IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
With reference to northern fertile plains, consider the following statements.
- The Tarai belt is known for the cultivation of Sugarcane and fodder.
- Bhangar plains lie above the flood limits of the river.
- The general slope of Punjab Haryana plains is from North East to South West
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Tarai lies South of Bhabar. This is a zone of excessive dampness, thick forests, rich wildlife, and a malarial climate. In most of the northern states, from Haryana to Bihar, the Tarai forests have been cleared and plains are used for agriculture now. The Tarai belt is known for the cultivation of Sugarcane, rice, wheat, maize, oil seeds, pulses, and fodder. Bhangar is the upland alluvial tracts formed by the old alluvium. They lie above the flood limits of the river and hence are not renewed yearly. The soil is dark in colour, rich in humus, and very productive. The general slope of Punjab Haryana plains is from North East to South West. It is drained by the Tributaries of Indus – Satluj, Beas and Ravi. Because of the presence of so many rivers, it is full with Khadar soil which is highly productive and well irrigated. It is separated from the Ganga plains by Delhi Ridge. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Tarai lies South of Bhabar. This is a zone of excessive dampness, thick forests, rich wildlife, and a malarial climate. In most of the northern states, from Haryana to Bihar, the Tarai forests have been cleared and plains are used for agriculture now. The Tarai belt is known for the cultivation of Sugarcane, rice, wheat, maize, oil seeds, pulses, and fodder. Bhangar is the upland alluvial tracts formed by the old alluvium. They lie above the flood limits of the river and hence are not renewed yearly. The soil is dark in colour, rich in humus, and very productive. The general slope of Punjab Haryana plains is from North East to South West. It is drained by the Tributaries of Indus – Satluj, Beas and Ravi. Because of the presence of so many rivers, it is full with Khadar soil which is highly productive and well irrigated. It is separated from the Ganga plains by Delhi Ridge. -
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the Khadar Plain?
- Khadar plains are ecologically sensitive areas.
- Deltaic Plains of India is an extension of Khadar Plains.
- This plain is formed by the river system of the Indus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Khadar plains are ecologically sensitive areas and support rich wildlife. This is highly fertile and most of this land is also reclaimed for agriculture. Deltaic Plains of India is an extension of Khadar Plains. It consists mainly of old mud, new mud, and marsh. In this region, the uplands are called ‘Chars’ while marshy areas are called ‘Bils’. Bhangar and Khadar plains have characteristic features of the mature stage of fluvial erosional and depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes, and braided channels. Rajasthan Plain is formed by the river system of the Indus. It lies to the west of Aravallis. The Khadir is called Nali in northern Haryana which is the fertile prairie tract between the Ghaggar river and the southern limits of the Saraswati channel depression that gets flooded during the rains. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Khadar plains are ecologically sensitive areas and support rich wildlife. This is highly fertile and most of this land is also reclaimed for agriculture. Deltaic Plains of India is an extension of Khadar Plains. It consists mainly of old mud, new mud, and marsh. In this region, the uplands are called ‘Chars’ while marshy areas are called ‘Bils’. Bhangar and Khadar plains have characteristic features of the mature stage of fluvial erosional and depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes, and braided channels. Rajasthan Plain is formed by the river system of the Indus. It lies to the west of Aravallis. The Khadir is called Nali in northern Haryana which is the fertile prairie tract between the Ghaggar river and the southern limits of the Saraswati channel depression that gets flooded during the rains. -
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Ganga Plains?
- The general slope of the upper Ganga plain from North to South.
- The Middle Ganga Plain covers the complete Uttar Pradesh excluding central Uttar Pradesh.
- The lower Ganga plain includes the Ganga – Yamuna doab and Rohilkand division.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The upper Ganga Plain includes the Ganga – Yamuna doab, Rohilkand division, and parts of the Agra Division. The general slope is from North to South. It is one of the most productive parts of India in where the Green Revolution was a big success. The Middle Ganga Plain includes central and eastern UP and the plain of Bihar up to Muzaffarpur. It has thick alluvial deposits with less Kankar formations. Being a low gradient plain, rivers often change their course. The Lower Ganga Plain extends from Patna to the Bay of Bengal. Moving Eastward, the river suddenly changes its course towards the South and drains into Bay of Bengal. The upper Ganga Plain includes the Ganga – Yamuna doab, Rohilkand division, and parts of the Agra Division. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The upper Ganga Plain includes the Ganga – Yamuna doab, Rohilkand division, and parts of the Agra Division. The general slope is from North to South. It is one of the most productive parts of India in where the Green Revolution was a big success. The Middle Ganga Plain includes central and eastern UP and the plain of Bihar up to Muzaffarpur. It has thick alluvial deposits with less Kankar formations. Being a low gradient plain, rivers often change their course. The Lower Ganga Plain extends from Patna to the Bay of Bengal. Moving Eastward, the river suddenly changes its course towards the South and drains into Bay of Bengal. The upper Ganga Plain includes the Ganga – Yamuna doab, Rohilkand division, and parts of the Agra Division. -
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Which of the following mountain ranges is not part of the Cordilleran region in North America?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Cordillera is a system of mountain ranges that often consist of a number of more or less parallel chains. Cordilleras are an extensive feature in the Americas and Eurasia. In North America the Rocky Mountains, the Sierra Nevadas, and the mountains between them are collectively known as the Cordilleras, and the entire area has been termed the Cordilleran region. The term Cordillera is used with a directional modifier (e.g., Cordillera Oriental) to differentiate the various chains of the Andes Mountains as they extend through Colombia, Venezuela, Bolivia, and other countries in South America. (Hence option d is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Cordillera is a system of mountain ranges that often consist of a number of more or less parallel chains. Cordilleras are an extensive feature in the Americas and Eurasia. In North America the Rocky Mountains, the Sierra Nevadas, and the mountains between them are collectively known as the Cordilleras, and the entire area has been termed the Cordilleran region. The term Cordillera is used with a directional modifier (e.g., Cordillera Oriental) to differentiate the various chains of the Andes Mountains as they extend through Colombia, Venezuela, Bolivia, and other countries in South America. (Hence option d is incorrect)
