[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Like the Lok Sabha, the legislative assembly is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections. Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Constitution provided for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the assembly of each state on the basis of population ratios. Like Rajya Sabha the constitution does not provide for reservation of seats in Legislative council. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The council does not participate in the election of the President of India and representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states participates in the election of the President. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• A Bill pending in the assembly lapses whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it by the council. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The council has equal powers with that of the assembly with respect to enlargement of jurisdiction of the state public service commission and approval of ordinances issued by the governor.  Hence Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The council has no effective say in the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In this respect, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.   Hence Statement 3 is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health was constituted in 2006 and one of the functions of this forum is to have focused discussions on strategies relating to population stabilisation and matters related to it. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• There is no Parliamentary forum on Socially and Economically Backward Classes (SEBC). Currently there are eight Parliamentary forums in India which includes, apart from the forums mentioned in the options: Parliamentary Forum on Youth, Parliamentary Forum on Children, Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management, Parliamentary Forum on Artisans and Crafts-people and Parliamentary Forum on Millennium Development Goals. Hence Option 2 is incorrect.
• The Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was the first parliamentary forum created in India. It was constituted by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 2005. One of the functions of this forum is to identify problems relating to water and make recommendations for consideration and appropriate action by the department concerned. Hence Option 3 is correct.

The Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change was constituted in 2008 and one of the functions of this forum is to identify problems relating to global warming and climate change and make recommendations for consideration and appropriate action by the Government. Hence Option 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Governor is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts, during his term of office. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, civil proceedings can be instituted against the Governor during his term of office in respect of his personal acts, after giving two months’ notice. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The oath of office of the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court. In the absence of him, the senior most judge of that court who is available. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Constitution provides for both the abolition and creation of legislative councils in states. Accordingly, as per Article 169 of the constitution, the Parliament can both abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) and create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The Act of Parliament of creation or abolition of the council is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary piece of legislation (i.e., by simple majority). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

The resolution for the creation of the council has to be passed in the state assembly by a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• It is true that the Speaker of the legislative assembly decides whether a bill is a money bill or not. He/she certifies the bill as money bill. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The Governor prorogues (termination of the session) the house. He can do so after the Speaker declares adjourned sine die (terminating a sitting of the state legislature for an indefinite period). However, the Governor can also prorogue the house even when it is in session which means the Speaker’s declaration of termination of sitting (adjourned sine die) is not necessary for prorogation of sitting by the Governor. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

It is true that the Speaker is the final deciding authority on matters related to defection. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Privileges of a state legislature are a sum of special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the State legislatures and its members. No member of state legislature can be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such a session. However, this privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• They have freedom of speech in legislature. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in state legislature or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

It is true that members of the state legislature can refuse to appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session. Members of state legislatures are given such privileges to carry out their constitutional duty without any interference. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Article 163 provides for the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions. It says that “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.” Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 added provisions to Article 164 regarding maximum and minimum strength of the Council of Ministers. It states that the total number of Ministers (including the Chief Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Assembly. It also states that the total number of Ministers (including the Chief Minister) should not be less than 12. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Article 163 expressly provides that the advice tendered by the Ministers to the Governor shall not be questioned in any court. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Under Article 174, a governor shall summon the House at a time and place, as she or he thinks fit. The Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebia case, had expressly stated that a “Governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the House, only on the aid and advice of the council of ministers”. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Under Article 164, the Chief Minister (CM) is appointed by the Governor; and the other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the CM’s advice. The Governor of an Indian State cannot remove a Minister on his own without the advice of the chief minister. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state if the President receives a report from the state’s Governor. This is a Constitutional discretion given to the Governor of the state. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Article 200 gives power to the Governor to give assent, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly. Thus, the reservation of a bill for the President’s consideration by the Governor can be done without the aid and advice of the council of ministers. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

A Governor is appointed for a five-year term commencing on the day he enters office. This five-year tenure, however, is subject to the President’s pleasure. The Constitution does not specify any grounds for the President to remove a governor. The President has the authority to transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another for the remainder of the term. Furthermore, a Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same or another state. Hence Option d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Chief Minister o
• f a State acts as a vice-chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Union home minister is the chairman of all the zonal councils. Hence Statement a is correct.
• Civil Services Board (CSB) is responsible for transfers and postings of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers in the state. The CSB is headed by the Chief Secretary of a state and has senior most additional chief secretary or chairman, Board of Revenue, Financial Commissioner or an officer of equivalent rank and status as member. The Chief Minister is not a member of the Civil Services Board. Hence Statement b is incorrect.
• The Chief Minister of a state is a member of the Inter-State Council, which is headed by the Prime Minister of India. The Inter-State Council facilitates coordination between the Union and the states on matters of common interest. Hence Statement c is correct.

The Chief Minister plays an important role in managing crises and emergencies within the state and acts as a crisis manager-in-chief at the political level during emergencies. Hence Statement d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Chief Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the state government. The appointment of the Chief Secretary of a state is the exclusive preserve of the chief minister. The CS appointment is essentially a transfer order issued by the General Administration Department of the state government in the name of the Governor, but it can be effectively done only after the chief minister has made her choice.   Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The office of Chief Secretary has been excluded from the operation of the tenure system. There is no fixed tenure for this post. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Chief Secretary is the ex-officio head of the state Civil Services Board, the State Secretariat, the state cadre Indian Administrative Service. The Chief Secretary acts as the principal advisor to the chief minister on all matters of state administration. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• To be qualified for elections as a member of Lok Sabha is not a criterion for the Governor of a state. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Governor should be a citizen of India for his appointment. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The Governor should have completed 35 years of age. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• A Minister of the state has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of any legislative committees of which he/she is named a member. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Although Ministers have the right to speak and take part in proceedings of a house, of which he/she is not a member. However, the Minister has the right to vote only in the house in which he/she is a member. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

It is true that only ministers can introduce money bills in the State Legislative Assembly. Bills introduced by Ministers are called Government bills. While members of legislative assembly who are not ministers are allowed to introduce ordinary bills (other than money bills) and they cannot introduce money bills. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Article 164 deals with the appointment of a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in certain states. Presently, the Governor needs to appoint such Minister in the four states. These are Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. Originally, this provision was applicable to Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. The 94th Amendment Act freed Bihar from this obligation because there are no Scheduled areas in Bihar now. This Amendment Act, however, extended to the newly formed states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. Hence Only Options 3, 4, 5 and 6 are correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months. Within this time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. This has been done in a number of cases. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

According to the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two houses of a state legislature. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

• The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed, and he holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, this does not mean that the governor can dismiss him at any time. He cannot be dismissed by the governor as long as he enjoys the majority support in the legislative assembly. But, if he loses the confidence of the assembly, he must resign or the governor can dismiss him. Hence Statement I is incorrect.
• Article 164 of the Constitution says the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the Chief Minister’s advice. It also adds that “the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor”. Hence Statement II is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• Article 217 of Indian Constitution deals with appointment of judges of High Court by President in consultation with Chief Justice of India and governor of the state.  In case of common high courts of two or more states the Governors of all states are consulted by President.   Hence Statement 1 is correct.
•  When a Money Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the President cannot return a money bill for the reconsideration of the state legislature. He can either give his assent to the bill or may withhold his assent to the bill.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribe in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which is dealt in Sixth Schedule of the constitution. The President can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

The President can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial or military court while the Governor do not possess any such power.  Hence Statement 4 is correct.   

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

• The Governor is the chief executive head of the state. But, like the President, he is a nominal executive head. He is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The Supreme Court in 1979 held that the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Governor decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission of India. Hence Statement a is correct.
• He is consulted by the President (Not Chief Justice of High Court) while appointing the judges of the concerned state’s High Court. Hence Statement b is incorrect.
• The Governor appoints the advocate general of a state and determines his remuneration. The advocate general holds office during the pleasure of the governor. Hence Statement c is incorrect.

The Governor of the state is the ex-officio chancellor (not vice-chancellor) of the State universities. Hence Statement d is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change has constituted a team to investigate the death of ten elephants in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about WCCB.

Explanation:

• Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. It was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It advises the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws. It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Bureau has its headquarter in New Delhi and five regional offices at Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai and Bhopal; three sub-regional offices at Guwahati, Amritsar and Cochin; and five border units at Ramanathapuram, Gorakhpur, Motihari, Nathula and Moreh. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, the Principal Chief Conservator of Forests (Wildlife) said that the deaths of elephants in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve could have been caused by “mycotoxins associated with kodo millet”. So, UPSC can ask a question about kodo millet.

Explanation:

• Kodo millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum) is also known as Kodra and Varagu in India. It is one of the “hardiest crops, drought tolerant with high yield potential and excellent storage properties,” It is rich in vitamins and minerals. It is a staple food for many tribal and economically weaker sections in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The tropical and subtropical regions are best suited for Kodo millet cultivation. It is grown on poor soils, and widely distributed in arid and semi-arid regions. The millet is believed to have originated in India and Madhya Pradesh is one of the largest producers of the crop, according to a 2020 research paper. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• According to the research paper, “CPA (Cyclopiazonic acid) is one of the major mycotoxins associated with the kodo millet seeds causing kodo poisoning which was first recognised during the mid-eighties”. Kodo poisoning mainly affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems and the chief symptoms include “vomiting, giddiness, and unconsciousness, small and rapid pulse, cold extremities, shaking of limbs and tremors.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation has launched its first analogue space mission in Leh, marking a significant milestone in the country’s space exploration efforts. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the mission.

