Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The revolt of 1857 began at Meerut, 58 km from Delhi, on May 10, 1857 and then, gathering force rapidly, soon embraced a vast area from the Punjab in the north and the Narmada in the south to Bihar in the east and Rajputana in the west. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Even before the Meerut incident, there were rumblings of resentment in various cantonments. For example, the 19th Native Infantry at Berhampore (West Bengal), which refused to use the newly introduced Enfield rifle and broke out in mutiny in February 1857 was disbanded in March 1857. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• In 1910, Sarla Devi Chaudhurani convened the first meeting of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal in Allahabad. The organization also opened several offices in Lahore (then part of undivided India), Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Bankura, Hazaribagh, Midnapur and Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) to improve the situation of women all over India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Bharat Stree Mahamandal (the Large Circle of Indian Women) was the first all India women’s association. It is considered as the first major Indian women’s organisation set up by a woman. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

its objectives included promotion of education for women, abolition of the purdah system and improvement in the socio-economic and political status of woman all over India. Sarla Devi believed that the man working for women’s upliftment lived ‘under the shade of Manu.’ Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Ramabai Ranade founded the Ladies Social Conference (Bharat Mahila Parishad). She was an Indian social worker and one of the first women’s rights activists in the early 20th century. At the age of 11, she was married to Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade, who was a distinguished Indian scholar and social reformer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ladies Social Conference functioned under the parent organisation National Social Conference, in 1904 in Bombay. Ramabai started her public service around 1878, but it was after Justice Ranade’s death in 1901 that she wholly identified herself with the cause of women in India. In 1915 the Pune Seva Sadan was registered as a society under her guidance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar led the Mahad Satyagraha in March 1927 to challenge the regressive customs of the caste Hindus. He led a procession of some 2,500 ‘untouchables’ through the town of Mahad to the Chawdar tank, a public source of water tank from which the untouchables were not allowed to draw water. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Dr Ambedkar established the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha in 1924 to highlight the difficulties and grievances of the dalits before the government. Its motto was: ‘Educate, Agitate and Organise.’ Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Begum Hazrat Mahal took over the reigns at Lucknow where the rebellion broke out on June 4, 1857 and popular sympathy was overwhelmingly in favour of the deposed nawab. Her son, Birjis Qadir, was proclaimed the nawab and a regular administration was organised with important offices shared equally by Muslims and Hindus. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The early attempts of Sir Henry Havelock and Sir James Outram to recover Lucknow met with no success. Finally, Sir Colin Campbell, the new commander-in-chief, evacuated the Europeans with the help of Gorkha regiments. Sir Hugh Wheeler, was commanding the station at Kanpur. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Giving a tribute to Rani Laxmibai, Hugh Rose commented about her, “Here lay the woman who was the only man among the rebels.” Rani Laxmibai is regarded as the most outstanding leader of the revolt of 1857. Driven out of Jhansi by British forces, she had given the battle cry- “main apni Jhansi nahin doongi” (I shall not give away my Jhansi). Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Indian Social Conference launched the ‘Pledge Movement’ to inspire people to take a pledge against child marriage. Indian (National) Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It was essentially the Indian National Congress’s social reform cell. Its inaugural meeting was held in Madras in December 1887. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The following campaigns were organized by the Pre-Congress Associations:

• Against Arms Act 1878
• Against Vernacular Press Act 1878
• Against the Inland Emigration Act
• In support of the Ilbert bill
• Campaign in Britain to vote for a pro-India party
• Against reduction in maximum age for appearing in civil services
• For the imposition of import duty on cotton
• Against Lytton’s Afghan adventure
• For Indianisation of government service
• For the right to join volunteer corps
• For an All India Fund for Political Agitation

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded on 28 December 1885, it was the first modern nationalist movement to emerge in the British Empire in Asia and Africa.
• The first session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in December 1885 under the chairmanship of W.C. Banerjee. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India when INC was formed in 1885. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the first session, there were a few important segments of the demands from Indians that were presented before the British such as the creation of legislative councils for the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP), Sindh, and Awadh. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The Indian Factory Act of 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour (between 7 and 12 years of age). The important provisions of the Factory Act of 1881 are: 