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Question 5 of 35
5. Question
What is the term used to describe the abrupt southward bends of the Himalayas at their eastern and western extremities?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The general East-West trend of the Himalayas has terminated abruptly at the eastern and western extremities and ranges are sharply bent southwards in deep knee bend flextures. These are called Syntaxial bends. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The general East-West trend of the Himalayas has terminated abruptly at the eastern and western extremities and ranges are sharply bent southwards in deep knee bend flextures. These are called Syntaxial bends. (Hence option b is correct)
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Question 6 of 35
6. Question
What are the unconsolidated deposits found in the foreland basins of Mizoram?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Mizoram is known as the LAND OF ROLLING MOUNTAINS, i.e. it has a huge number of mountain formations, most mountains are accompanied by the formation of a foreland basin or in simple terms valley-type depression that runs parallel to mountains. These depressions accumulate with unconsolidated deposits known as Molasses basin. (Hence option c is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Mizoram is known as the LAND OF ROLLING MOUNTAINS, i.e. it has a huge number of mountain formations, most mountains are accompanied by the formation of a foreland basin or in simple terms valley-type depression that runs parallel to mountains. These depressions accumulate with unconsolidated deposits known as Molasses basin. (Hence option c is correct)
-
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements.
- The Dooars are the alluvial floodplains in north-eastern India.
- Rohi are the fertile tracts of land in the Rajasthan plains.
Which of the following statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in north-eastern India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin. Rohi are the fertile tracts of land in the Rajasthan plains composed of Rajasthan Bagar, which is a semi-arid plain in the eastern side of the desert. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in north-eastern India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin. Rohi are the fertile tracts of land in the Rajasthan plains composed of Rajasthan Bagar, which is a semi-arid plain in the eastern side of the desert. -
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the Peninsular plateau?
- The general elevation of the plateau is from the east to the west.
- It spreads over three Indian states only.
- An extension of the peninsular plateau is seen in the form of the Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular Plateau. The general elevation of the plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved by the pattern of the flow of rivers. The Peninsular Plateau is a triangular-shaped tableland. It is part of an ancient land mass called Gondwana Level. The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. It is spread over the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular Plateau. Delhi Ridge in the northwest, (extension of Aravalis), the Rajmahal Hills in the east, the Gir range in the west, and the Cardamom hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular plateau. However, an extension of this is also seen in the northeast, in the form of the Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular Plateau. The general elevation of the plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved by the pattern of the flow of rivers. The Peninsular Plateau is a triangular-shaped tableland. It is part of an ancient land mass called Gondwana Level. The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. It is spread over the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular Plateau. Delhi Ridge in the northwest, (extension of Aravalis), the Rajmahal Hills in the east, the Gir range in the west, and the Cardamom hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular plateau. However, an extension of this is also seen in the northeast, in the form of the Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau. -
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
With reference to the North Central Highlands, consider the following statements.
- The Great Boundary Fault separates Aravallis from the Vindhyan mountains.
- The Malwa Plateau is bordered by the Vindhyan range in the North and Bundelkhand plateau in the East.
- Baghelkhand region is drained by the Narmada and Son rivers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Aravallis runs from North East to South West for 800 km between Delhi to Gujarat. The Great Boundary Fault (GBF) separates Aravallis from the Vindhyan mountains. The Malwa Plateau is bordered by the Aravallis in the North, the Vindhyan range in the South, and the Bundelkhand Plateau in the East. Malwa plateau has two drainage systems, one towards the Arabian Sea (Narmada and Mahi) and the other towards the Bay of Bengal (Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken). Baghelkhand includes the plateaus of Satna and Rewa in MP and Mirzapur in UP. Its elevation varies from 150 – 1200 m with uneven relief. The region is drained by the Narmada and Son Rivers. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Aravallis runs from North East to South West for 800 km between Delhi to Gujarat. The Great Boundary Fault (GBF) separates Aravallis from the Vindhyan mountains. The Malwa Plateau is bordered by the Aravallis in the North, the Vindhyan range in the South, and the Bundelkhand Plateau in the East. Malwa plateau has two drainage systems, one towards the Arabian Sea (Narmada and Mahi) and the other towards the Bay of Bengal (Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken). Baghelkhand includes the plateaus of Satna and Rewa in MP and Mirzapur in UP. Its elevation varies from 150 – 1200 m with uneven relief. The region is drained by the Narmada and Son Rivers. -
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements.
- Karnataka Plateau spans in the state of Karnataka only.
- The plateau of Telangana consists of Cuddapah rock formations.