Explanation:

• The Analogue space missions are simulated missions conducted on Earth that mimic the conditions and challenges of actual space exploration. These missions are crucial for testing technologies, studying human behaviour, and preparing for future long-duration space flights. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has started the country’s first analogue space mission at Leh in Ladakh, where space agency will simulate life in an interplanetary habitat. The move assumes significance as India is planning to send a human to the Moon in the near future. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Bibek Debroy, chairman of Prime Minister’s economic advisory council (EAC-PM) and a top economist, passed away recently. In this context, EAC-PM as a body becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister. It addresses issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister. These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The role of EAC-PM is advisory in nature and not binding on the Government. In addition to its advisory role, the EAC-PM also plays an important role in fostering greater economic understanding and awareness among the public. The council regularly interacts with stakeholders and the public and communicates its findings and recommendations through reports, presentations, and public events. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, Indian Army contingent comprising 25 personnel departed for Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia to take part in the Exercise GARUDA SHAKTI 2024. In this context, this exercise becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Exercise Garud Shakti 2024 is the 9th edition of India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces exercise. The aim of Exercise is to acquaint both the sides with each other’s operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of both armies. It is designed to develop bilateral military cooperation and strengthen bond between two armies through conduct of discussions and rehearsal of tactical military drills. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• North Korea recently declared that it successfully test-fired its latest intercontinental ballistic missile, the Hwasong-19. In this context, basic details about the missile can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Hwasong-19 is a North Korean intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM). As the latest addition to the Hwasong series, the Hwasong-19 incorporates solid-fuel propulsion, which allows it to be deployed more rapidly than liquid-fuelled missiles, making it harder to detect and intercept. It is estimated to be at least 28 meters long (92 feet), while advanced U.S. and Russian ICBMs are less than 20 meters long (66 feet). Analysts estimate that if launched on a standard trajectory, the Hwasong-19 could cover distances exceeding 13,000 kilometers, enough to target the U.S. mainland. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has launched the “First in the World Challenge” initiative, aiming to foster groundbreaking innovations in the health sector. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the initiative.

Explanation:

• The “First in the World Challenge” initiative aims to foster novel, out-of-the box, futuristic ideas, new knowledge generation, discovery/development of breakthrough health technologies (vaccines, drugs/therapeutics, diagnostics, interventions, etc.) that have never been thought of, tested, or tried in the world till date. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

This initiative was launched by Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and it provides funding for projects at various stages, from proof-of-concept to prototype and final product development. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) faculty and staff appealed to the education minister regarding delays in implementing 7th Central Pay Commission pay scales.  In this context, a question about the institution can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in the year 1969 by the Government of India to promote and fund research in the social sciences in the country. It was established on the recommendation of Prof. V. K. R. V. Rao Committee. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is an autonomous organisation working under the aegis of the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education. It provides grants for projects, fellowships, international collaboration, capacity building, surveys, publications, etc. to promote research in social sciences in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• India is committed to the Sendai Framework for disaster risk reduction, the Prime Minister’s Principal Secretary said recently, while calling for increased international collaboration to enhance disaster resilience. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the framework.

Explanation:

• The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda and provides member states with concrete actions to protect development gains from the risk of disaster. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It was adopted by the UN member states at the Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction in Sendai, Japan, on March 18, 2015. It is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• It recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk, but that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders, including local government, the private sector, and other stakeholders. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

Note: The question is about invalid assumptions. 

Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given statement is not correct because it is an extreme one. The passage does not imply that it is not possible to live a simple life. The line “In an era dominated by technology, the pursuit of a simple life is both elusive and challenging (but not impossible)”. So, this is an incorrect assumption. 

Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the lines “Simplicity in the digital age involves mindful tech use, fostering genuine human connections, … benefits of technology without succumbing to the overwhelming complexities it can introduce in the quest for a simpler life.” Hence, this assumption is correct. 

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions that issues or violations of the moral code are happening because of the lack of legal sanctity. The passage is about enforcement and its effectiveness. Also, whether effectiveness will increase by making it legal has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, this inference is not correct. 

Inference 2 is incorrect: The passage does not state that moral code is regularly violated, or that this situation is worsening day by day. Moreover, the passage talks about political ethics in the parties and not the rule of law. Rule of law is different from moral code. So, this inference is not correct.  

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

The total number of girls who attended Bengali and Geography = {800 × (16/100) × (7/16)} + {800 × (23/100) × (5/8)} = 56 + 115 = 171 

The total number of boys who attended Hindi and Biology = {800 × (22/100) × (1/4)} + {800 × (25/100) × (3/10)} = 44 + 60 = 104 

Required difference = 171 – 104 = 67 

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

Total employees (i.e. Sample space), n(S) = 340 

Total graduate employees = 85 

Now, total employees who are not graduate, n(E) = 340 – 85 = 255 

So, probability of selecting an employee who is not a graduate, P(not graduate) = n(E)/n(S) = 255/340 = 

0.75 

Hence, option (a) is the right answer.

Solution (b)  

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is invalid. As per the passage, children under 5 make up only 9 per cent of the world’s population, but they account for almost 40 per cent of foodborne diseases and 30 per cent of related deaths. So, it would not be correct to say that burden of foodborne disease is evenly distributed across age groups.  

Assumption 2 is valid. The given assumption is correct because it validates the information given in lines “This global burden of foodborne disease is unequally distributed. Relative to their population, low- and middle-income countries in South Asia, Southeast Asia, and sub-Saharan Africa bear a proportionately high burden” and “Unsafe food threatens young children the most.” So, the agencies must focus on children from low and middle-income countries because those are the most vulnerable. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the passage.