IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
Archives
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Important Note
- Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
- It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
- Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
Test-summary
0 of 35 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
- Solve Questions
- Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
- Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
- Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 35 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following statements.
- India is the United States’ ninth-largest trading partner.
- India and Russia signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement in 2024.
- India has a free trade agreement with UAE and Indonesia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct India is the United States’ ninth-largest trading partner, with U.S. goods and services worth $73.1 billion sold to India in 2022. The United States maintained its position as India’s largest trading partner, with $118.8 billion of imported goods and services. India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. The TEPA, approved by the Union Cabinet, aims to enhance trade and economic collaboration between India and EFTA countries, including Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein. The FTA will provide a window to Indian exporters to access large European markets. India has a free trade agreement with four of its top trading partners — Singapore, the UAE, Korea and Indonesia (as part of the Asian bloc). Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct India is the United States’ ninth-largest trading partner, with U.S. goods and services worth $73.1 billion sold to India in 2022. The United States maintained its position as India’s largest trading partner, with $118.8 billion of imported goods and services. India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. The TEPA, approved by the Union Cabinet, aims to enhance trade and economic collaboration between India and EFTA countries, including Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein. The FTA will provide a window to Indian exporters to access large European markets. India has a free trade agreement with four of its top trading partners — Singapore, the UAE, Korea and Indonesia (as part of the Asian bloc). -
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
With reference to the World Trade Organisation (WTO), consider the following statements.
- WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade established in the wake of the First World War.
- The current WTO’s rules are largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations.
- The global trade monitoring exercise of the WTO was launched in the wake of the financial crisis of 2008.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The World Trade Organization came into being in 1995. One of the youngest of the international organisations, the WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in the wake of the Second World War. So while the WTO is relatively young, the multilateral trading system that was originally set up under the GATT is over 75 years old. The WTO’s rules – the agreements – are the result of negotiations between the members. The current set is largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations, which included a major revision of the original General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). The Uruguay Round created new rules for dealing with trade in services and intellectual property and new procedures for dispute settlement.
The WTO’s Trade Policy Review Mechanism is designed to improve transparency, to create a greater understanding of the trade policies adopted by WTO members and to assess their impact. Initially launched in the wake of the financial crisis of 2008, this global trade monitoring exercise has become a regular function of the WTO, with the aim of highlighting WTO members’ implementation of both trade- facilitating and trade-restricting measures. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The World Trade Organization came into being in 1995. One of the youngest of the international organisations, the WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in the wake of the Second World War. So while the WTO is relatively young, the multilateral trading system that was originally set up under the GATT is over 75 years old. The WTO’s rules – the agreements – are the result of negotiations between the members. The current set is largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations, which included a major revision of the original General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). The Uruguay Round created new rules for dealing with trade in services and intellectual property and new procedures for dispute settlement.
The WTO’s Trade Policy Review Mechanism is designed to improve transparency, to create a greater understanding of the trade policies adopted by WTO members and to assess their impact. Initially launched in the wake of the financial crisis of 2008, this global trade monitoring exercise has become a regular function of the WTO, with the aim of highlighting WTO members’ implementation of both trade- facilitating and trade-restricting measures. -
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is a member of the World Bank Group that primarily:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
International Finance Corporation is the organisation in the World Bank Group that was established to promote development exclusively through the private sector. IFC was formed in 1956, about 10 years after the World Bank started operations. From the legal point, it is interesting to note that IFC’s charter, its Articles of Agreement, prohibit it from accepting a host government guarantee for any of its loans or financial assistance, which complements the World Bank’s charter requirements that the World Bank must take a government guarantee to support any financial assistance that it renders. A member government must first join the IMF in order to be eligible to join the World Bank; and to be a member of IFC, a country must be a member of the World Bank. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
International Finance Corporation is the organisation in the World Bank Group that was established to promote development exclusively through the private sector. IFC was formed in 1956, about 10 years after the World Bank started operations. From the legal point, it is interesting to note that IFC’s charter, its Articles of Agreement, prohibit it from accepting a host government guarantee for any of its loans or financial assistance, which complements the World Bank’s charter requirements that the World Bank must take a government guarantee to support any financial assistance that it renders. A member government must first join the IMF in order to be eligible to join the World Bank; and to be a member of IFC, a country must be a member of the World Bank. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
The Asian Development Fund, a concessional lending window of the ADB, primarily targets which of the following countries?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Asian Development Fund provides grants to ADB’s lower-income developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Activities supported by the ADF promote poverty reduction and improvements in the quality of life in the poorer countries of the Asia and Pacific region. (Hence option c is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Asian Development Fund provides grants to ADB’s lower-income developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Activities supported by the ADF promote poverty reduction and improvements in the quality of life in the poorer countries of the Asia and Pacific region. (Hence option c is correct)
-
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Which of the following is the largest shareholder in the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a financial institution established in 1991. The organisation was developed to help Eastern European and ex-Soviet countries develop free-market economies after the fall of communism. The EBRD works in 38 countries in the Southern and Eastern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern Europe, and Central Asia. As the largest single donor to the EBRD, the EU has accounted for about 40 percent of total donor funds channelled through the EBRD since the Bank’s inception. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a financial institution established in 1991. The organisation was developed to help Eastern European and ex-Soviet countries develop free-market economies after the fall of communism. The EBRD works in 38 countries in the Southern and Eastern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern Europe, and Central Asia. As the largest single donor to the EBRD, the EU has accounted for about 40 percent of total donor funds channelled through the EBRD since the Bank’s inception. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need,
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
- The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payment needs.
