Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Animals which eat only plants or plant products are called herbivores. Horse, cow, mule, donkey and buffalo are some domesticated animals that are herbivores. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Animals which eat other animals are called carnivores. Tigers, lions, cheetahs, crocodiles, snakes, shark, and tuna are some of the examples of carnivores. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Animals which eat both plants and animals are called omnivores. Examples of omnivores include bears, birds, dogs, raccoons, foxes, certain insects, and even humans. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Each dish is usually made up of one or more ingredients, which we get from plants or animals. These ingredients contain some components that are needed by our body. These components are called nutrients. The major nutrients in our food are named carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals. In addition, food contains dietary fibres and water which are also needed by our body (but these are not nutrients). Hence, option c is the correct answer.

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• There are many types of carbohydrates. The main carbohydrates found in our food are in the form of starch and sugars. Starch is a polysaccharide, which means it is many individual sugars joined together. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

Leaves are the food factories of plants. Therefore, all the raw materials must reach the leaf. Water and minerals present in the soil are absorbed by the roots and transported to the leaves. Carbon dioxide from air is taken in through the tiny pores present on the surface of leaves. These pores are surrounded by ‘guard cells.’ Such pores are called stomata. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter is called saprotrophic nutrition and such organisms with saprotrophic mode of nutrition are called saprotrophs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Fungi grow on bread, pickles, leather, clothes and other articles that are left in hot and humid weather for long time. Similarly, mushrooms grow in moist soils or on rotting wood during the rainy season. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The liver is a reddish-brown gland situated in the upper part of the abdomen on the right side. It is the largest gland in the body. It secretes bile juice that is stored in a sac called the gall bladder. The bile plays an important role in the digestion of fats. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The basic components of a cell are cell membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus. The cytoplasm and nucleus are enclosed within the cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane. And cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance present between the cell membrane and the nucleus. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The cell membrane gives shape to the cell. In addition to the cell membrane, there is an outer thick layer in cells of plants called cell wall. This additional layer surrounding the cell membrane is required by plants for protection. Notably, the cell wall is present only in plant cells and not in animal cells. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals. Dolphin, Whales, Humans, Lion, Tiger, Elephant, Dogs, etc. are examples of viviparous animals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Those animals which lay eggs are called oviparous animals. Frogs, snakes, lizards, hens, duck, fishes, shark, penguins, butterflies, octopus, etc. examples of oviparous animals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The animals which lay eggs but the egg is developed inside the mother’s body are called ovoviviparous animals. Some examples of ovoviviparous animals include certain species of sharks, rays, snakes, fish, and insects. Oviparity differs from ovoviviparity in that oviparous eggs may or may not undergo internal fertilization, but are laid and rely on the yolk sac for nourishment until hatching. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream to reach a particular body part called target site. There are many endocrine glands or ductless glands in the body. And the sex hormones are under the control of hormones from the pituitary gland. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The male hormone or testosterone begins to be released by the testes at the onset of puberty. This causes changes in boys about which you have just learnt, for example, the growth of facial hair. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Once puberty is reached in girls, ovaries begin to produce the female hormone or estrogen which makes the breasts develop. Milk secreting glands or mammary glands develop inside the breasts. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Digestion of carbohydrates, like starch, begins in the buccal cavity. The digestion of protein starts in the stomach. The bile secreted from the liver, the pancreatic juice from the pancreas and the digestive juice from the intestinal wall complete the digestion of all components of food in the small intestine. The digested food is absorbed in the blood vessels from the small intestine. The absorbed substances are transported to different parts of the body. Water and some salts are absorbed from the undigested food in the large intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed residues are expelled out of the body as faeces through the anus. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The nucleus of the bacterial cell is not well-organised like the cells of multicellular organisms. There is no nuclear membrane. The cells having nuclear material without nuclear membrane are termed prokaryotic cells. The organisms with these kinds of cells are called prokaryotes (pro: primitive; karyon: nucleus). Examples are bacteria and blue green algae. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The cells, like onion cells and cheek cells having well-organised nucleus with a nuclear membrane are designated as eukaryotic cells. The organisms with these kinds of cells are called eukaryotes (eu: true; karyon: nucleus). All organisms other than bacteria and blue green algae are called eukaryotes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Gene is a unit of inheritance in living organisms. It is the unit of hereditary information that occupies a fixed position (locus) on a chromosome. Genes achieve their effects by directing the synthesis of proteins. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Gene controls the transfer of a hereditary characteristic from parents to offspring. Genes are passed from parents to offspring and contain the information needed to specify physical and biological traits. Most genes code for specific proteins, or segments of proteins, which have differing functions within the body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Nucleus, in addition to its role in inheritance, acts as control centre of the activities of the cell. The entire content of a living cell is known as protoplasm and it includes the cytoplasm and the nucleus. Protoplasm is thus also called the living substance of the cell. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’ molecules of DNA, which are composed of DNA from different sources/genomes. When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’ and, these can be joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligases. Hence, Statement-I is correct.

The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix. Hence, Statement-II is not correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Bt cotton was the first GM crop approved in India in March 2002 for commercial cultivation. Bt. has been used as an insecticide to control stored grain pests in many other countries, including India, as sprays in cotton Integrated Pest Management (IPM) programs to control insects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Bt cotton is a genetically modified (GM) cotton crop that expresses an insecticidal protein whose gene was derived from the soil bacterium (not fungus) Bacillus thuringiensis, also known as Bt. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The use of Bt Cotton has led to reduction in the use of pesticides and it has reduced the risk of poisoning people who apply pesticides or work in the fields and animals. Bt cotton has also increased yields through better pest control and has benefited adopting farmers in India and several other developing countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. It is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• GEAC is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

 Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Cloning is a technique scientists use to make exact genetic copies of living things. Genes, cells, tissues, and even whole animals can all be cloned. Hence statement 1 is correct

Some clones already exist in nature. Single-celled organisms like bacteria make exact copies of themselves each time they reproduce. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

Cloning:

• Cloning is the production of an exact copy of a cell, any other living part, or a complete organism. Cloning of an animal was successfully performed for the first time by Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at the Roslin Institute in Edinburgh, Scotland. They successfully cloned a sheep named Dolly. Dolly was born on 5th July 1996 and was the first mammal to be cloned.
• During the process of cloning Dolly, a cell was collected from the mammary gland of a female Finn Dorsett sheep. Simultaneously, an egg was obtained from a Scottish blackface ewe. The nucleus was removed from the egg. Then, the nucleus of the mammary gland cell from the Finn Dorsett sheep was inserted into the egg of the Scottish blackface ewe whose nucleus had been removed. The egg thus produced was implanted into the Scottish blackface ewe. Development of this egg followed normally and finally Dolly was born. 
• Dolly was a healthy clone of the Finn Dorsett sheep and produced several offspring of her own through normal sexual means. Unfortunately, Dolly died on 14th February 2003 due to a certain lung disease.

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

• • The invention of magnifying lenses led to the discovery of the microscopic world. It is now known that a single cell may constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium and bacteria. These organisms are called unicellular organisms (uni = single). On the other hand, many cells group together in a single body and assume different functions in it to form various body parts in multicellular organisms (multi = many) such as some fungi, plants and animals.

• Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

In some organisms like bacteria, the nuclear region of the cell may be poorly defined due to the absence of a nuclear membrane. Such an undefined nuclear region containing only nucleic acids is called a nucleoid. Such organisms, whose cells lack a nuclear membrane, are called prokaryotes (Pro = primitive or primary; karyote ≈ karyon = nucleus). Organisms with cells having a nuclear membrane are called eukaryotes.

Prokaryotic cells also lack most of the other cytoplasmic organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Many of the functions of such organelles are also performed by poorly organised parts of the cytoplasm. The chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with membranous vesicles (bag like structures) but not with plastids as in eukaryotic cells

• Hence, option c is the correct answer.

 Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Scientists use a radioactive carbon isotope called carbon-14 animal remains from the more recent past. DNA barcoding is a taxonomic technique that identifies an organism as belonging to a specific species by using a short genetic marker in its DNA. An individual DNA sequence is compared to a reference library of similar DNA sections to accomplish this (called sequences). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

DNA Barcoding helps in the identification of species even from minute amounts of tissue which can help tackle problems like illegal trade of endangered species. DNA barcodes can effectively control pest attack, identifying disease vectors properly. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Using DNA barcoding, which is widely used in fish species, is a viable method for authenticating the processed food. Using DNA barcoding, natural resource managers can monitor illegal trade of products made of natural resources like hardwood trees. DNA barcoding can be used to identify the important medicinal plant. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (c) 

Explanation:

A gene called cry1Ac from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis was inserted into the brinjal to develop Bt Brinjal, a transgenic brinjal. This brinjal has been genetically modified to withstand insects like the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer (Leucinodes orbonalis). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Farmers will be free to save and sow as many seeds from Bt Brinjal open-pollinated cultivars as they like. They are not terminator seeds. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

A Supreme Court appointed expert group advised a 10-year moratorium on field trials of all genetically modified (GM) food crops and a complete ban on field trials of transgenics in crops of Indian origins when the case reached that court because consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on the health of people. Consequently, the government put a freeze on field trial of Bt Brinjal in 2010. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The government’s own task committee on biotechnology had recommended in 2004 that no GM crops be allowed in biodiversity rich areas since biodiversity is essential for nutrition and sustainability. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

 Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) was the first to formally advocate partial state funding of elections in India, arguing that it would reduce the influence of money in politics. Hence option b is correct.
• The Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) also discussed state funding, but it was not the primary focus of its recommendations.
• The Vohra Committee (1993) was concerned with the nexus between crime and politics, and the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2007) focused on ethics and transparency rather than state funding.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• SpaDeX is a technology demonstration mission by ISRO designed to test and validate spacecraft rendezvous, docking, and undocking operations in orbit. Hence option d is correct.
• It is crucial for future space station assembly, lunar sample return missions, and deep-space exploration.
• SDX-01 (Chaser) and SDX-02 (Target).
• It was launched on December 30, 2024, aboard PSLV-C60 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
• It aims to develop and demonstrate docking, undocking, and power transfer technologies in space.

It establishes a foundation for future space station construction, human spaceflight, and interplanetary missions.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• There is no vaccine for Hantavirus, unlike polio or smallpox. Prevention relies on rodent control and hygiene measures. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Hantavirus does not spread between humans in most cases, making it non-contagious in typical outbreaks. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Individuals in agriculture, construction, and forestry work are at a higher risk due to frequent exposure to rodent habitats. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Pratibimb Module is a crime-mapping tool that tracks cybercriminals and crime infrastructure across India. It is developed under the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) by the Union Home Ministry.
• It uses geospatial mapping to pinpoint cybercrime hotspots. Hence option d is correct.
• It helps jurisdictional officers with real-time intelligence on cybercriminals.
• It provides techno-legal assistance to Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs).
• It facilitates data sharing and analytics via ‘Samanvaya’, a coordination platform for LEAs.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

Here the question is asking for an incorrect answer.

• Flareless Coronal Mass Ejection is a massive ejection of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona that occurs without an associated solar flare.
• Unlike typical CMEs, it does not release intense electromagnetic radiation before the eruption.
• It challenges existing models of solar activity, requiring new insights into magnetic instabilities.
• Flareless CMEs can still impact satellites and power grids if directed toward Earth. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Flareless CMEs are harder to detect, making forecasting difficult. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Flareless CME formation is linked to solar magnetic field changes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Salt chimneys, also known as salt diapirs, are significant geological formations created by the upward movement of salt through overlying rock layers. 
• They are critical in understanding subsurface geology and associated risks.
• Salt chimneys do not primarily function as natural barriers against pollutants. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are often pathways for fluid migration and can influence subsurface hydrology, sometimes exacerbating pollutant spread.
• Salt chimneys are strong indicators of karstification—a process where soluble rocks dissolve, creating cavities and increasing the potential for ground collapse or sinkholes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Hence option c is correct.
• Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. 
• Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Gestational diabetes arises during pregnancy when hormonal changes cause insulin resistance, impairing the body’s ability to regulate blood glucose levels. Hence statement 1 is correct.

It typically resolves after childbirth as hormone levels normalize. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Sea groynes are built perpendicular, not parallel, to the shoreline to effectively trap sand and sediment carried by littoral currents. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The construction of sea groynes typically results in sediment accumulation on the updrift side, which can stabilize the beach, but it may also cause increased erosion on the downdrift side due to a reduced supply of sediment. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The primary purpose of sea groynes is not related to increasing salinity but to reducing coastal erosion by managing sediment transport. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

 Solution (b)

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect. The author does not discuss the potentially negative consequences of spreading life through VNPs. Also, it is nowhere stated that other life forms are threatened. The main focus is on explaining the mechanics of this process, not speculating specific threats. Hence, this option is not correct.

Option (b) is correct because this statement accurately reflects the central inference drawn from the passage. The author describes the VNP technology, its capabilities, and how it could rapidly spread life across the galaxy based on established scientific principles as seen in the lines “The basic ingredients have been understood since the 1960s. What’s needed is an automated spacecraft that can locate worlds on which to land, build infrastructure, and eventually make copies of itself. The copies are then sent forth to do likewise – in other words, they are von Neumann probes (VNPs).” This aligns with the main arguments made in the passage. Hence, this option is correct.

Option (c) is incorrect. This answer option says that life forms already exist on other stars, whereas the author suggests that this will happen in the future. It is reflected in the lines: “Sometime late this century, someone will push a button, unleashing a life force on the cosmos. Within 1,000 years, every star you can see at night will host intelligent life.” Hence, this option is not correct.

Option (d) is incorrect. The author specifically details a technology capable of overcoming vast interstellar distances, and depicts it to be simple in terms of the existing science. It is evident from the lines: “This won’t require exotic physics. The basic ingredients have been understood since the 1960s.” Therefore, inferring that such travel is impossible goes against the presented information and the tone of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.

 Solution (b)

Explanation: 

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage is specific to deep fake technology and does not discuss the pros and cons of other technology. Therefore, to assume and state that every technology has its pros and cons would not be correct as per the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct.

Assumption 2 is correct. The passage states that “the scalability of allowing an actor to appear in commercials or on websites for e-commerce all over the world (without requiring trips to the studio, learning a new language, or improving accent work) could be empowering.” This will imply higher incomes for those actors who can take benefit of such scalability. Also, the passage notes that “the widespread adoption of deepfakes could allow for the supplanting of actors who are not celebrities, leading to job losses.” This implies income disparity could increase. Hence, this assumption is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Given that, W = XY + Z

Or XY + Z = W

From Statement 1: When X = 7, W = 41

7Y + Z = 41 ……(i)

From Statement 2: When X = 9, W = 49

9Y + Z = 49 …….(ii)

From Statements 1 & 2:

By subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:

2Y = 8

Or Y = 4

Putting the value of Y in equation (i), we get:

7Y + Z = 41

Or 7 × 4 + Z = 41

Or Z = 41 – 28

Or Z = 13

Therefore, Y = 4 and Z =13.

Thus, both Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

Let the sum be Rs. x.

We know that, Simple Interest = Principal×Rate×Time/100

Amount = Simple Interest + Principal

If the money is invested at 4.6% per annum for 2 years, then:

Amount = x + (x×4.6×2)/100

If the money is invested at 3.2% per annum for 2 years, then:

Amount = x + (x×3.2×2)/100

According to the question,

[x + (x×4.6×2)/100] – [x + (x×3.2×2)/100] = 196

Or 9.2x – 6.4x = 19600

Or 2.8x = 19600

Or x = 7000

Thus, the sum was Rs. 7000.

Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

 Solution (a)

Explanation: 

Total income of Mr. Batra during first 4 months = 1200 × 4 = Rs 4800

Total income of Mr. Batra during next 3 months = 1500 × 3 = Rs 4500

Total income of Mr. Batra during next 5 months = 1800 × 5 = Rs 9000

Total income during whole year = 4800 + 4500 + 9000 = 18300

Total expenditure during whole year =15000 (given)

∴ Total saving = 18300 – 15000 = Rs 3300

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.