, Balanghai district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.

The Malakand Mine is a surface and underground Copper mine located in Madhya Pradesh. It is owned by Hindustan Copper.

The Banas Mine is a copper mine located in Rajasthan. It is owned by Hindustan Copper.

The Kendari Mine is an underground Copper mine located in Jharkhand. It is owned by Hindustan Copper.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Location of industries is influenced by several factors like access to raw materials, power, market, capital, transport and labour, etc. There is strong relationship between raw material and type of industry. It is economical to locate the manufacturing industries at a place where cost of production and delivery cost of manufactured goods to consumers are the least. Industries using weight-losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located.

Option 1 is correct. The sugar mills in India are located in sugarcane growing areas. Sugar industry in India is based on sugarcane which is a heavy, low value, weight losing and perishable raw material. Also, the sugarcane contains sucrose and once you cut the sugarcane, the sucrose content starts to decline.

Option 2 is correct. Wood is the primary raw material for this industry, it is a weight losing raw material. Pulp mills must be located near the forests because this minimises the difficulty of transporting the bulk logs as well as cost also.

Option 3 is correct. In iron and steel industries, iron ore and coal both are weight-losing raw materials. Therefore, an optimum location for iron and steel industries should be near raw material sources.

Option 4 is correct. Copper smelting industries are located near raw material sources as it is a weight losing industry. Location near raw materials helps to reduce cost of transportation. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

India is one of the world’s major producers and exporters of iron ore and has significant reserves of this Iron ores, scattered across different states. These reserves are primarily found in the states of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka etc. 

Pair 1 is correct: Rourkela mine is located in the Sandarach district of Odisha. In Odisha, Konchar and Sandarach districts are bestowed with wealth resources of iron ores. Konchar has several iron ore mines, including Kiri Buru, Kiri Buru, and Chandradhar. Sandarach district has iron ore mines like Rourkela, Koira, and Bonai.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Namenda Mines is located in West Singh hum district of Jharkhand (not Chhattisgarh). Namenda mine is famous for the mining and export of world-class haematite iron ore. Currently, the Namenda fields are owned by the TATA Iron and Steel Industry. 

Pair 3 is incorrect: Bilabial Mine is located in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh, not in Jharkhand.  The mines are famous for the mining and export of haematite iron ores for example hematite ore found here is exported from Visakhapatnam port to Japan and South Korea

Pair 4 is correct: The Kudrimath Mines were located in the Kudrimath range of hills in the Kudrimath district of Karnataka.  In 2006, the Government of India decided to shut down the Kudrimath Mines to address the environmental and ecological issues associated with the mining operations. However recently the Karnataka Government permitted the company to mine iron and manganese ore from the region. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Central Ground Water Board was formed in 1970 by renaming erstwhile Exploratory Tube well Organization.
• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. So, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a scientific department under Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. So, statement 2 is correct. 
• It is a multidisciplinary Scientific Organization with a mandate to “Develop and disseminate technologies for Scientific and Sustainable development and management of India’s Ground Water Resources, including monitoring exploration, assessment and augmentation.” 
• Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of ground water resources of the country.

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been vested with responsibility for regulation and control of groundwater development and management. Central Ground Water Board is also discharging the functions as Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) to regulate and control the development and management of ground water in the country since 1997. So, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• • Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) system utilizes temperature gradient between warm surface seawater and cooler deep seawater to generate electricity.

• Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a technology for generating renewable energy that uses the temperature differential between the deep cold and relatively warmer surface waters of the ocean to generate baseload electricity. Thus, it uses cold waters of the deeper regions and warm waters of the surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.

• As these temperatures are nearly constant except for minor seasonal variations, OTEC can provide steady electric power irrespective of the time in the day or in the year. Hence OTEC plant can supply base load power which enhances grid stability. OTEC technology can also generate potable water by desalinating seawater.

• The technology is viable primarily in equatorial areas of the earth. It is because in equatorial regions the year-round temperature differential between the deep cold and warm surface ocean waters is greater than 20 ⁰C (36 ⁰F). An OTEC facility continuously requires large volumes of both warm and cold water to generate electricity. So, statement 2 is not correct.

• The National Institute of Ocean Technology is establishing India’s first Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion plant with a capacity of 65 kilowatt (kW) in Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep. So, statement 3 is not correct.