- The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.
- The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
- The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.
- The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.
Hence option (b) is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need,
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
- The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payment needs.
- The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.
- The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
- The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.
- The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.
Hence option (b) is correct answer.
-
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the eight intellectual property items coming under WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights).
- According to the WTO, “Geographical indications are indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristics of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin.”
- India enacted the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 15, 2003, to comply with India’s obligations under the TRIPS agreement.
TRIPS Agreement:
- It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995.
- The Controller General of Patents, Designs & TradeMarks (CGPDT), (under the Dept of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the ‘Registrar of Geographical Indications’. The CGPDT directs and supervises the functioning of the Geographical Indications Registry (GIR). Hence Option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the eight intellectual property items coming under WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights).
- According to the WTO, “Geographical indications are indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristics of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin.”
- India enacted the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 15, 2003, to comply with India’s obligations under the TRIPS agreement.
TRIPS Agreement:
- It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995.
- The Controller General of Patents, Designs & TradeMarks (CGPDT), (under the Dept of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the ‘Registrar of Geographical Indications’. The CGPDT directs and supervises the functioning of the Geographical Indications Registry (GIR). Hence Option (d) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
- It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
- Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda (trade negotiation round of the WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Statement 1 is correct.
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Statement 2 is correct.
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
- In terms of IP awareness and development, commercialization, and enforcement, it seeks to create an ecosystem in the nation that is supportive of innovation and creativity.
- The nodal department has been nominated as being the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP).
- This policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
- National Intellectual Property Rights Policy encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs. It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian scenario.
TRIPS Agreement:
- It’s an agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO). It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Hence Option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda (trade negotiation round of the WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Statement 1 is correct.
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Statement 2 is correct.
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
- In terms of IP awareness and development, commercialization, and enforcement, it seeks to create an ecosystem in the nation that is supportive of innovation and creativity.
- The nodal department has been nominated as being the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP).
- This policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
- National Intellectual Property Rights Policy encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs. It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian scenario.
TRIPS Agreement:
- It’s an agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO). It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Hence Option (c) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.
- Headquartered in Washington, D.C., IMF focuses on fostering global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, facilitating and promoting international trade, employment, and economic growth around the world.
- The IMF is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
Objectives of the IMF:
- To improve and promote global monetary cooperation of the world.
- To secure financial stability by eliminating or minimizing the exchange rate stability.
- To facilitate a balanced international trade.
- To promote high employment through economic assistance and sustainable economic growth.
- To reduce poverty around the world.
Functions of the IMF:
- Regulatory functions:
IMF functions as a regulatory body and as per the rules of the Articles of Agreement, it also focuses on administering a code of conduct for exchange rate policies and restrictions on payments for current account transactions.
- Financial functions:
IMF provides financial support and resources to the member countries to meet short term and medium term Balance of Payments (BOP) disequilibrium.
- Consultative functions:
IMF a centre for international cooperation for the member countries. It also acts as a source of counsel and technical assistance. Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.
- Headquartered in Washington, D.C., IMF focuses on fostering global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, facilitating and promoting international trade, employment, and economic growth around the world.
- The IMF is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
Objectives of the IMF:
- To improve and promote global monetary cooperation of the world.
- To secure financial stability by eliminating or minimizing the exchange rate stability.
- To facilitate a balanced international trade.
- To promote high employment through economic assistance and sustainable economic growth.
- To reduce poverty around the world.
Functions of the IMF:
- Regulatory functions:
IMF functions as a regulatory body and as per the rules of the Articles of Agreement, it also focuses on administering a code of conduct for exchange rate policies and restrictions on payments for current account transactions.
- Financial functions:
IMF provides financial support and resources to the member countries to meet short term and medium term Balance of Payments (BOP) disequilibrium.
- Consultative functions:
IMF a centre for international cooperation for the member countries. It also acts as a source of counsel and technical assistance. Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
-
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s:
- ASEAN is an example of regional economic grouping.