- Palakkad Gap connects the Kerala coast and Tamil Nadu highlands.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Karnataka Plateau plateau spans in the state of Karnataka and the Cannanore and Kozhikode districts of Kerala. The plateau has an average elevation of 600 – 900 m. The Northern upland of Karnataka plateau is called Malnad while the Southern part is called Maidan. It is drained by the Kaveri and Tungabhadra rivers. The plateau of Telangana consists of Dharwar and Cuddapah rock formations. The area of Telangana State forms part of Southern Precambrian Tectonic Province or Southern Peninsular Shield and the shield elements are described under Dharwar Craton consisting of greenstone -granite suite with relative stability yielding relative older radiometric ages followed by intra-cratonic basins and are bordered by Eastern Ghats Mobile Belt (EGMB) having high-grade granulites with younger thermal events. The Tamil Nadu uplands lie between the South Sahyadris and Tamil Nadu coastal plains. It is largely covered by Archean Rocks. At places, there are Cuddapah and Alluvial Formations. Between Coimbatore and Annamalai, there is a broad gap, known as Palakkad Gap. This is about 25 km wide and connects the Kerala coast and Tamil Nadu highlands. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Karnataka Plateau plateau spans in the state of Karnataka and the Cannanore and Kozhikode districts of Kerala. The plateau has an average elevation of 600 – 900 m. The Northern upland of Karnataka plateau is called Malnad while the Southern part is called Maidan. It is drained by the Kaveri and Tungabhadra rivers. The plateau of Telangana consists of Dharwar and Cuddapah rock formations. The area of Telangana State forms part of Southern Precambrian Tectonic Province or Southern Peninsular Shield and the shield elements are described under Dharwar Craton consisting of greenstone -granite suite with relative stability yielding relative older radiometric ages followed by intra-cratonic basins and are bordered by Eastern Ghats Mobile Belt (EGMB) having high-grade granulites with younger thermal events. The Tamil Nadu uplands lie between the South Sahyadris and Tamil Nadu coastal plains. It is largely covered by Archean Rocks. At places, there are Cuddapah and Alluvial Formations. Between Coimbatore and Annamalai, there is a broad gap, known as Palakkad Gap. This is about 25 km wide and connects the Kerala coast and Tamil Nadu highlands. -
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about Western Ghats?
- The western slope of Sahyadri is strep while the Eastern slope is gentle.
- The windward side of the Western Ghats receives very little rainfall as compared to eastward.
- Samudram Falls on the Kaveri River is the highest waterfall in India.
- Sahyadris lies on the Western edge of the Deccan plateau.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast for about 1600 km in the north-south direction from the mouth of the Tapi River to Kanyakumari. The western slope of Sahyadri is strep while the Eastern slope is gentle. The windward side of the Western Ghats receives very high rainfall. Because of this, it has tropical rainforests. It is one of the biodiversity hotspots of the World. Most of the important rivers of Peninsular India Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri originate from the Western Ghats. Jog Falls on the Sharavati River is the highest waterfall in India. The Western Ghats or Sahyadris lie on the Western edge of the Deccan plateau. It runs parallel to the western coast for about 1600 km. The average elevation of the Western Ghats is 1000 metres. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast for about 1600 km in the north-south direction from the mouth of the Tapi River to Kanyakumari. The western slope of Sahyadri is strep while the Eastern slope is gentle. The windward side of the Western Ghats receives very high rainfall. Because of this, it has tropical rainforests. It is one of the biodiversity hotspots of the World. Most of the important rivers of Peninsular India Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri originate from the Western Ghats. Jog Falls on the Sharavati River is the highest waterfall in India. The Western Ghats or Sahyadris lie on the Western edge of the Deccan plateau. It runs parallel to the western coast for about 1600 km. The average elevation of the Western Ghats is 1000 metres. -
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the Eastern Ghats?
- They run parallel to the east coast from the south of Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiri hills.
- The area is drained by the Mahanadi and Godavari River systems.
- The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous low belt. Their average elevation is 600 m. They run parallel to the east coast from the south of Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiri hills. The eastern ghat area is drained by the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri river systems. The Nilgiri hills join the Western & Eastern Ghats in the south. The Western Ghats form one of the major watersheds of India, feeding many perennial river systems that drain almost 40% of the land area of the country. The Western Ghats meet with the Eastern Ghats at Nilgiris before continuing south. There is also a massive crater impact happened which created an impact in between Nilgiri and Palani Hills which is named as Kavery Crater which is considered to be the third largest crater impact on earth. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous low belt. Their average elevation is 600 m. They run parallel to the east coast from the south of Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiri hills. The eastern ghat area is drained by the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri river systems. The Nilgiri hills join the Western & Eastern Ghats in the south. The Western Ghats form one of the major watersheds of India, feeding many perennial river systems that drain almost 40% of the land area of the country. The Western Ghats meet with the Eastern Ghats at Nilgiris before continuing south. There is also a massive crater impact happened which created an impact in between Nilgiri and Palani Hills which is named as Kavery Crater which is considered to be the third largest crater impact on earth. -
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Which of the following is a consequence of the broader mountain topography in Karnataka?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The mountain topography in Karnataka is broader. Due to the greater width of the mountains, the rain-bearing winds have to necessarily travel a longer distance and have more time for the drops to coalesce and precipitate as rainfall, resulting in higher rainfall. In contrast, the narrow width of the Ghats in Maharashtra allows the rain-bearing wind to cross over to the leeward side rapidly before precipitation can occur. (Hence option d is correct).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The mountain topography in Karnataka is broader. Due to the greater width of the mountains, the rain-bearing winds have to necessarily travel a longer distance and have more time for the drops to coalesce and precipitate as rainfall, resulting in higher rainfall. In contrast, the narrow width of the Ghats in Maharashtra allows the rain-bearing wind to cross over to the leeward side rapidly before precipitation can occur. (Hence option d is correct).
