[DAY 57] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation 

Solution (b)

Explanation 

Solution (b)

Explanation

International Finance Corporation is the organisation in the World Bank Group that was established to promote development exclusively through the private sector. IFC was formed in 1956, about 10 years after the World Bank started operations. From the legal point, it is interesting to note that IFC’s charter, its Articles of Agreement, prohibit it from accepting a host government guarantee for any of its loans or financial assistance, which complements the World Bank’s charter requirements that the World Bank must take a government guarantee to support any financial assistance that it renders. A member government must first join the IMF in order to be eligible to join the World Bank; and to be a member of IFC, a country must be a member of the World Bank. (Hence option b is correct) 

Solution (c)

Explanation

Asian Development Fund provides grants to ADB’s lower-income developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Activities supported by the ADF promote poverty reduction and improvements in the quality of life in the poorer countries of the Asia and Pacific region. (Hence option c is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation 

The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a financial institution established in 1991. The organisation was developed to help Eastern European and ex-Soviet countries develop free-market economies after the fall of communism. The EBRD works in 38 countries in the Southern and Eastern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern Europe, and Central Asia. As the largest single donor to the EBRD, the EU has accounted for about 40 percent of total donor funds channelled through the EBRD since the Bank’s inception. (Hence option b is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need, 

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) 

• The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payment needs. 
• The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. 
• The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances. 

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) 

• The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. 
• The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.

Hence option (b) is correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:  

 Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the eight intellectual property items coming under WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights).

• According to the WTO, “Geographical indications are indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristics of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin.” 
• India enacted the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 15, 2003, to comply with India’s obligations under the TRIPS agreement. 

TRIPS Agreement: 

• It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995.  
• The Controller General of Patents, Designs & TradeMarks (CGPDT), (under the Dept of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the ‘Registrar of Geographical Indications’. The CGPDT directs and supervises the functioning of the Geographical Indications Registry (GIR).  Hence Option (d) is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

National Intellectual Property Rights Policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda (trade negotiation round of the WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Statement 1 is correct.

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Statement 2 is correct.

National Intellectual Property Rights Policy: 

• In terms of IP awareness and development, commercialization, and enforcement, it seeks to create an ecosystem in the nation that is supportive of innovation and creativity.  
• The nodal department has been nominated as being the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP). 
• This policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 
• National Intellectual Property Rights Policy encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs. It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian scenario. 

TRIPS Agreement: 

• It’s an agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO). It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Hence Option (c) is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.

• Headquartered in Washington, D.C., IMF focuses on fostering global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, facilitating and promoting international trade, employment, and economic growth around the world.
• The IMF is a specialized agency of the United Nations.

 Objectives of the IMF:

1. To improve and promote global monetary cooperation of the world.
2. To secure financial stability by eliminating or minimizing the exchange rate stability.
3. To facilitate a balanced international trade.
4. To promote high employment through economic assistance and sustainable economic growth.
5. To reduce poverty around the world.

 Functions of the IMF:

1. Regulatory functions: 

 IMF functions as a regulatory body and as per the rules of the Articles of Agreement, it also focuses on administering a code of conduct for exchange rate policies and restrictions on payments for current account transactions.

2. Financial functions: 

IMF provides financial support and resources to the member countries to meet short term and medium term Balance of Payments (BOP) disequilibrium.

3. Consultative functions: 

IMF a centre for international cooperation for the member countries. It also acts as a source of counsel and technical assistance. Hence Option (c) is correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Amber Box: It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. With limited exceptions, all domestic assistance policies that distort commerce and production are classified under amber box. 

Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production by imposing production quotas. It is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal levels. 

Green Box: Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortions are placed in Green Box. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.

Hence correct answer is option A.

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Recently, WTO has given a positive response to the issue of public stakeholding for food security purposes. These norms need to be developed to present illegitimate exports from excessive food stocks. European Union has expressed its willingness to negotiate on global terms regarding the purchase, stockpiling,and distribution of stocks.

Public stockholding norms are policy instrument used by the government to meet the food security of the country.

These programs are carried out by countries to meet the food security.current rules suggest that around 10% of food procurement should be used to feed the poor.

Hence correct answer is option A.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Under the world trade organisation (WTO) agreements, member countries normally not discriminate between their trading partners means to grant someone a special favour and grant treat others normally.
• MFN means if the special statue is granted to a trade partner, it must be extended to all members of the WTO.
• Importance of MFN shown by the fact that it is the first clause in the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade.

Hence correct answer is option B.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• WTO (World Trade Organisation) was established in 1995.
• WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with rules of trade between nations.
• It acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries.

Hence correct answer is option A.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• On 30 october 1947, the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed by 23 nations at the Palais des nations in Geneva.

The agreement contained tariff concessions agreed to during the first multilateral trade negotiation and a set of rules designed to prevent these concessions from being frustrated by restrictive trade measures. Hence correct answer is option (c).

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024

• UK – 3.65%
• JAPAN -3.68%
• GERMANY-7.154%
• CHINA-11.17%
• USA- 11.42%

Hence option (c) is correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• WTO is an international trade organisation.
• It establishes the regulations that govern product, services, agricultural and industrial item , and intellectual property exchange in 1995.
• The 1947 General Agreement on GATT was annulled.
• As of 2021, there are 164 member countries in the world trade organisation 
• Afghanistan is most recent member, joining in July 2016.

Hence Option (c) is correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The recent La Niña event in the tropical Pacific Ocean has officially ended, with the climate system now transitioning to ENSO-neutral conditions as confirmed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the phenomenon.

Explanation:

• La Nina is the cool phase of ENSO and refers to the unusual cooling of the tropical eastern Pacific. On the other hand, El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Countries like India, Indonesia, the Philippines, Malaysia and their neighbouring countries receive good rainfall during a La Nina year, while an El Nino phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• China’s state-run defence firm Norinco recently said that it has developed the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon, dubbed the Bullet Curtain. In this context, a question can be asked about it by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Bullet Curtain is the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon. It is capable of countering a broad range of low-flying aerial threats including rockets, helicopters, missiles, and most notably, drone swarms. It uses a “plane-to-point” interception model, which forms a wall of projectiles to blanket incoming targets with overlapping firepower. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It has been made by China’s state-run defence firm Norinco. The system was inspired by Metal Storm, which is arapid-fire weapon concept jointly developed by Australia and the United States in the late 1990s. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• China stakes claim to 90% of the South China Sea, and this claim is based on the U-shaped nine-dash line etched on map in the 1940s by a Chinese geographer. In this context, nine-dash line has been in news for quite some time because of aggression policies of China in the South China Sea. So, the islands lying in this region becomes important for UPSC from the perspective of mapping.

Explanation:

• The South China Sea is an arm of western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia. It is connected by Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by Luzon Strait with the Philippine Sea. It contains numerous shoals, reefs, atolls and islands. The Paracel Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan and Vietnam. The Spratly Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Brunei and Philippines. The Scarborough Shoal is claimed by Philippines, China and Taiwan. Hence, option c is the correct answer

Solution (a)

Context:

• The Union government has set up the 23rd Law Commission for three years to identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed. In this context, the Law Commission of India becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Union government. It can be referred to as an ad hoc body, which is constituted for the fulfilment of a particular purpose. It is not defined under the Indian Constitution and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Commission is headed by a chairperson, usually a retired Supreme Court judge, and comprises legal experts, academicians, and senior advocates. The members are appointed for a term of three years, during which they focus on different areas of legal reforms. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India. It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay. The first Law Commission of independent India was established in the year 1955 which was headed by M.C. Setalvad. Since the independence of India, there have been 22 Law Commissions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Industrial output grew by only 2.9% in February 2025, marking the slowest growth in six months, well below the market expectation of 4%. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

Explanation:

• The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key statistical tool used to measure the short-term changes in the volume of production in Indian industries. It provides insight into the growth or contraction of industrial activity over a given period, making it a crucial economic performance indicator. The IIP is published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. And, the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Renowned Kathak dancer Kumudini Lakhia passed away recently at the age of 94. In this context, a question about Kathak can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’, meaning ‘story’. It originated as a temple performance where stories from scriptures were enacted and evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period. Prominent gharanas include the Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras gharanas. Focus is on footwork (Tatkaar), pirouettes (Chakkars), mudras, and facial expressions. Dancers wear ankle bells (ghungroos) and perform with graceful yet intricate movements. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• It is the only classical dance form linked to Hindustani (North Indian) music. Under the Mughals, Kathak was transformed into a refined court art, emphasizing grace and intricate rhythmic patterns. Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, played a major role in its artistic development and patronage. Key figures include Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Shovana Narayan, and Aditi Mangaldas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Camera traps installed at the Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh detected nine big cats at the park. In this context, a question about the location of the tiger reserve can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, World Chagas Disease Day was observed on April 14, 2025, to raise awareness about Chagas disease, a neglected tropical disease affecting millions globally. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the day.