- SAARC is an example of international economic grouping.
- European Union is an example of pure economic partnership.
Select the answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The 10-member Association of Southeast Asian Nations, ASEAN, is arguably the most durable and successful regional grouping in the developing world. Established in 1967, it has contributed greatly to regional harmony and prosperity. ASEAN is characterized by great internal diversity, generally high economic growth, and a reluctance to establish a strong supranational structure. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration. Statement 3 Incorrect The European Union (EU) is a political and economic partnership that represents a unique form of cooperation among sovereign countries. The EU is the latest stage in a process of integration begun after World War II, initially by six Western European countries, to foster interdependence and make another war in Europe unthinkable. The EU currently consists of 27 member states, including most of the countries of Central and Eastern Europe, and has helped to promote peace, stability, and economic prosperity throughout the European continent. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The 10-member Association of Southeast Asian Nations, ASEAN, is arguably the most durable and successful regional grouping in the developing world. Established in 1967, it has contributed greatly to regional harmony and prosperity. ASEAN is characterized by great internal diversity, generally high economic growth, and a reluctance to establish a strong supranational structure. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration. Statement 3 Incorrect The European Union (EU) is a political and economic partnership that represents a unique form of cooperation among sovereign countries. The EU is the latest stage in a process of integration begun after World War II, initially by six Western European countries, to foster interdependence and make another war in Europe unthinkable. The EU currently consists of 27 member states, including most of the countries of Central and Eastern Europe, and has helped to promote peace, stability, and economic prosperity throughout the European continent. -
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Indian System of Medicine and identify the correct one/s:
- The Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) consist of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy, and therapies such as Yoga and Naturopathy.
- According to WHO data, 65 to 70 per cent of people in India use traditional therapies at some stage in their lives.
- Recently, WHO’s Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) was inaugurated in Kerala.
Select the answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) consist of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy, and therapies such as Yoga and Naturopathy. Some of these systems are indigenous and others have over the years become a part of Indian tradition. There are over six lakh ISM&H practitioners. The majority of the practitioners work in the private sector, in remote rural areas/urban slums and are accepted by the community. According to WHO data, 65 to 70 per cent of people in India use traditional therapies at some stage in their lives. The turnover of the AYUSH industry has gone up six times in the past eight years. Paradoxically, however, there is a lot of misinformation about such cures and their practitioners are vilified at times. Statement 3 Incorrect Inaugurating the WHO’s Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) at Jamnagar in Gujarat recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi talked of the possibilities offered by therapeutic approaches that are different from the allopathic medicine system. Their emphasis on “holistic care” makes traditional medicine systems particularly potent in dealing with the challenges posed by modern lifestyle disorders like diabetes and obesity. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) consist of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy, and therapies such as Yoga and Naturopathy. Some of these systems are indigenous and others have over the years become a part of Indian tradition. There are over six lakh ISM&H practitioners. The majority of the practitioners work in the private sector, in remote rural areas/urban slums and are accepted by the community. According to WHO data, 65 to 70 per cent of people in India use traditional therapies at some stage in their lives. The turnover of the AYUSH industry has gone up six times in the past eight years. Paradoxically, however, there is a lot of misinformation about such cures and their practitioners are vilified at times. Statement 3 Incorrect Inaugurating the WHO’s Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) at Jamnagar in Gujarat recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi talked of the possibilities offered by therapeutic approaches that are different from the allopathic medicine system. Their emphasis on “holistic care” makes traditional medicine systems particularly potent in dealing with the challenges posed by modern lifestyle disorders like diabetes and obesity. -
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Bretton Woods Conference and identify the correct one/s:
- It set up the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
- A two-tier system of convertibility was established at the centre of which was the Euro.
- An elaborate system of convertibility was started under the system.
Select the answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Bretton Woods Conference held in 1944 set up the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank and reestablished a system of fixed exchange rates. This was different from the international gold standard in the choice of the asset in which national currencies would be convertible. A two-tier system of convertibility was established at the centre of which was the dollar. The US monetary authorities guaranteed the convertibility of the dollar into gold at the fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold. Statement 3 Correct The second-tier of the system was the commitment of monetary authority of each IMF member participating in the system to convert their currency into dollars at a fixed price. The latter was called the official exchange rate. A change in exchange rates was to be permitted only in case of a ‘fundamental disequilibrium’ in a nation’s BoP – which came to mean a chronic deficit in the BoP of sizeable proportions. Such an elaborate system of convertibility was necessary because the distribution of gold reserves across countries was uneven with the US having almost 70 per cent of the official world gold reserves.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Bretton Woods Conference held in 1944 set up the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank and reestablished a system of fixed exchange rates. This was different from the international gold standard in the choice of the asset in which national currencies would be convertible. A two-tier system of convertibility was established at the centre of which was the dollar. The US monetary authorities guaranteed the convertibility of the dollar into gold at the fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold. Statement 3 Correct The second-tier of the system was the commitment of monetary authority of each IMF member participating in the system to convert their currency into dollars at a fixed price. The latter was called the official exchange rate. A change in exchange rates was to be permitted only in case of a ‘fundamental disequilibrium’ in a nation’s BoP – which came to mean a chronic deficit in the BoP of sizeable proportions. Such an elaborate system of convertibility was necessary because the distribution of gold reserves across countries was uneven with the US having almost 70 per cent of the official world gold reserves.
