[DAY 2] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Directive Principles are positive as they require the State to do certain things. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct.

• However, it should be remembered that the Fundamental Rights are negative as they prohibit the State from doing certain things. And, the courts are bound to declare a law violative of any of the Fundamental Rights as unconstitutional and invalid.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The justiciability of Fundamental Rights and non-justiciability of Directive Principles on the one hand and the moral obligation of State to implement Directive Principles (Article 37) on the other hand have led to a conflict between the two since the commencement of the Constitution. However, this conflict was put to rest by an important judgement named Minerva Mills vs Union of India Case, 1980. In this case Supreme Court held that “the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. They are like two wheels of a chariot, one no less than the other. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance between the two is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution”. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• • Since 1950, the successive governments at the Centre and in the states have made several laws and formulated various programmes for implementing the Directive Principles.

• The Maternity Benefit Act (1961) and the Equal Remuneration Act (1976) have been made to protect the interests of women workers. These Acts are inconsonance with Article 42 and Article 39 respectively. Hence, option 1 is correct.

• The Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide free and competent legal aid to the poor and to organise Lok Adalat for promoting equal justice. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor is mentioned under Article 39A. Hence, option 2 is correct.

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 has been enacted to safeguard the wildlife. And Article 48A instructs the state protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• The current position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. In 42nd Amendment Act (1976), the government extended the scope of the provision of Article 31C by including within its protection any law to implement any of the Directive Principles and not merely those specified in Article 39 (b) and (c). However, this clause was held as unconstitutional and invalid by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980). Hence, Statement 1 is CORRECT.

Further, in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) only, the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19 were accepted as subordinate to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c). Further, Article 31 (right to property) was abolished by the 44th Amendment Act (1978). So, Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing certain Directive Principles. Hence, Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies which is provided under Article 43B. Hence, option d is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The Fundamental Duties help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The original constitution did not contain the fundamental duties. Later 10 fundamental duties of citizens were added in the Constitution through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) on the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. Further, one more fundamental duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Therefore, currently there are 11 (10+1) fundamental duties. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The fundamental duties are non-justiciable, which means that the Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

It is true that the rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable, but the difference lies in their enforceability. In this regard, the India drew inspiration from the Constitution of erstwhile USSR which declared that the exercise of the rights and freedoms of citizens was inseparable from the performance of their duties and obligations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 51A (or Part IVA) mentions 11 fundamental duties which should be followed by citizens. The list includes duties such as- to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom and to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.

Duty to pay taxes and to cast vote during elections are not included under the Article 51A. For this reason, the Fundamental Duties mentioned in Part IVA of the Constitution have often been criticised. Hence, statement 2 and 4 are not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR. And the Constitution of erstwhile USSR contained the provision of Fundamental Duties primarily because it followed the philosophy of Socialism. Hence d is the correct answer.

 Solution (b)

Explanation:

• In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties. The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. Based on these recommendations, 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1976. It led to addition of Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of fundamental duties for the citizens. Hence 1st option is correct.

• The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties. Hence 2nd option is also correct.

• Kelkar Committee (2002) was formed to recommend upon direct tax reforms in India. Hence, 3rd option is not correct.

Nachiket Mor Committee (2013), also known as the “Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and Low-Income Households” was established to study various aspects of financial inclusion in India. Hence, 4th option is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable. The Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17 is available against private individuals and it is the constitutional obligation of the State to take necessary action to ensure that this right is not violated. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• Article 19 provides the Right to Freedom. It provides six rights. But these six rights are protected against only state action and not private individuals. Hence Option 2 is incorrect.

Article 21 that ensure an individual’s right to live and possess personal liberty, applies against private individual. The instance of its horizontal applicability can be seen in case Consumer Education and Research Centre v Union of India where the court held that right of the employees to health lies against private employer and also added that private actors are bound by this decision and direction under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution. The Court in other places resorted to Article 21 of the constitution where the issue involving was of right to privacy. In that case court has said that right to life can be claimed against the private individual. Hence Option 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Fundamental rights available to both citizens and foreigners 

• Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
• Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
• Article 21A – Right to elementary education.
• Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
• Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
• Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
• Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
• Article 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.

Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions. Hence Option d is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Habeas Corpus is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Hence Statement a is correct.
• The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. Hence Statement b is correct.
• The writ is not issued where the:

1. detention is lawful
2. the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court
3. detention is by a competent court
4. detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court. Hence Statement c is correct.

Both Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. Hence Statement d is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include minorities as well as majority. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court, however, held in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The Directive Principles deals with a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. Statement 1 is correct.
• Article 38: Deals with the promotion of the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order by ensuring social, economic and political justice and by minimising inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. 