-
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to Indian deserts, consider the following statements.
- The Indian desert was under the sea during the Mesozoic era.
- Indian desert is the ninth largest desert in the world.
- Except Luni River, all other streams appear only at the time of rainfall.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is believed that during the Mesozoic era, the Indian desert was under the sea. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at the wood fossils park at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer (The approximate age of the wood fossils is estimated to be 180 million years). The Indian Desert lies towards the western margin of Aravali Hills. It is also called the Thar Desert. It is the ninth-largest desert in the world. It spreads over the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan. Indian desert has semi-arid and arid weather conditions. It receives less than 150 mm of rainfall per year. The vegetation cover is low with thorny bushes. Luni is the main river in this area. All other streams appear only at the time of rainfall otherwise they disappear into the sand. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is believed that during the Mesozoic era, the Indian desert was under the sea. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at the wood fossils park at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer (The approximate age of the wood fossils is estimated to be 180 million years). The Indian Desert lies towards the western margin of Aravali Hills. It is also called the Thar Desert. It is the ninth-largest desert in the world. It spreads over the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan. Indian desert has semi-arid and arid weather conditions. It receives less than 150 mm of rainfall per year. The vegetation cover is low with thorny bushes. Luni is the main river in this area. All other streams appear only at the time of rainfall otherwise they disappear into the sand. -
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Which of the following river forms the eastern boundary of the Thar Desert?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The Indian Desert lies towards the western margin of Aravali Hills. It is also called the Thar Desert. The Thar Desert is bounded on the northwest by the Sutlej River, on the east by the Aravalli Range, on the south by the salt marsh known as the Rann of Kutch (parts of which are sometimes included in the Thar), and on the west by the Indus River. (Hence option d is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The Indian Desert lies towards the western margin of Aravali Hills. It is also called the Thar Desert. The Thar Desert is bounded on the northwest by the Sutlej River, on the east by the Aravalli Range, on the south by the salt marsh known as the Rann of Kutch (parts of which are sometimes included in the Thar), and on the west by the Indus River. (Hence option d is correct)
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Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the Eastern Coastal Plains?
- The Eastern Coastal Plains lie between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
- The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
- These plains are also known as Northern Circars in the northern part between the Kaveri and Krishna rivers.
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Eastern Coastal Plains refers to a wide stretch of landmass of India, lying between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. Deltas of many of India’s rivers form a major portion of the eastern coastal plains. The Mahanadi, Godavari, Kaveri, and Krishna rivers drain these plains. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards the north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Eastern Coastal Plains is locally known as Northern Circars in the northern part between the Mahanadi and Krishna rivers and Coromandel Coast in the southern part between the Krishna and Kaveri rivers. Together these are known as eastern coastal plains. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Eastern Coastal Plains refers to a wide stretch of landmass of India, lying between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. Deltas of many of India’s rivers form a major portion of the eastern coastal plains. The Mahanadi, Godavari, Kaveri, and Krishna rivers drain these plains. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards the north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Eastern Coastal Plains is locally known as Northern Circars in the northern part between the Mahanadi and Krishna rivers and Coromandel Coast in the southern part between the Krishna and Kaveri rivers. Together these are known as eastern coastal plains. -
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Coastal Plains of India:
Statement I: The Western Coastal Plains are suitable for the development of ports and harbors.
Statement II: The Western Coastal Plains are an example of emergent coastal plains.
Statements III: The Western Coastal Plains are characterized by the development of extensive deltas.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements given above?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The Coastal plains of India are divided into two parts: the western coastal plains- plains between arabian sea coast and western ghats; and the eastern coastal plains- plains between bay of bengal coast and eastern ghats.
- The Western coastal plain provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. Hence, Statement I is correct.
- The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
- The western coastal plains extend from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south. The western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast in Karnataka and Malabar coast in Kerala.
- The rivers flowing through the western coastal plains do not form any delta. The eastern coastal plains have well-developed deltas, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
- Hence, Neither Statement -II nor statement -III is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The Coastal plains of India are divided into two parts: the western coastal plains- plains between arabian sea coast and western ghats; and the eastern coastal plains- plains between bay of bengal coast and eastern ghats.
- The Western coastal plain provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. Hence, Statement I is correct.
- The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
- The western coastal plains extend from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south. The western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast in Karnataka and Malabar coast in Kerala.
- The rivers flowing through the western coastal plains do not form any delta. The eastern coastal plains have well-developed deltas, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
- Hence, Neither Statement -II nor statement -III is correct.
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Which of the following islands in the Arabian Sea are located off the Kerala coast?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The islands of the Arabian sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These are scattered between 8°°N-12°°N and 71°°E -74°°E longitude. These islands are located at a distance of 220 km-440 km off the Kerala coast. The entire island group is built of coral deposits. There are approximately 36 islands of which 11 are inhabited. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The islands of the Arabian sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These are scattered between 8°°N-12°°N and 71°°E -74°°E longitude. These islands are located at a distance of 220 km-440 km off the Kerala coast. The entire island group is built of coral deposits. There are approximately 36 islands of which 11 are inhabited. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
With reference to the Malda fault, consider the following statements:
- It separates the Meghalaya plateau from the Chotanagpur plateau.
- It is located in the state of Meghalaya.