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Amber Box: It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. With limited exceptions, all domestic assistance policies that distort commerce and production are classified under amber box.
Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production by imposing production quotas. It is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal levels.
Green Box: Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortions are placed in Green Box. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
Hence correct answer is option A.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Amber Box: It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. With limited exceptions, all domestic assistance policies that distort commerce and production are classified under amber box.
Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production by imposing production quotas. It is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal levels.
Green Box: Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortions are placed in Green Box. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
Hence correct answer is option A.
-
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to the World Trade Organisation (WTO), consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s.
- The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
- The primary purpose of the WTO is to open trade for the benefit of all.
- WTO’s top decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. The WTO has many roles: it operates a global system of trade rules, it acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries. A number of simple, fundamental principles form the foundation of the multilateral trading system. The primary purpose of the WTO is to open trade for the benefit of all. Statement 3 Correct The WTO’s top decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference. Below this is the General Council and various other councils and committees. Ministerial conferences usually take place every two years. The General Council is the top day-to-day decision-making body. It meets a number of times a year in Geneva. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. The WTO has many roles: it operates a global system of trade rules, it acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries. A number of simple, fundamental principles form the foundation of the multilateral trading system. The primary purpose of the WTO is to open trade for the benefit of all. Statement 3 Correct The WTO’s top decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference. Below this is the General Council and various other councils and committees. Ministerial conferences usually take place every two years. The General Council is the top day-to-day decision-making body. It meets a number of times a year in Geneva. -
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
After 10 years of deadlock, European Union (EU) is ready to negotiate with India in WTO on which issue related to food security?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Recently, WTO has given a positive response to the issue of public stakeholding for food security purposes. These norms need to be developed to present illegitimate exports from excessive food stocks. European Union has expressed its willingness to negotiate on global terms regarding the purchase, stockpiling,and distribution of stocks.
Public stockholding norms are policy instrument used by the government to meet the food security of the country.
These programs are carried out by countries to meet the food security.current rules suggest that around 10% of food procurement should be used to feed the poor.
Hence correct answer is option A.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Recently, WTO has given a positive response to the issue of public stakeholding for food security purposes. These norms need to be developed to present illegitimate exports from excessive food stocks. European Union has expressed its willingness to negotiate on global terms regarding the purchase, stockpiling,and distribution of stocks.
Public stockholding norms are policy instrument used by the government to meet the food security of the country.
These programs are carried out by countries to meet the food security.current rules suggest that around 10% of food procurement should be used to feed the poor.
Hence correct answer is option A.
-
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
What is the most Favoured Nation (MFN) in terms of International Trade?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Under the world trade organisation (WTO) agreements, member countries normally not discriminate between their trading partners means to grant someone a special favour and grant treat others normally.
- MFN means if the special statue is granted to a trade partner, it must be extended to all members of the WTO.
- Importance of MFN shown by the fact that it is the first clause in the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
Hence correct answer is option B.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Under the world trade organisation (WTO) agreements, member countries normally not discriminate between their trading partners means to grant someone a special favour and grant treat others normally.
- MFN means if the special statue is granted to a trade partner, it must be extended to all members of the WTO.
- Importance of MFN shown by the fact that it is the first clause in the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
Hence correct answer is option B.
-
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
When was WTO (World Trade Organization) established?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- WTO (World Trade Organisation) was established in 1995.
- WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with rules of trade between nations.
- It acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries.
Hence correct answer is option A.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- WTO (World Trade Organisation) was established in 1995.
- WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with rules of trade between nations.
- It acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries.
Hence correct answer is option A.
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
How many countries signed GATT on 30 October 1947?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- On 30 october 1947, the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed by 23 nations at the Palais des nations in Geneva.
The agreement contained tariff concessions agreed to during the first multilateral trade negotiation and a set of rules designed to prevent these concessions from being frustrated by restrictive trade measures. Hence correct answer is option (c).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- On 30 october 1947, the general agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed by 23 nations at the Palais des nations in Geneva.
The agreement contained tariff concessions agreed to during the first multilateral trade negotiation and a set of rules designed to prevent these concessions from being frustrated by restrictive trade measures. Hence correct answer is option (c).
-
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Arrange the following countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024?
- China
- Japan
- Germany
- United State of America
- United Kingdom
Choose the correct answer from the options given below;
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024
- UK – 3.65%
- JAPAN -3.68%
- GERMANY-7.154%
- CHINA-11.17%
- USA- 11.42%
Hence option (c) is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024
- UK – 3.65%
- JAPAN -3.68%
- GERMANY-7.154%
- CHINA-11.17%
- USA- 11.42%
Hence option (c) is correct answer.
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Which of the following countries/territories is not a member of the WTO?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- WTO is an international trade organisation.
- It establishes the regulations that govern product, services, agricultural and industrial item , and intellectual property exchange in 1995.
- The 1947 General Agreement on GATT was annulled.
- As of 2021, there are 164 member countries in the world trade organisation
- Afghanistan is most recent member, joining in July 2016.
Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- WTO is an international trade organisation.
- It establishes the regulations that govern product, services, agricultural and industrial item , and intellectual property exchange in 1995.
- The 1947 General Agreement on GATT was annulled.
- As of 2021, there are 164 member countries in the world trade organisation
- Afghanistan is most recent member, joining in July 2016.
Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
-
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about La-Nina:
- La-Nina is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
- India receives more than average rainfall during a La-Nina year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Context:
- The recent La Niña event in the tropical Pacific Ocean has officially ended, with the climate system now transitioning to ENSO-neutral conditions as confirmed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the phenomenon.
Explanation:
- La Nina is the cool phase of ENSO and refers to the unusual cooling of the tropical eastern Pacific. On the other hand, El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Countries like India, Indonesia, the Philippines, Malaysia and their neighbouring countries receive good rainfall during a La Nina year, while an El Nino phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Context:
- The recent La Niña event in the tropical Pacific Ocean has officially ended, with the climate system now transitioning to ENSO-neutral conditions as confirmed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the phenomenon.
Explanation:
- La Nina is the cool phase of ENSO and refers to the unusual cooling of the tropical eastern Pacific. On the other hand, El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Countries like India, Indonesia, the Philippines, Malaysia and their neighbouring countries receive good rainfall during a La Nina year, while an El Nino phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Bullet Curtain, seen in news recently:
- It is the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon.
- It has been jointly developed by United Kingdom and Israel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- China’s state-run defence firm Norinco recently said that it has developed the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon, dubbed the Bullet Curtain. In this context, a question can be asked about it by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Bullet Curtain is the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon. It is capable of countering a broad range of low-flying aerial threats including rockets, helicopters, missiles, and most notably, drone swarms. It uses a “plane-to-point” interception model, which forms a wall of projectiles to blanket incoming targets with overlapping firepower. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It has been made by China’s state-run defence firm Norinco. The system was inspired by Metal Storm, which is arapid-fire weapon concept jointly developed by Australia and the United States in the late 1990s. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- China’s state-run defence firm Norinco recently said that it has developed the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon, dubbed the Bullet Curtain. In this context, a question can be asked about it by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Bullet Curtain is the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon. It is capable of countering a broad range of low-flying aerial threats including rockets, helicopters, missiles, and most notably, drone swarms. It uses a “plane-to-point” interception model, which forms a wall of projectiles to blanket incoming targets with overlapping firepower. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It has been made by China’s state-run defence firm Norinco. The system was inspired by Metal Storm, which is arapid-fire weapon concept jointly developed by Australia and the United States in the late 1990s. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Arrange the following places located in South China Sea, from North to South:
- Scarborough Shoal
- Paracel Islands
- Spratly Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- China stakes claim to 90% of the South China Sea, and this claim is based on the U-shaped nine-dash line etched on map in the 1940s by a Chinese geographer. In this context, nine-dash line has been in news for quite some time because of aggression policies of China in the South China Sea. So, the islands lying in this region becomes important for UPSC from the perspective of mapping.
Explanation:
- The South China Sea is an arm of western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia. It is connected by Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by Luzon Strait with the Philippine Sea. It contains numerous shoals, reefs, atolls and islands. The Paracel Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan and Vietnam. The Spratly Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Brunei and Philippines. The Scarborough Shoal is claimed by Philippines, China and Taiwan. Hence, option c is the correct answer
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- China stakes claim to 90% of the South China Sea, and this claim is based on the U-shaped nine-dash line etched on map in the 1940s by a Chinese geographer. In this context, nine-dash line has been in news for quite some time because of aggression policies of China in the South China Sea. So, the islands lying in this region becomes important for UPSC from the perspective of mapping.