• As per the Act, children get four holidays in a month. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Employment of children under 7 years of age is prohibited. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Working hours for children were restricted to 9 hours per day. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The British were ready to annex the princely states before 1857 to extend their empire. After 1857 and its revolt the British had to change their approach towards the princely states. 
• During the 1857 revolt, the princely states were very loyal to the British and also helped them suppress the revolts carried around the country. 
• The relationship with princely states was to be guided by a two-point policy using and perpetuating them as bulwarks of the empire and subordinating them completely to British authority (the policy of subordinate union). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Lord Curzon had made it clear that the princes ruled their states merely as agents of the British Crown. As the British were exercising paramountcy, they had the right to interfere in the internal affairs of states through their residents or by appointing and dismissing ministers and officials.
• The policies of the British towards princely states were aimed at cultivating them as a buffer against future political unrest and rewarding them for their loyalty during the revolt of 1857, the policy of annexation was abandoned. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Gandhi and the rest of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were unconditionally released on January 25, 1931. Gandhi was given authority by the CWC to start negotiating with the viceroy Irwin. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in Delhi on March 5, 1931, by the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the people of India. 

Irwin on behalf of the government agreed on:

• immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence
• remission of all fines not yet collected
• return of all lands not yet sold to third parties
• lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;
• right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale);
• right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and
• withdrawal of emergency ordinances

Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed on:

• to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and
• to participate in the next Round Table Conference on the constitutional question around the three lynch-pins of federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in India’s interests

The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands:

• Public inquiry into police excesses, and
• Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades’ death sentence to life sentence.

There was no such agreement between Gandhiji and Lord Irwin which deferred the abolition of salt tax. Hence option b is correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

The provisions of the Indian Councils Act of 1892: 

• The officials retained their majority in the council, thus making the non-official voice ineffective. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It increased the number of non-official members on the Central and Provincial Legislative Councils, allowing for greater Indian participation. 
• Supplementary questions could not be asked, nor could answers to any question be discussed. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• While the Act did not explicitly mention “elections,” it did include an indirect electoral process for selecting some non-official members, indicating a shift towards representative governance.
• The non-official members of the Indian legislative council were to be nominated by the Bengal Chamber of Commerce and provincial legislative councils. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Local entities such as universities, district boards, municipalities, zamindars, trade groups, and chambers of commerce were given the authority to recommend members to Provincial Councils, thereby introducing a form of representation.

The budget could be discussed but could not be voted upon, nor could any amendments be made to it. Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Poll tax refers to a tax imposed on all ex-indentured Indian labourers staying in South Africa. It was a discriminatory tax that targeted the Indian community to discourage Indian immigrants from settling in South Africa. Gandhiji launched the Civil Disobedience Movement calling for the abolition of Poll tax and it widened the social base of the movement. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Rajendra Prasad. J.B. Kripalani, Mazharul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, and Narhari Parekh joined Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha but not in the Kheda Satyagraha.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Indulal Yagnik were some of the important leaders who joined Gandhiji in the Kheda Satyagraha. Hence option b is correct.
• Other leaders who joined Gandhiji during Kheda Satyagraha were Shankarlal Banker and Mohanlal Pandya.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The extremists planned to expand the Boycott and Swadeshi Movement beyond Bengal and to incorporate all types of associations (such as government service, law courts, legislative councils, and so on) in the boycott program, thereby launching a nationwide mass movement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Extremists issued a call for widespread passive resistance and a boycott of universities, legislative bodies, local governments, courts, and other institutions after being inspired by the proceedings at the Calcutta session. 
• The Extremists made no demand for complete independence. 
• The goal of the Indian National Congress was characterized as ‘swarajya or self-government, similar to the United Kingdom or the colonies of Australia and Canada. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The extremists desired that the 1907 session be held in Nagpur (Central Provinces), with Tilak or Lajpat Rai as president, and that the swadeshi, boycott, and national education motions be reiterated. However, the Moderates wanted the session to be held in Surat. Instead, they wanted Rashbehari Ghosh as president. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Swarajist, also known as Pro Changers represented a faction within the Indian National Congress that had distinct political views and strategies compared to No Changers. 
• The Swarajist Manifesto was issued by the Swarajists preceding the 1923 elections. It included the following:
• The Swarajists advocated for active participation in the legislative councils established by the Government of India Act 1919. They aimed to use these councils as platforms to demand more self-governance for Indians within the framework of British colonial rule. 
• The Swarajists sought to utilize the legislative councils to press for constitutional reforms that would grant Indians more control over administration. In the event of the refusal of this demand, they announced a strategy of consistent obstruction within the councils, rendering governance through that channel unfeasible. 
• Swarajists in their manifesto declared that the Indian people should have the right to frame their own Constitution. The Swarajist made it clear that a Constitution for India could only be made keeping in mind the specificity of Indian conditions. Therefore, an alien government sitting in England was not competent to make a Constitution for India, suitable for Indian conditions.