- It is also known as Garo-Rajmahal Gap.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Meghalaya Plateau is detached from the Indian peninsula by Malda Gap. It was formed by down-faulting. Thus, the north-eastern parts are separated from the Chotanagpur plateau by the Malda fault. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Malda Gap is located in the state of West Bengal (and not Meghalaya). The Meghalaya plateau has been separated from the peninsular block by a wide gap known as the Malda Gap. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Malda fault is also known as Garo-Rajmahal Gap. An extension of the Meghalaya plateau can also be seen in the Karbi Anglong hills of Assam. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Meghalaya Plateau is detached from the Indian peninsula by Malda Gap. It was formed by down-faulting. Thus, the north-eastern parts are separated from the Chotanagpur plateau by the Malda fault. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Malda Gap is located in the state of West Bengal (and not Meghalaya). The Meghalaya plateau has been separated from the peninsular block by a wide gap known as the Malda Gap. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Malda fault is also known as Garo-Rajmahal Gap. An extension of the Meghalaya plateau can also be seen in the Karbi Anglong hills of Assam. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following Neighbouring Countries of India:
- China
- Nepal
- Bangladesh
- Pakistan
Arrange the countries given above in the descending order of their border length with India:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east. The southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries, namely Sri Lanka and Maldives.
Option a is correct: India has 15,106.7 Km of land border and a coastline of 7,516.6 Km including island territories. The length of our land borders with neighbouring countries in descending order is as under-
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east. The southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries, namely Sri Lanka and Maldives.
Option a is correct: India has 15,106.7 Km of land border and a coastline of 7,516.6 Km including island territories. The length of our land borders with neighbouring countries in descending order is as under-
-
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about the World Crafts Council:
- It is a New York-based organisation working on the recognition and preservation of traditional crafts across the globe.
- It is a non-profit, non-governmental organization affiliated with UNESCO.
- Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was part of the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context:
- The World Crafts Council is a Kuwait-based organisation working on the recognition and preservation of traditional crafts across the globe. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Its main objective is to strengthen the status of crafts in cultural and economic life.
- It aims to promote fellowship among craftspersons by offering them encouragement, help, and advice.
- It is a non-profit, non-governmental organization affiliated with UNESCO. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It fosters and assists cultural exchange through conferences, international visits, research studies, lectures, workshops, exhibitions, and other activities.
- It was founded by Ms. Aileen Osborn Vanderbilt Webb, Ms. Margaret M. Patch, and Smt Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay at the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly in New York on June 12, 1964.
- Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was part of the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context:
- The World Crafts Council is a Kuwait-based organisation working on the recognition and preservation of traditional crafts across the globe. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Its main objective is to strengthen the status of crafts in cultural and economic life.
- It aims to promote fellowship among craftspersons by offering them encouragement, help, and advice.
- It is a non-profit, non-governmental organization affiliated with UNESCO. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It fosters and assists cultural exchange through conferences, international visits, research studies, lectures, workshops, exhibitions, and other activities.
- It was founded by Ms. Aileen Osborn Vanderbilt Webb, Ms. Margaret M. Patch, and Smt Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay at the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly in New York on June 12, 1964.
- Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was part of the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Which of the following are the benefits of Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) and Zero-Tillage (ZT)?
- It reduces the environmental footprint by saving water.
- It helps in making farming more climate-smart and sustainable.
- It prevents pollution from stubble burning.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The Jalna (Maharashtra)-based company and Savannah Seeds – the South Asian subsidiary of the Alvin (Texas)-headquartered RiceTec Inc. – have even formed a joint venture to take their Imazethapyr-tolerant ‘FullPage’ direct seeded rice (DSR) and ‘FreeHit’ zero-tillage (ZT) wheat technologies to farmers for making this cropping system “more climate-smart and sustainable”.
Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) and Zero-Tillage (ZT) use non-GM herbicide-tolerance technology. It allows for direct seeding of rice and zero-tillage planting of wheat.
Benefits of Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) and Zero-Tillage (ZT):
- It involves direct seeding of rice without the need for nurseries, puddling, or transplanting. Herbicide Imazethapyr replaces water for weed control, reducing labour and water usage. It reduces the environmental footprint by saving water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It helps in making farming more climate-smart and sustainable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It uses zero-tillage technology, where seeds are sown directly without burning stubble or ploughing. Machines like the Super Seeder and Happy Seeder help in sowing without tillage.
- It prevents pollution from stubble burning. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It holds promise for more sustainable and efficient farming practices.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The Jalna (Maharashtra)-based company and Savannah Seeds – the South Asian subsidiary of the Alvin (Texas)-headquartered RiceTec Inc. – have even formed a joint venture to take their Imazethapyr-tolerant ‘FullPage’ direct seeded rice (DSR) and ‘FreeHit’ zero-tillage (ZT) wheat technologies to farmers for making this cropping system “more climate-smart and sustainable”.
Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) and Zero-Tillage (ZT) use non-GM herbicide-tolerance technology. It allows for direct seeding of rice and zero-tillage planting of wheat.
Benefits of Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) and Zero-Tillage (ZT):
- It involves direct seeding of rice without the need for nurseries, puddling, or transplanting. Herbicide Imazethapyr replaces water for weed control, reducing labour and water usage. It reduces the environmental footprint by saving water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It helps in making farming more climate-smart and sustainable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It uses zero-tillage technology, where seeds are sown directly without burning stubble or ploughing. Machines like the Super Seeder and Happy Seeder help in sowing without tillage.
- It prevents pollution from stubble burning. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It holds promise for more sustainable and efficient farming practices.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Which of the following are the rules to include a drug under the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM)?