Explanation:
- The South China Sea is an arm of western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia. It is connected by Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by Luzon Strait with the Philippine Sea. It contains numerous shoals, reefs, atolls and islands. The Paracel Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan and Vietnam. The Spratly Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Brunei and Philippines. The Scarborough Shoal is claimed by Philippines, China and Taiwan. Hence, option c is the correct answer
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
With respect to the Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
- The Law Commission of India is a constitutional body.
- Its recommendations are binding on the government.
- The first Law Commission of independent India was headed by M.C. Setalvad.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Union government has set up the 23rd Law Commission for three years to identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed. In this context, the Law Commission of India becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Union government. It can be referred to as an ad hoc body, which is constituted for the fulfilment of a particular purpose. It is not defined under the Indian Constitution and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Commission is headed by a chairperson, usually a retired Supreme Court judge, and comprises legal experts, academicians, and senior advocates. The members are appointed for a term of three years, during which they focus on different areas of legal reforms. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India. It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay. The first Law Commission of independent India was established in the year 1955 which was headed by M.C. Setalvad. Since the independence of India, there have been 22 Law Commissions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Union government has set up the 23rd Law Commission for three years to identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed. In this context, the Law Commission of India becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Union government. It can be referred to as an ad hoc body, which is constituted for the fulfilment of a particular purpose. It is not defined under the Indian Constitution and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Commission is headed by a chairperson, usually a retired Supreme Court judge, and comprises legal experts, academicians, and senior advocates. The members are appointed for a term of three years, during which they focus on different areas of legal reforms. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India. It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay. The first Law Commission of independent India was established in the year 1955 which was headed by M.C. Setalvad. Since the independence of India, there have been 22 Law Commissions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
With reference to Index of Industrial Production (IIP), consider the following statements:
- IIP is published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
- The current base year for the index is 2014-15.
- The weightage of ‘Eight Core Industries’ in the index is more than 50%.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- Industrial output grew by only 2.9% in February 2025, marking the slowest growth in six months, well below the market expectation of 4%. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Explanation:
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key statistical tool used to measure the short-term changes in the volume of production in Indian industries. It provides insight into the growth or contraction of industrial activity over a given period, making it a crucial economic performance indicator. The IIP is published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. And, the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- Industrial output grew by only 2.9% in February 2025, marking the slowest growth in six months, well below the market expectation of 4%. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Explanation:
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key statistical tool used to measure the short-term changes in the volume of production in Indian industries. It provides insight into the growth or contraction of industrial activity over a given period, making it a crucial economic performance indicator. The IIP is published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. And, the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements about Kathak, which was in news recently:
- The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’, meaning ‘story’.
- It originated as a temple performance where stories from scriptures were enacted and evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period.
- It is the only classical dance form linked to Hindustani (North Indian) music.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- Renowned Kathak dancer Kumudini Lakhia passed away recently at the age of 94. In this context, a question about Kathak can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’, meaning ‘story’. It originated as a temple performance where stories from scriptures were enacted and evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period. Prominent gharanas include the Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras gharanas. Focus is on footwork (Tatkaar), pirouettes (Chakkars), mudras, and facial expressions. Dancers wear ankle bells (ghungroos) and perform with graceful yet intricate movements. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- It is the only classical dance form linked to Hindustani (North Indian) music. Under the Mughals, Kathak was transformed into a refined court art, emphasizing grace and intricate rhythmic patterns. Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, played a major role in its artistic development and patronage. Key figures include Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Shovana Narayan, and Aditi Mangaldas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- Renowned Kathak dancer Kumudini Lakhia passed away recently at the age of 94. In this context, a question about Kathak can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’, meaning ‘story’. It originated as a temple performance where stories from scriptures were enacted and evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period. Prominent gharanas include the Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras gharanas. Focus is on footwork (Tatkaar), pirouettes (Chakkars), mudras, and facial expressions. Dancers wear ankle bells (ghungroos) and perform with graceful yet intricate movements. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- It is the only classical dance form linked to Hindustani (North Indian) music. Under the Mughals, Kathak was transformed into a refined court art, emphasizing grace and intricate rhythmic patterns. Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, played a major role in its artistic development and patronage. Key figures include Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Shovana Narayan, and Aditi Mangaldas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Pakke Tiger Reserve, seen in news recently is located in?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- Camera traps installed at the Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh detected nine big cats at the park. In this context, a question about the location of the tiger reserve can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- Camera traps installed at the Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh detected nine big cats at the park. In this context, a question about the location of the tiger reserve can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, World Chagas Disease Day was observed on April 14, 2025, to raise awareness about Chagas disease, a neglected tropical disease affecting millions globally. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the day.
Explanation:
- World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on April 14. The 2025 theme, “Prevent, Control, Care: Everyone’s Role in Chagas Disease,” calls for global action to improve awareness, prevention, and access to care for those affected. The World Chagas Disease Day was celebrated for the first time in 2020. Over 7 million people are currently infected worldwide, with more than 100 million at risk, and an estimated 10,000–12,000 deaths annually. The World Health Organization and partners are urging governments, health systems, and communities to strengthen early diagnosis, treatment, and comprehensive care for all. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, World Chagas Disease Day was observed on April 14, 2025, to raise awareness about Chagas disease, a neglected tropical disease affecting millions globally. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the day.
Explanation:
- World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on April 14. The 2025 theme, “Prevent, Control, Care: Everyone’s Role in Chagas Disease,” calls for global action to improve awareness, prevention, and access to care for those affected. The World Chagas Disease Day was celebrated for the first time in 2020. Over 7 million people are currently infected worldwide, with more than 100 million at risk, and an estimated 10,000–12,000 deaths annually. The World Health Organization and partners are urging governments, health systems, and communities to strengthen early diagnosis, treatment, and comprehensive care for all. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements about Yimkhiung Tribe, which was in news suddenly:
- The Yimkhiung are one of the major Naga tribes, primarily inhabiting Nagaland and adjacent areas in Myanmar.
- Their society is organised around clan-based villages, and there is a strong tradition of oral history, festivals, and communal land ownership.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, the Yimkhiung Tribal Council (YTC) led a major protest in Pungro Town, Nagaland, against the Indian government’s plan to fence the Indo-Myanmar border and the recent abolition of the Free Movement Regime (FMR). In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the tribe.
Explanation:
- The Yimkhiung are one of the major Naga tribes, primarily inhabiting eastern Nagaland’s Kiphire district and adjacent areas in Myanmar. Their society is organised around clan-based villages, and there is a strong tradition of oral history, festivals, and communal land ownership. The Yimkhiung community is divided by the international border, with some villages in Myanmar and the rest in India. The border, drawn during colonial times, is seen by the tribe as an “imaginary line” that splits families and ancestral lands. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, the Yimkhiung Tribal Council (YTC) led a major protest in Pungro Town, Nagaland, against the Indian government’s plan to fence the Indo-Myanmar border and the recent abolition of the Free Movement Regime (FMR). In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the tribe.
Explanation:
- The Yimkhiung are one of the major Naga tribes, primarily inhabiting eastern Nagaland’s Kiphire district and adjacent areas in Myanmar. Their society is organised around clan-based villages, and there is a strong tradition of oral history, festivals, and communal land ownership. The Yimkhiung community is divided by the international border, with some villages in Myanmar and the rest in India. The border, drawn during colonial times, is seen by the tribe as an “imaginary line” that splits families and ancestral lands. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements about Plastic Ice VII:
- Plastic Ice VII is a hybrid phase of water that displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid.
- The term “plastic” refers not to synthetic materials but to its physical property of plasticity.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- For the first time in scientific history, researchers have directly observed a strange phase of water known as Plastic Ice VII, which is believed to exist deep within the interiors of icy planets and moons, such as Neptune, Europa, and Titan. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about this phase.
Explanation:
- Plastic Ice VII is a hybrid phase of water that displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid. Like a crystalline solid, the water molecules remain in fixed positions within a cubic crystal lattice. Simultaneously, these molecules can rotate freely, similar to the behavior of molecules in a liquid. This unique plasticity means the ice can deform under pressure like a malleable substance, making it fundamentally different from conventional ice types found on Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The term “plastic” refers not to synthetic materials but to its physical property of plasticity—the ability to mould or deform under pressure while still maintaining a solid structure. Physicist Livia Bove, one of the lead researchers, describes it as a solid that can be squeezed through a hole, highlighting its semi-fluid behaviour under stress. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- For the first time in scientific history, researchers have directly observed a strange phase of water known as Plastic Ice VII, which is believed to exist deep within the interiors of icy planets and moons, such as Neptune, Europa, and Titan. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about this phase.
Explanation:
- Plastic Ice VII is a hybrid phase of water that displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid. Like a crystalline solid, the water molecules remain in fixed positions within a cubic crystal lattice. Simultaneously, these molecules can rotate freely, similar to the behavior of molecules in a liquid. This unique plasticity means the ice can deform under pressure like a malleable substance, making it fundamentally different from conventional ice types found on Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The term “plastic” refers not to synthetic materials but to its physical property of plasticity—the ability to mould or deform under pressure while still maintaining a solid structure. Physicist Livia Bove, one of the lead researchers, describes it as a solid that can be squeezed through a hole, highlighting its semi-fluid behaviour under stress. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Passage
Sand and gravel have long been used as aggregate for the construction of roads and buildings. Today, the demand for these materials continues to rise. In India, the main sources of sand are river floodplains, coastal sand, paleo channel sand, and sand from agricultural fields. River sand mining is a common practice as habitation concentrates along the rivers and the mining locations are preferred near the markets or along the transportation route, to reduce the transportation cost. River sand mining can damage private and public properties as well as aquatic habitats. Excessive removal of sand may significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.