Hence option c is correct.

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The socio-religious movements played a major role in promoting national consciousness among people by advocating against oppressive practices such as caste discrimination but it did not eradicate caste discrimination. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The administrative uniformity brought out by the British played a major role in promoting national feeling among Indians. For example, almost every peasant in India felt the burden of the British’s land revenue policy and the educated felt the brunt of the racial superiority policy in terms of associating Indians with administration. This encouraged Indians to come in unity to oppose colonial rule. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The press played a significant role in promoting national feeling among Indians by politically educating the masses. The British had their own suspicion against the press in India and so they often restricted the liberty of the press through acts like the Vernacular Press Act of 1877 that greatly curbed the freedom of the press. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The development of modern transport and communication enabled leaders to better spread their ideas across India. This brought a lot of peasants and labourers for the first time under the programme of national struggle against the British. Hence statement 4 is correct.

 Solution (b)

Explanation:

Dewan Chaman Lall (1892 -1973) was elected as the first general secretary of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC). He also represented workers’ interests at the first Round Table Conference in 1930-31 and served as a member of the Central Legislative Assembly. He was elected to the Constituent Assembly from East Punjab representing the All-India Trade Union Congress party in 1946. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Krishna Patrika was a significant Telugu periodical in the Andra area that began in the early twentieth century and lasted till the country gained independence. Konda Venkatappayya, an Indian freedom fighter, founded the Telugu-language daily Krishna Patrika. 
• Mutnuri Krishna Rao was the editor of the Krishna Patrika for a long time and was one of the paper’s founders and served as its SubEditor beginning in 1902. 
• Dasu Narayana Rao was also the founder of the Krishna Patrika.

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Raisina Dialogue is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is modelled on the lines of the Munich Security Conference and Singapore’s Shangri-La Dialogue.
• It is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geo-economics. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the international community.
• Its theme for 2025 is “Kalachakra: People. Peace. Planet.”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is supported by a number of institutions, organizations, and individuals, who are committed to the mission of the conference.
• It is held annually since 2016 in New Delhi. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Uniyala keralensis is a “small to large shrub,” growing up to one to three metres in height and sporting attractive light purple florets, according to the paper. Hence option a is correct.
• Uniyala keralensis has, among other things, larger leaves, fairly long petioles – the slender stalk that joins the leaf to the stem – and fewer lateral veins on the leaves. 
• Flowering and fruiting occur from August to April.
• It is found in open areas of the western mountain slopes of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) at elevations ranging between 700 to 1,400 metres. 
• The present population consists of nearly 5,000 individuals of various ages in four subpopulations occupying an area of 250 km2. 
• Following the IUCN Red List Criteria (IUCN 2024), Uniyala keralensis is assessed as a Data Deficient (DD).