B.R. Ambedkar opined that the Directives have great value because they lay down that the goal of Indian polity is ‘economic democracy’ as distinguished from ‘political democracy’. 

 According to Article 37 Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country. Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c) is correct

Explanation: 

Rights are claimed by the citizens against the state and not the vice versa. Option (a) is incorrect

Rights are not privileges either, they are one of the quintessential requirements for the formation of a democratic state. Thus, the constitution has no concept of special privileges which will create inequality in the society. Option (b) is incorrect

The philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen by the state. It inherently belongs to the citizens. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the state. Option (c) is correct. 

As per Article 18, except for military and academic distinctions, no other citizens have titular privileges. Hence, Rights are not the privileges of a few citizens as they are equally available to all. Option (d) is incorrect

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. The expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It means ‘military rule’. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

There is no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare martial law. However, it is implicit in Article 34 under which martial law can be declared in any area within the territory of India. The martial law is imposed under the extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law. Its justification is to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in the society. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Article 22 (2) provides that: Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest. However, this provision is applicable for punitive detention and not preventive detention. Hence Option a is incorrect. 
• Article 22 authorizes the Parliament to prescribe the maximum period for which a person can be detained in any classes of cases under a preventive detention law. Hence Option b is correct.
• The Parliament as well as the state legislatures have authority to make a law on preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. Hence Option c is incorrect.

Protection under a preventive detention law, under Article 22, is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. It states that the grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed. The detenu should also be afforded an opportunity to make representation against the detention order. Hence Option d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• There are three offices common in both Second and Third Schedule. These are:
  • The Judges of the Supreme Court 
  • The Judges of the High Courts 
  • The Comptroller and Auditor- General of India 

The office of President of India is mentioned in only Second Schedule.  Union Ministers find mention in only Third Schedule of the Constitution. Hence Option b is correct

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The e-Shram Portal aims to register any unorganised worker on a self-declaration basis and create a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It allows an unorganised worker to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, under 400 occupations in 30 broad occupation sectors.
• It is a one-stop solution for unorganised workers in the country.
• It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Ministry of Labour and Employment aims to facilitate access to various social security schemes being implemented by various Ministries/ Departments for the benefit of the unorganised workers through the e-Shram portal.
• The registration in the portal is fully Aadhaar verified and Aadhaar seeded. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It is presently integrated with the National Career Service (NCS) Portal, Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH), myScheme portal, and Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhaan (PMSYM) scheme. 

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2026731

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Speaker Pro Tem is appointed by the President under Article 95(1) of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem.
• Usually, the senior member of the house is made the pro-tem speaker.
• The Speaker Pro Tem presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• When the new Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro Tem ceases to exist.
• The President administers the oath to the Speaker Pro Tem.
• The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of a Speaker. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Speaker Pro Tem conducts the vote for the speaker, and deputy speaker, and administers the floor test.
• The Speaker Pro Tem administers the oath of office to the newly elected MPs. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bhartruhari-mahtab-appointed-pro-tem-speaker-of-lok-sabha/article68313153.ece

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The International Criminal Court (ICC) is a permanent judicial body established by the Rome Statute. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The court’s founding treaty, the Rome Statute, was adopted in July 1998, and the court began work in 2003. 
• Its objective is to investigate, prosecute, and try individuals accused of genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression, and to impose prison sentences upon individuals who are found guilty of such crimes. 
• The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands.
• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the UN and began work in April 1946. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It prosecutes individuals for serious international crimes. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:

• The country where the offence was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
• The perpetrator’s country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute.
• The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
• The ICC only has jurisdiction over offences committed after the Statute entered into force on 1 July 2002.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/icc-warrant-russia-shoigu-gerasimov-9414806/ 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The first World Refugee Day was celebrated to commemorate the 50th anniversary of the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The day was earlier recognized as Africa Refugee Day and later in December 2000, the United Nations General Assembly officially declared it as an International Day for Refugees.
• The 1951 Refugee Convention provides a globally recognized definition of a refugee and outlines the legal protections, rights, and assistance they are entitled to.
• The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) acts as the guardian of the 1951 Refugee Convention and its protocols, ensuring their implementation and protection of refugees’ rights.
• World Refugee Day 2024 official theme is “Everyone is Welcome.” Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• This theme highlights the need for global unity in supporting refugees. It envisions a world that accepts and actively embraces refugees, offering inclusion and assistance as they rebuild their lives. It also translates to ensuring access to asylum for those escaping persecution and creating welcoming environments in host nations.
• The day is dedicated to acknowledging and celebrating the resilience, courage, and strength of refugees as they strive to rebuild their lives and work towards a brighter future.
• World Refugee Day is celebrated every year on 20 June. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Every year on this day, we focus on the millions forced to flee their homes. This day sheds light on the immense human impact of conflicts, persecution, and natural disasters.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/world-refugee-day-2024-date-history-significance-and-theme-9401433/ 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Geotextiles are permeable fabrics that, when used in association with soil, can separate, filter, reinforce, protect, or drain. These are typically made from polypropylene or polyester.
• Geotextile bags are used for flood control and to prevent beach erosion. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Because they provide a protective layer that minimizes erosion by evenly distributing water flow and reducing surface runoff. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Geotextiles support many civil engineering applications including roads, airfields, railroads, embankments, retaining structures, reservoirs, canals, dams, bank protection, coastal engineering, and construction site silt fences or geotube. They are also used for sand dune armoring to protect upland coastal property from storm surges, wave action, and flooding.

Source: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• ABHYAS is a High-Speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It offers a realistic threat scenario for weapon systems practice.
• This indigenous system is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot, a laptop-based Ground Control System for aircraft integration, pre-flight checks, and autonomous flight.
• It also has a feature to record data during flight for post-flight analysis.
• It has been designed by DRDO’s Aeronautical Development Establishment, Bengaluru. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Note:

DRDO was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then-existing Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO). It is the Research & Development wing of the Ministry of Defence,  with a vision to empower India with cutting-edge defence technologies and a mission to achieve self-reliance in critical defence technologies and systems.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029196

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Countries that border the South China Sea are China, Taiwan, the Philippines, Malaysia, Indonesia, Brunei, and Vietnam. Hence, option c is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/oppose-unilateral-actions-change-status-quo-force-india-fresh-tensions-south-china-sea-9421529/ 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Recently, the Director General of the Railway Protection Force (RPF) launched the mobile application ‘Sangyaan App’. ‘Sangyaan App’ is a practical tool for anyone seeking to stay informed about the latest legal developments in India. It aims to educate and empower RPF Personnel by providing comprehensive information to understand the provisions of both new and old criminal laws while highlighting the relevance of these new acts in the context of RPF operations. It will provide in-depth information on three new criminal acts – the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023. Hence, option b is correct.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028994

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Filoboletus manipularis is a fascinating species of bioluminescent mushroom. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• In fungi, this glowing mechanism is thought to attract insects, which help disperse the mushroom’s spores.
• It thrives in tropical, humid environments, typically found in dense forests. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The chemical reaction involving luciferin (a pigment) and luciferase (an enzyme) with oxygen plays a critical role in these mushrooms. This reaction produces light, a trait shared with other bioluminescent organisms like fireflies and certain marine creatures. 
• It glows a bright green at night due to a chemical reaction in their cells. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/life-style/bioluminescent-mushrooms-kasaragod-kerala-india-toxic-forest-fungi-9396984/ 

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Hence, option d is correct.

Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/india-ranks-63rd-on-energy-transition-index-sweden-on-top-wef/article68306972.ece

Solution (d)

The speed of 6 men are = 6, 8, 12, 7, 14 and 10 km/hr

The perimeter of circle = Distance = 105 km

LCM of their speed = 6, 8, 12, 7, 14 and 10 = 840 

i.e. 1st time they meet after 840 km

Time Taken = (840/105) hr = 8 hrs

2nd time they meet after = (2 × 8) hr = 16 hrs

So, 2nd meeting after 16 hours from 4 o’clock evening = 4 PM + 16 hr = 8 AM

Solution (c)

The given number is 25272

152 = 225

1502 = 22500

162 = 256

1602 = 25600

The square root of given number is between 150 and 160.

1592 = 25281 

Required number to add = 25281 – 25272 = 09

√81 = 09

Hence, the least required number to add is √81.

Trick:- For squares between 151 and 175.

Ex-

159 = 159 + 59 = 218 ……(i)

The number is subtracted by 150 (base) and squaring the result.

(159 – 150)2 = 92 = 81 …….(ii)

The number is subtracted by 125

(159 – 125) = 34 …..(iii)

now

Multiply by 100 in both eq (i) and (iii)

(i) 218 × 100 = 21800

(ii) 81

(iii) 34 × 100 = 3400

Add (i), (ii) and (iii)

we get, (21800 + 81 + 3400) = 25281

Solution (d)

 Here S [HH, HT, TH, TT]

Let E= event of getting at least one head [HT, TH,HH]

P(E) = (n(E))/(n(S)) = 3/4

Solution (b)

 Here S (TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH). Let E = event of getting at least two heads = (THH, ΗΤΗ, HHT, HHH).

P (E) = (n(E))/(n(S)) = 4/8 = 1/2