Q.31) Which one of the following best reflects the most logical, rational, and practical message conveyed by the author?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage states that the demand for sand continues to rise and that the river floodplain is among the main sources of sand in India. The author does highlight the harms of indiscriminate sand mining. However, the tone of the passage is not all in favour of a complete ban on sand mining. A middle ground wherein sand mining is carried out in a regulated manner can be explored. In this context, a complete ban on river sand mining is not correct. Hence, this option is not correct. Option (b) is incorrect. The passage notes that sand and gravel have long been used for construction purpose. Towards the end of the passage, the author highlights the ill-effects of indiscriminate sand mining. This does not mean immediate pause on use of sand and gravel by the construction sector. It would be an extreme and impractical step. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that excess removal of sand leads to environmental damage. It states that such removal can “significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.” Therefore, sand mining should be done sustainably. River sand mining also has a social impact as the passage states that it can damage private properties. Hence, sustainable mining practices should be implemented to mitigate such impacts. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage has underscored the environmental problems associated with mining. Hence, it cannot be said to convey the message of prioritising economic development over environmental concerns. That would be diagonally opposite to the stance of the author. Also, the role of the government is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage states that the demand for sand continues to rise and that the river floodplain is among the main sources of sand in India. The author does highlight the harms of indiscriminate sand mining. However, the tone of the passage is not all in favour of a complete ban on sand mining. A middle ground wherein sand mining is carried out in a regulated manner can be explored. In this context, a complete ban on river sand mining is not correct. Hence, this option is not correct. Option (b) is incorrect. The passage notes that sand and gravel have long been used for construction purpose. Towards the end of the passage, the author highlights the ill-effects of indiscriminate sand mining. This does not mean immediate pause on use of sand and gravel by the construction sector. It would be an extreme and impractical step. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that excess removal of sand leads to environmental damage. It states that such removal can “significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.” Therefore, sand mining should be done sustainably. River sand mining also has a social impact as the passage states that it can damage private properties. Hence, sustainable mining practices should be implemented to mitigate such impacts. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage has underscored the environmental problems associated with mining. Hence, it cannot be said to convey the message of prioritising economic development over environmental concerns. That would be diagonally opposite to the stance of the author. Also, the role of the government is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
-
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Passage
When global warming reduces agricultural outputs through severe droughts and soil depletion, it makes farming households poorer, and more likely to have to resort to child labour (in agriculture or off the farm) to meet their subsistence needs. At the same time, climate related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable. But diminishing agricultural productivity may also make adult agricultural labour less valuable, inducing adults to move to off-farm jobs, in turn increasing the need for children working on the farm. The net impact of climate change on child labour in any given context depends on the interaction and relative strength of these different effects.
Q.32) Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- Rate of global warming always has a linear relation with the increase in child labour.
- Farmers are disproportionately affected by global warming.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage suggests that global warming, through its impact on agricultural productivity and poverty, may lead to a net increase or decrease in child labour based on the context present. It particularly notes, “climate-related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable.” So, the direct correlation with an increase in child labour is not always correct. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state how specific groups among society are affected by global warming. The statement might be true, but it does not follow from the context of the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage suggests that global warming, through its impact on agricultural productivity and poverty, may lead to a net increase or decrease in child labour based on the context present. It particularly notes, “climate-related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable.” So, the direct correlation with an increase in child labour is not always correct. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state how specific groups among society are affected by global warming. The statement might be true, but it does not follow from the context of the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
-
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
What is the difference between the total number of only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers to only Dosa lovers?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers = 23
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Required difference = 31 – 23 = 8
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers = 23
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Required difference = 31 – 23 = 8
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
-
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers is
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Only Bada-pav lovers = 74 – (23 + 14 + 31) = 6
Only Misal-pav lovers = 86 – (20 + 14 + 31) = 21
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers = 31 + 6 + 21 = 58
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Only Bada-pav lovers = 74 – (23 + 14 + 31) = 6
Only Misal-pav lovers = 86 – (20 + 14 + 31) = 21
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers = 31 + 6 + 21 = 58
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
-
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Raj’s wife enquired him the day on which his new shop will get inaugurated. Raj replied, “My shop will open 1095 days after my brother’s birthday this month”. If Raj’s brother’s birthday is on Monday, then on which day will Raj open his shop?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
On dividing 1095 days with 7, we get 3 as remainder.
Hence, Raj will open his shop 3 days after Monday, i.e. on Thursday. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
On dividing 1095 days with 7, we get 3 as remainder.
Hence, Raj will open his shop 3 days after Monday, i.e. on Thursday. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
All the Best
IASbaba