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• CAR T-Cell Therapy extracts T-cells (a type of white blood cell) from the patient’s blood.
• These T-cells are genetically engineered in a lab to produce special structures called Chimeric Antigen Receptors (CARs) on their surface.
• These CARs help the T-cells recognize and attack cancer cells once re-infused into the patient. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• CAR T-Cell Therapy is mainly used to treat certain types of blood cancers, like Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) and Certain types of lymphoma.
• It has no primary role in treating cardiovascular (heart-related) diseases. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Personalized medicine means tailoring treatment to the individual characteristics of each patient.

Since CAR T-Cell Therapy uses the patient’s own modified immune cells, it is highly personalized to each patient’s specific cancer. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Melioidosis is not caused by a virus. It is a bacterial infection caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Melioidosis is also known as Whitmore’s disease. It usually affects adults aged 40-60 years.
• The case fatality rate is high between 16% to 50%.
• Transmission happens via direct contact with contaminated soil, water, or air. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Melioidosis is not transmitted by eating infected animals; it spreads by direct environmental contact.

• Pneumonia, sepsis, and cutaneous infections are among the common symptoms.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Components of India’s Forex Reserves:

• Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) 
• Gold Reserves
• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) 
• Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Reserve Bank of India is the custodian of forex reserves. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Purpose of Holding Forex Reserves:
• Manage liquidity for foreign exchange needs.
• Support during the Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis.
• Currency stabilization: RBI can sell dollars to prevent sharp rupee depreciation.
• Build international confidence for foreign investors and trade.

Foreign currency assets are the largest component of India’s forex reserves. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The World Trade Organization (WTO) provides the legal and institutional foundation for the global trading system, including the framework for anti-dumping measures to protect domestic industries from unfair trade practices. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Crew-9 astronauts safely returned to Earth after a nine-month stay. NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore, initially part of Boeing’s Starliner mission, experienced an extended stay aboard the International Space Station due to technical issues with their spacecraft. They, along with Crew-9 members Nick Hague and Roscosmos cosmonaut Aleksandr Gorbunov, safely returned to Earth aboard SpaceX’s Dragon capsule on March 18, 2025, concluding a 286-day mission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• While the Crew-9 mission involved various scientific experiments aboard the ISS, there is no specific evidence indicating that it contributed to advancements in space-based solar power technology. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The Crew-9 mission was a collaboration between NASA and SpaceX, with participation from Roscosmos. There was no involvement from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in this mission. However, ISRO’s chairman did express admiration for the mission’s success and indicated a desire for future collaborations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Badland Topography refers to areas where severe gully erosion has created a network of deep channels, resulting in a rugged and barren landscape. This is commonly seen in regions like the Chambal Ravines in India. Hence option b is correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is a crucial maritime chokepoint connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. It is one of the world’s busiest shipping lanes, facilitating a significant portion of global trade, especially oil transportation. Its strategic location makes it vital for international commerce and naval operations. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not legally binding. It is a set of ethical guidelines issued by the ECI, but violations are not punishable under electoral laws unless they overlap with existing laws (e.g., bribery, hate speech). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Supreme Court mandated that all candidates must disclose criminal antecedents in their nomination forms. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The introduction of VVPAT was directed by the Supreme Court to increase transparency and allow voters to verify that their votes were cast correctly. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is incorrect: It would not be correct to state that democracy is the worst form of government. The line “Why does Plato not consider democracy the best form of government?” only shows that Plato believed that democracy is not the best form of government, but it does not mean that it is the worst form of government. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the following lines – “Secondly, equality (inherent in democracy), … motivated by personal gain rather than the public good. Democracy is thus highly corruptible. It opens gates to demagogues, and potential dictators, and can thus lead to tyranny.” These lines show that as a result of democracy, people with personal interests can become leaders, making democracy prone to tyranny or authoritarianism. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the passage. Assumption 3 is correct: The lines “In the Republic, he criticizes the direct and unchecked democracy of his time precisely because of its leading features. Firstly, although freedom is for Plato a true value, democracy involves the danger of excessive freedom … Secondly, equality, … motivated by personal gain rather than the public good” show that freedom and equality are leading features of democracy. Hence, this assumption is correct. 