- Useful in treating diseases that are a public health problem in India
- Licensed/approved by the Drugs Controller General (DCGI)
- A safety profile based on scientific evidence
- Comparatively cost-effective
Select the correct code using the codes below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) is a list released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The medicines listed in the NLEM are sold below a price ceiling fixed by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
Rules to include a drug under the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM):
- Useful in treating diseases that are a public health problem in India
- Licensed/approved by the Drugs Controller General (DCGI)
- A safety profile based on scientific evidence
- Comparatively cost-effective
- Proven efficacy
- Aligned with the current treatment guidelines
Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) is a list released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The medicines listed in the NLEM are sold below a price ceiling fixed by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
Rules to include a drug under the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM):
- Useful in treating diseases that are a public health problem in India
- Licensed/approved by the Drugs Controller General (DCGI)
- A safety profile based on scientific evidence
- Comparatively cost-effective
- Proven efficacy
- Aligned with the current treatment guidelines
Hence option d is correct.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
With respect to the UNESCO Kalinga Prize, consider the following statements:
- It is the only international award from India in the field of popularisation of science.
- It was founded by the president of the Kalinga Foundation Trust Shri Biju Patnaik.
- It does not accept applications from individuals.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The Science and Technology Ministry has withdrawn its contribution to the prestigious UNESCO Kalinga Prize for Popularisation of Science, UNESCO’s oldest award, instituted through a donation by Odisha’s former Chief Minister Biju Patnaik way back in 1951.
- The UNESCO Kalinga Prize is the only international award from India in the field of popularisation of science. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was created in 1951 and given for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to common people.
- It is administered by the Science Analysis and Policies Division of UNESCO.
- The recipient receives US$ 40,000 and a UNESCO Albert Einstein Silver Medal. The recipient is also awarded the Kalinga Chair, introduced by the Government of India in 2001 to mark the 50th anniversary of the Kalinga Prize, which comprises a certificate and cash award of US$5,000.
- It is funded by the Kalinga Foundation Trust, the Government of the State of Orissa, and the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- It was founded by the president of the Kalinga Foundation Trust Shri Biju Patnaik. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Each member state is entitled to nominate a single candidate, through its National Commission for UNESCO, on the recommendation of the national associations for the advancement of science or other science associations, or national associations of science writers or science journalists.
It does not accept applications from individuals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The Science and Technology Ministry has withdrawn its contribution to the prestigious UNESCO Kalinga Prize for Popularisation of Science, UNESCO’s oldest award, instituted through a donation by Odisha’s former Chief Minister Biju Patnaik way back in 1951.
- The UNESCO Kalinga Prize is the only international award from India in the field of popularisation of science. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was created in 1951 and given for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to common people.
- It is administered by the Science Analysis and Policies Division of UNESCO.
- The recipient receives US$ 40,000 and a UNESCO Albert Einstein Silver Medal. The recipient is also awarded the Kalinga Chair, introduced by the Government of India in 2001 to mark the 50th anniversary of the Kalinga Prize, which comprises a certificate and cash award of US$5,000.
- It is funded by the Kalinga Foundation Trust, the Government of the State of Orissa, and the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- It was founded by the president of the Kalinga Foundation Trust Shri Biju Patnaik. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Each member state is entitled to nominate a single candidate, through its National Commission for UNESCO, on the recommendation of the national associations for the advancement of science or other science associations, or national associations of science writers or science journalists.
It does not accept applications from individuals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The melting of polar ice caps due to climate change has led to a slight increase in the length of a day.
Statement II: As ice melts and flows towards the equator, the Earth bulges out slightly around the middle and its moment of inertia increases leading to the slowing of its spin. This leads to longer days.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Context: In yet another unprecedented effect of climate change, scientists find that the melting polar ice caps have caused the earth to spin slower.
- The melting of polar ice caps due to climate change has led to a slight increase in the length of a day. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- As ice melts and flows towards the equator, the Earth bulges out slightly around the middle and its moment of inertia increases leading to the slowing of its spin. This leads to longer days. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The slowdown of Earth’s spin can impact precise timekeeping systems like atomic clocks, GPS, and technologies involved in space travel. Changes of even a few milliseconds can cause discrepancies in these systems.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Context: In yet another unprecedented effect of climate change, scientists find that the melting polar ice caps have caused the earth to spin slower.
- The melting of polar ice caps due to climate change has led to a slight increase in the length of a day. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- As ice melts and flows towards the equator, the Earth bulges out slightly around the middle and its moment of inertia increases leading to the slowing of its spin. This leads to longer days. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The slowdown of Earth’s spin can impact precise timekeeping systems like atomic clocks, GPS, and technologies involved in space travel. Changes of even a few milliseconds can cause discrepancies in these systems.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements about the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
- It tracks overall manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy.
- It is compiled and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) annually.
- It is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The National Statistical Office also upgraded May’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) to 6.2%, the highest in seven months, from its initial estimate of 5.9%.
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) tracks overall manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Three broad sectors in IIP are Manufacturing (77.6%), Mining (14.4%), and Electricity (8%).
- Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers are the eight core industries that comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
- It is compiled and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) every month. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- CSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
- It is used by various government agencies such as the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), private firms, and analysts, among others for analytical purposes.
- It is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Context: The National Statistical Office also upgraded May’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) to 6.2%, the highest in seven months, from its initial estimate of 5.9%.
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) tracks overall manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Three broad sectors in IIP are Manufacturing (77.6%), Mining (14.4%), and Electricity (8%).
- Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers are the eight core industries that comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
- It is compiled and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) every month. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- CSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
- It is used by various government agencies such as the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), private firms, and analysts, among others for analytical purposes.
- It is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
With reference to Guillain-Barre Syndrome, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system (CNS).
- It affects the nerves responsible for muscle movement, pain, temperature, and touch sensations.
- Its treatment involves procedures like plasmapheresis, which removes plasma and replaces it with other fluids.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context: Doctors of the Institute of Child Health (ICH) and Hospital for Children treated a two-and-a-half-year-old child, who was wheeled in with paralysis of lower limbs after testing positive for COVID-19. The girl was diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS), which is not commonly seen during early COVID-19 in children.
- Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It initially presents weakness, tingling, and numbness in the limbs, which can progress to paralysis lasting 6-12 months or longer.
- It affects the nerves responsible for muscle movement, pain, temperature, and touch sensations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It can occur in individuals of all ages.
- As per the World Health Organisation (WHO), GBS is often preceded by an infection. This could be a bacterial or viral infection. This leads the immune system to attack the body itself.
- Its treatment involves procedures like plasmapheresis, which removes plasma and replaces it with other fluids. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context: Doctors of the Institute of Child Health (ICH) and Hospital for Children treated a two-and-a-half-year-old child, who was wheeled in with paralysis of lower limbs after testing positive for COVID-19. The girl was diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS), which is not commonly seen during early COVID-19 in children.
- Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It initially presents weakness, tingling, and numbness in the limbs, which can progress to paralysis lasting 6-12 months or longer.
- It affects the nerves responsible for muscle movement, pain, temperature, and touch sensations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It can occur in individuals of all ages.
- As per the World Health Organisation (WHO), GBS is often preceded by an infection. This could be a bacterial or viral infection. This leads the immune system to attack the body itself.
- Its treatment involves procedures like plasmapheresis, which removes plasma and replaces it with other fluids. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
The Global Food Policy Report of 2024 was released by the
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Context:
- The Global Food Policy Report of 2024 was released by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI). Hence option d is correct.
- IFPRI is a research center of CGIAR, the world’s largest agricultural innovation network.
- IFPRI was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Context:
- The Global Food Policy Report of 2024 was released by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI). Hence option d is correct.
- IFPRI is a research center of CGIAR, the world’s largest agricultural innovation network.
- IFPRI was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024:
- Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has the top position in the ‘Universities’ and ‘Research Institutions’ categories.
- Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru has the top position in the ‘Overall’ and ‘Engineering’ categories.
- IIM Ahmedabad has the top position in the ‘Management’ category while AIIMS, New Delhi has the top position in the ‘Medical’ category.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Context: The Ministry of Education announced the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024.
The findings of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024:
- Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has the top position in the ‘Overall’ and ‘Engineering’ categories. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru has the top position in the ‘Universities’ and ‘Research Institutions’ categories. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- IIM Ahmedabad has the top position in the ‘Management’ category while AIIMS, New Delhi has the top position in the ‘Medical’ category. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Jamia Hamdard has the top position in the ‘Pharmacy’ category, while IIT Roorkee has the top position in ‘Architecture and Planning’.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Context: The Ministry of Education announced the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024.
The findings of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024:
- Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has the top position in the ‘Overall’ and ‘Engineering’ categories. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru has the top position in the ‘Universities’ and ‘Research Institutions’ categories. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- IIM Ahmedabad has the top position in the ‘Management’ category while AIIMS, New Delhi has the top position in the ‘Medical’ category. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Jamia Hamdard has the top position in the ‘Pharmacy’ category, while IIT Roorkee has the top position in ‘Architecture and Planning’.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
With reference to Nankai Trough, consider the following statements:
- It is a subduction zone between two tectonic plates in the Atlantic Ocean.
- It runs from Shizuoka, west of Tokyo, to the southern tip of Kyushu Island.
- It is known as megathrust quakes as it often occurs in pairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context: Japan issues its first-ever ‘megaquake advisory’ as the likelihood of strong shaking and large tsunamis is higher than normal on the Nankai Trough, a subduction zone.
- Nankai Trough is a subduction zone between two tectonic plates in the Pacific Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- This underwater subduction zone is where the Eurasian Plate collides with the Philippine Sea Plate, pushing the latter under the former and into the Earth’s mantle.
- It runs from Shizuoka, west of Tokyo, to the southern tip of Kyushu Island. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has been the site of destructive quakes of magnitude eight or nine every century or two.
- It is known as megathrust quakes as it often occurs in pairs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Context: Japan issues its first-ever ‘megaquake advisory’ as the likelihood of strong shaking and large tsunamis is higher than normal on the Nankai Trough, a subduction zone.
- Nankai Trough is a subduction zone between two tectonic plates in the Pacific Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- This underwater subduction zone is where the Eurasian Plate collides with the Philippine Sea Plate, pushing the latter under the former and into the Earth’s mantle.
- It runs from Shizuoka, west of Tokyo, to the southern tip of Kyushu Island. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has been the site of destructive quakes of magnitude eight or nine every century or two.
- It is known as megathrust quakes as it often occurs in pairs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Passage – 1
Bhima was the one with the most physical strength among the Pandavas, and from the beginning, Duryodhana was jealous of him. Childhood envy is common and it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life. Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it. He did not set his son on the right track. As a result, Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years, until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima.
Q.31) Which one of the following statements best implies the suggestion given by the author of the passage?