Explanation:

• World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on April 14. The 2025 theme, “Prevent, Control, Care: Everyone’s Role in Chagas Disease,” calls for global action to improve awareness, prevention, and access to care for those affected. The World Chagas Disease Day was celebrated for the first time in 2020. Over 7 million people are currently infected worldwide, with more than 100 million at risk, and an estimated 10,000–12,000 deaths annually. The World Health Organization and partners are urging governments, health systems, and communities to strengthen early diagnosis, treatment, and comprehensive care for all. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, the Yimkhiung Tribal Council (YTC) led a major protest in Pungro Town, Nagaland, against the Indian government’s plan to fence the Indo-Myanmar border and the recent abolition of the Free Movement Regime (FMR). In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the tribe.

Explanation:

• The Yimkhiung are one of the major Naga tribes, primarily inhabiting eastern Nagaland’s Kiphire district and adjacent areas in Myanmar. Their society is organised around clan-based villages, and there is a strong tradition of oral history, festivals, and communal land ownership. The Yimkhiung community is divided by the international border, with some villages in Myanmar and the rest in India. The border, drawn during colonial times, is seen by the tribe as an “imaginary line” that splits families and ancestral lands. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• For the first time in scientific history, researchers have directly observed a strange phase of water known as Plastic Ice VII, which is believed to exist deep within the interiors of icy planets and moons, such as Neptune, Europa, and Titan. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about this phase.

Explanation:

• Plastic Ice VII is a hybrid phase of water that displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid. Like a crystalline solid, the water molecules remain in fixed positions within a cubic crystal lattice. Simultaneously, these molecules can rotate freely, similar to the behavior of molecules in a liquid. This unique plasticity means the ice can deform under pressure like a malleable substance, making it fundamentally different from conventional ice types found on Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The term “plastic” refers not to synthetic materials but to its physical property of plasticity—the ability to mould or deform under pressure while still maintaining a solid structure. Physicist Livia Bove, one of the lead researchers, describes it as a solid that can be squeezed through a hole, highlighting its semi-fluid behaviour under stress. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect. The passage states that the demand for sand continues to rise and that the river floodplain is among the main sources of sand in India. The author does highlight the harms of indiscriminate sand mining. However, the tone of the passage is not all in favour of a complete ban on sand mining. A middle ground wherein sand mining is carried out in a regulated manner can be explored. In this context, a complete ban on river sand mining is not correct. Hence, this option is not correct. Option (b) is incorrect. The passage notes that sand and gravel have long been used for construction purpose. Towards the end of the passage, the author highlights the ill-effects of indiscriminate sand mining. This does not mean immediate pause on use of sand and gravel by the construction sector. It would be an extreme and impractical step. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that excess removal of sand leads to environmental damage. It states that such removal can “significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.” Therefore, sand mining should be done sustainably. River sand mining also has a social impact as the passage states that it can damage private properties. Hence, sustainable mining practices should be implemented to mitigate such impacts. Hence, this option is correct. 

Option (d) is incorrect.  The passage has underscored the environmental problems associated with mining. Hence, it cannot be said to convey the message of prioritising economic development over environmental concerns. That would be diagonally opposite to the stance of the author. Also, the role of the government is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage suggests that global warming, through its impact on agricultural productivity and poverty, may lead to a net increase or decrease in child labour based on the context present. It particularly notes, “climate-related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable.” So, the direct correlation with an increase in child labour is not always correct. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state how specific groups among society are affected by global warming. The statement might be true, but it does not follow from the context of the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

Only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers = 23

Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31

Required difference = 31 – 23 = 8

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31

Only Bada-pav lovers = 74 – (23 + 14 + 31) = 6

Only Misal-pav lovers = 86 – (20 + 14 + 31) = 21

The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers = 31 + 6 + 21 = 58

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

On dividing 1095 days with 7, we get 3 as remainder. 

Hence, Raj will open his shop 3 days after Monday, i.e. on Thursday. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.