• OTEC will contribute to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and mitigating climate change by reducing dependence on fossil fuels for electricity generation and desalination.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Tank irrigation is a method of irrigation in which a tank, usually a man-made hollow on the Earth’s surface, is used to store rainwater that can be later used for irrigation. This type of irrigation is widely found in the states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. The area under tank irrigation has decreased in recent years because the tank systems are non-perennial and dependent on rainwater

Statement 1 is correct. It is practiced in the peninsular regions for the following regions

• the is undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells
• There is little percolation of water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantities. Most of the rivers are seasonal.
• there are many streams which become torrential during the rainy season – so the only way to use this water is to impound it by constructing bunds and building tanks. Also, it is easy to collect rainwater in natural or artificial pits because of impermeable rocks.

Statement 2 is correct. It accounts for approximately 3% of the net irrigated area in the country. Tamil Nadu accounts for 23% of tank irrigation in India whereas Andhra Pradesh and Telangana accounts for 28% of tank irrigation in India.

Statement 3 is correct. One of the disadvantages of the tank irrigation system is that it requires a large area for its installation. Many tanks also dry up during the dry season and fail to provide irrigation when it is needed the most.

Statement 4 is correct. In the case of tank irrigation system there is much less expenditure than the canal irrigation system. Because most of the tanks are natural and do not involve heavy cost for their construction. Even an individual farmer can have his own tank. Tanks are generally constructed on rocky beds and have longer life spans. In many tanks fishing is also carried on. This supplements both the food resources and income of farmers.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The third annual Deepro Beel Winter Birding Festival 2025 conducted by the 7WEAVES Research which concluded last month, saw an increase in the number of both migratory and residential birds compared to the count done on 2024. In this context, a question can be asked about the Beel by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Deepro Beel is a perennial freshwater lake located on the outskirts of Guwahati, Assam. It lies in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River. It covers an area of 4.1 sq.km. It is the only major stormwater storage basin for the city of Guwahati. The lake’s outflow is the Khan Dajan rivulet, which joins the Brahmaputra. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

• It was recognised as a Ramsar Site in 2002 and as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) in 2004. It is the only Ramsar site in the state of Assam. This lake is a staging site on migratory flyways, and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter. Some globally threatened birds are supported, including Spot-billed Pelican, Lesser Greater Adjutant Stork, and Baer’s Pochard. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Camp Hill virus, a henipaviral related to Nipah, has been recently detected in North America, raising concerns of a potential outbreak. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the virus.

Explanation:

• Lentiviruses (family Lentiviruses) are zoonotic, negative-sense RNA viruses. Fruit bats (Pteropods species, also called ‘flying foxes’) are the natural hosts of Lentiviruses. The two most notable lentiviruses are Hendra virus and Nipah virus. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Lentiviruses can cross species barriers, infecting various mammals, including humans. They often cause severe respiratory illness and encephalitis and are associated with high case fatality rates. Treatment is symptomatic, and no vaccine or antiviral drug has been developed so far to treat the disease. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) digital payments index (DPI) rose to 465.33 as of September 2024, compared to 445.5 in March 2024, reflecting the rapid adoption of digital payments in the country. In this context, a question about the index can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Digital Payments Index has been constructed by the RBI to measure the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. It is based on multiple parameters and reflects the expansion of various digital payment modes accurately. It is a first-of-its kind index to measure the spread of digital payments across the country. It was first launched in January 2021. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The budget 2025-26 allocation under the PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana increased by 37% compared to last year. In this context, a question about the scheme can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for the old-age protection and social security of unorganized workers. LIC will be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for pension pay out. The amount collected under the PM-SYM shall be invested as per the investment pattern specified by the Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSC governance Services India Limited (CSC SPV). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Iran recently unveiled two missiles, named Etemad and Ghadr-380. In this context, a question about these missiles can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Etemad is a new ballistic missile built by the Iranian defence ministry. Dubbed Etemad, or “trust” in Persian, it has a maximum range of 1,700 kilometres (1,056 miles). With a length of 16 meters and a diameter of 1.25 meters, the missile is equipped with a precision-guided warhead. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Merck) organised the World Wetlands Day 2025 celebrations at the Parvati Agra Ramsar Site. In this context, a question about the day can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• World Wetlands Day is celebrated annually on February 2. It aims to spread awareness about conserving one of the most critical ecosystems on the planet. This date marks the adoption of the Ramsar Convention in 1971. Theme of 2025 World Wetlands Day: This year, the theme was “Protecting Wetlands for Our Common Future”. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The Southern Zonal Bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently restrained the Andhra Pradesh Government from proceeding with the six infrastructure projects in Koller wetland area. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the lake.

Explanation:

• Koller lake is a large, natural, shallow, freshwater lake located in northeastern Andhra Pradesh. It lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas near the city of Uluru. It is the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia. It covers an area of 308 sq.km. The lake serves as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for these two rivers. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The Koller lake drains into the Bay of Bengal through the Putera River. Occasionally, small amounts of salt water enter the otherwise freshwater lake through this river. It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 and a Ramsar Site in November 2002. It serves as a habitat for migratory birds. It regularly supports more than 50,000 waterfowl, due to which it was selected as an Important Bird Area (IBA). It falls on the migratory route called the Central Asian Flyway (CAF). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The World Health Organization (WHO) chief recently asked global leaders to lean on Washington to reverse President Donald Trump’s decision to withdraw from the U.N. health agency. In this context, a question about WHO can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• World Health Organization (WHO) is the United Nations specialized agency for health. It was established in 1948 with the objective of the attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health. Each year WHO celebrates its date of establishment, April 7, 1948, as World Health Day. Health, as defined in the WHO Constitution, is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• WHO is responsible for providing leadership on global health matters, shaping the health research agenda, setting norms and standards, articulating evidence-based policy options, providing technical support to countries and monitoring and assessing health trends. It has 193 member countries and two associate members. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, in a major development, the Framework Agreement on establishment of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has officially come into force. In this context, a question about the alliance can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was launched on 9th April 2023, during the event ‘Commemorating 50 years of Project Tiger’. Present Member countries of the International Big Cat Alliance: Nicaragua, Eswatini, India, Somalia and Liberia – have deposited the instruments of ratification under the Article VIII (1) of the Framework Agreement. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• It was launched with the aim of conservation of seven big cats – Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma. It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The Union Home Ministry recently asked State governments to prevent the misuse and improper depiction of the State Emblem of India, emphasising that the Lion Capital logo is incomplete without the motto—Satyamev Jayate—in Devanagari script. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about it.

Explanation:

• The State Emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. In the original, there are four lions, mounted back-to-back, on a circular abacus, which itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus. But in the State emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Below the representation of the Lion Capital, the words Satyameva Jayate are written in Devnagari Script, which is also the National Motto of India. The words are a quote from the Mundaka Upanishad, the last and most philosophical of the four Vedas, and is translated as ‘Truth alone triumphs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is on the clashes between India’s food security concerns and WTO norms. The given option means that India does not adhere to international trade norms, which is not reflected in the passage. Also, reforming agricultural laws and policies is not the core idea of the passage. Hence, this option is incorrect. 

Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is extreme and is not based on the passage. The passage shows the concerns that India faces in food security by following WTO norms. The author nowhere hints towards leaving WTO. The main theme of the passage is that it is difficult to balance both aspects. So, this is not the correct option.  

Option (c) is incorrect: Whether WTO norms are discriminatory is not mentioned in the passage. Also, how those discriminatory norms restrict India’s commitment to food security is not mentioned in the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is, therefore, incorrect.  

Option (d) is correct: The central theme of the passage is the challenges India faces in ensuring food security in the backdrop of WTO norms. This is reflected in the lines “However, the clash between India’s domestic support programs and WTO norms creates tension. The need to uplift millions from poverty and hunger clashes with the demands of international trade agreements.” This option captures this theme comprehensively. 

Solution (b) 

Explanation

So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the most rational inference.  

Option (b) is correct: The main issue in fighting climate change as per the passage is funding as seen in the lines “Implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and enhancing climate resilience necessitate financial investments” and “Ultimately, viewing the costs of climate action as an investment in a sustainable and resilient future underscores the importance of proactive measures.” Therefore, we can infer that when cost is central to fighting climate change, then without funding and proactive measures, almost everyone will face the brunt of climate change. These arguments are aptly captured in this answer option. 

Option (c) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is the core issue of funding which is essential to fighting climate change. Mitigation and adaptation measures are only a part of the passage and not the central theme of the passage. So, this option is not at all the most rational inference.    

Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is quite broad, generic, vague and not quite specific to the information contained in the passage. The passage primarily discusses the issues of funding in every aspect of fighting climate change. This is not captured in this answer option. So, this option is not the most rational inference of the passage. 

Solution (c)

Explanation

(33 77) × 5/2 = 110 × 5/2 = 275 

Thus, (19 31) × 5/2 = 50 × 5/2 = 125 

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation

From the above diagrams, we can conclude that either conclusion l or conclusion III follows. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. 

Solution (d) 

Explanation

Given series: 15, 21, 34, 54, 81, ? Observing above, we get: 

Hence, 115 is the next term. 

So, option (d) is the right answer.