 Solution (b) 

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect: Fulfilling energy demands from fossil fuels is possible (doable) in the short term as seen in the lines “Whether it meets those needs with fossil fuels or green alternatives has the potential to shift the trajectory of its greenhouse gas emissions for many more years to come.  … but with current policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase (possibly via fossil fuels) by more than 40 per cent by 2030.” However, in the long term, it is unsustainable as seen in the line “more rapid scaling up of current policies could help lower emissions considerably over the medium term and bring India closer to a path to net zero (not possible with fossil fuels) by 2070.” So, the given statement is not correct as per the passage.   

Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the following lines from the passage “India has made significant progress towards meeting its emissions reductions targets under the Paris Agreement, but with current policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase by more than 40 per cent by 2030. While a modest increase in short-term emissions may be necessary to meet poverty reduction and energy security goals …” These lines show that if poverty reduction and energy security are to be achieved then it would lead to increased GHG emissions. Hence, achieving the triple goals of poverty reduction and GHG reduction in tandem with boosting energy security is not possible in the short term. 

Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is contradictory to the lines “India has made significant progress towards meeting its emissions reduction targets under the Paris Agreement, but with current policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase by more than 40 per cent by 2030.” This shows that instead of reducing GHG emissions for meeting international obligations, these might increase due to domestic reasons. Hence, it would not be correct to say that current policies are sufficient to fulfil the international commitments. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The given statement is not correct because of the following lines “It’s also poised to be one of the fastest-growing economies in coming years, which will in turn sharply boost energy demand. Whether it meets those needs with fossil fuels or green alternatives has the potential to shift the trajectory of its greenhouse gas emissions for many more years to come.” These lines show that it is not clear whether green energy or fossil fuels will be used to meet the energy demands of the fast growing economy. Hence, it would not be correct to say that energy from green sources is crucial for becoming the fastest-growing economy, as such a relationship is not mentioned in the passage. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Let the cost prices for Walmart for A type cashew and B type cashew be Rs. 3x per kg and Rs. x per kg respectively.

It sold 8 kg of B type at a profit of 10% and 16 kg of A type at a profit of 20% to a Spencer outlet.

So, Cost price of B type cashew for Spencer = Rs. 1.1x per kg

And, Cost price of A type cashew for Spencer = 1.2 × 3x = Rs. 3.6x per kg

So, Overall Cost Price for Spencer = Rs. (3.6x × 16 + 1.1x × 8)

Spencer lost 5 kg of A type and 3 kg of B type in transit.

So, Remaining quantity of A type cashew = 16 – 5 = 11 kg

Remaining quantity of B type cashew = 8 – 3 = 5 kg

Total cashew left = 11 + 5 = 16 kg

It mixed the remaining cashew together and sold the mixture at Rs. 166 per kg, making an overall profit of 25%.

So, Selling Price = (125/100) × Cost Price = (5/4) × Cost Price

or, (5/4) × Cost Price = Selling Price

or, (3.6x × 16 + 1.1x × 8) × (5/4) = 16 × 166

or, 83x = 16 × 166

or, x = (16 × 166)/83 = Rs. 32

Now, 32 is 4 less than the square of 6 (i.e. 36).

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Let M be the daily wage of a male and F be the daily wage of a female.

According to the question,

15M + 25F = 5800 ………(ii)

20M + 30F = 7200 ……….(ii)

By subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:

5M + 5F = 1400

Or M + F = 280

Or M = 280 – F ……….(iii)

From equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

20(280 – F) + 30F = 7200

Or 5600 – 20F + 30F = 7200

Or 10F = 7200 – 5600

Or 10F = 1600

Or F = 160

Therefore, the total wage received by 10 females in one day = 160 × 10 = Rs. 1600

Hence, option (a) is the right answer.

Solution (d)