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. Though the author considers childhood envy to be common, like Duryodhana’s being jealous of Bhima’s physical strength, however, the author is of the opinion, that action must be taken by parents to curb the envy and jealousy, as stated in the passage, “Childhood envy is common and it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life.” Thus, the statement in option (a) is not the correct suggestion of the author.
Option (b) is correct. The author shows how Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it. He did not set his son on the right track. As a result, Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years, until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima.” Thus, this was the result of the non-curbing of envy by Dhritarashtra. According to the author, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life”.
Option (c) is incorrect. The author is not of the opinion that Dhritarashtra took efforts to correct Duryodhana, as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it.” Thus, the statement in option (c) is in direct contrast to what is stated in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. According to the author, it is the parents’ duty to curb envy among children and teach them good attitude, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life…” The author doesn’t suggest Bhima himself should have taken steps to solve the issue of jealousy between Duryodhana and him. Thus, the statement in option (d) is not in resonance with what is mentioned in the passage.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. Though the author considers childhood envy to be common, like Duryodhana’s being jealous of Bhima’s physical strength, however, the author is of the opinion, that action must be taken by parents to curb the envy and jealousy, as stated in the passage, “Childhood envy is common and it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life.” Thus, the statement in option (a) is not the correct suggestion of the author.
Option (b) is correct. The author shows how Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it. He did not set his son on the right track. As a result, Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years, until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima.” Thus, this was the result of the non-curbing of envy by Dhritarashtra. According to the author, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life”.
Option (c) is incorrect. The author is not of the opinion that Dhritarashtra took efforts to correct Duryodhana, as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it.” Thus, the statement in option (c) is in direct contrast to what is stated in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. According to the author, it is the parents’ duty to curb envy among children and teach them good attitude, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life…” The author doesn’t suggest Bhima himself should have taken steps to solve the issue of jealousy between Duryodhana and him. Thus, the statement in option (d) is not in resonance with what is mentioned in the passage.
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Question 32 of 35
32. Question
The ratio of the ages of Velu and Ranjith 10 years ago was 1 : 3. The ratio of their age five years hence will be 2 : 3. Then the ratio of their present age is:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
10 years ago, Velu : Ranjith = 1x : 3x
Now, Velu : Ranjith = x +10 : 3x +10 5 years
hence, Velu : Ranjith = x + 15 : 3x + 15
Now, x + 15 / 3x + 15 = 2/3 3x + 45 = 6x + 30 3x = 15 So, x = 5
Then, Present age ratio, Velu : Ranjith = 15 : 25 = 3 : 5
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
10 years ago, Velu : Ranjith = 1x : 3x
Now, Velu : Ranjith = x +10 : 3x +10 5 years
hence, Velu : Ranjith = x + 15 : 3x + 15
Now, x + 15 / 3x + 15 = 2/3 3x + 45 = 6x + 30 3x = 15 So, x = 5
Then, Present age ratio, Velu : Ranjith = 15 : 25 = 3 : 5
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Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Rudra, Ananya and Ishan have some amount of money with them. The sum of squares of the money they have is 2128. The ratio of Rudra‘s money to Ananya‘s money, and Ananya‘s money to Ishan‘s money is the same, i.e. 3:2. What is the total amount of money they have?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Let the amount of money that Rudra, Ananya and Ishan have be R, A and I respectively.
Then, R:A = 3:2
And, A:I = 3:2
So, R:A:I = 9:6:4
Then, the money that Rudra has = 9x
Money that Ananya has = 6x
Money that Ishan has = 4x (Here x is a common factor)
According to the question,
(9x)2 + (6x)2 + (4x)2 = 2128
Or 81x2 + 36x2 + 16x2 = 2128
Or 133x2 = 2128
Or x2 = 2128/133 = 16
Or x = 4
Thus, Rudra has 9x = 9×4 = Rs. 36
Ananya has 6x = 6×4 = Rs. 24
& Ishan has 4x = 4×4 = Rs. 16
Sum of their money = 36 + 24 + 16 = Rs. 76
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Let the amount of money that Rudra, Ananya and Ishan have be R, A and I respectively.
Then, R:A = 3:2
And, A:I = 3:2
So, R:A:I = 9:6:4
Then, the money that Rudra has = 9x
Money that Ananya has = 6x
Money that Ishan has = 4x (Here x is a common factor)
According to the question,
(9x)2 + (6x)2 + (4x)2 = 2128
Or 81x2 + 36x2 + 16x2 = 2128
Or 133x2 = 2128
Or x2 = 2128/133 = 16
Or x = 4
Thus, Rudra has 9x = 9×4 = Rs. 36
Ananya has 6x = 6×4 = Rs. 24
& Ishan has 4x = 4×4 = Rs. 16
Sum of their money = 36 + 24 + 16 = Rs. 76
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Question 34 of 35
34. Question
Find the greatest possible speed at which a man could walk to cover the distances of 70 km and 245 km in integral number of days?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The greatest possible speed at which a man could walk is equal to HCF of 70 and 245.
HCF of 70 and 245 = 35
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The greatest possible speed at which a man could walk is equal to HCF of 70 and 245.
HCF of 70 and 245 = 35
Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
A jar contains 4 black, 3 white and 2 pink colour cards. A card is chosen randomly. Find the probability that the chosen card is not black.
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Let E be the event of drawing a card which is not black.
So, number of favourable outcomes = 3 + 2 = 5
P(E) = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes = 5/9
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Let E be the event of drawing a card which is not black.
So, number of favourable outcomes = 3 + 2 = 5
P(E) = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes = 5/9
Hence, option (d) is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba
