[DAY 50] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 243 K & Article 243 ZA were inserted to establish a State Election Commission in every state as a constitutional body with powers of ‘superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task was per formed by the State administration which was under the control of the State government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commissioner of India. The State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the State government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. This Commission examines the financial position of the local governments in the State. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

•  Article 243-I and 243-Y have a provision that the State Finance Commission shall recommend the principles governing the distribution between the state and the panchayats and the municipalities of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them. The Commission shall also recommend about the grants to the Panchayats and Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State and measures to improve the financial position of these local bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The recommendations of State Finance Commission are not binding on the state government. However, the Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under Article 243-I and 243-Y together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the legislature of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• A party is recognised as a ‘national’ or ‘state’ party under the provisions of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (Symbols Order) by the Election Commission of India (ECI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Symbols are allotted to political parties and contesting candidates as per the provisions of the Symbols Order by ECI. In the largest democracy where a sizeable population is still illiterate, symbols play a crucial role in the voting process. A recognised political party has a reserved symbol that is not allotted to any other candidate in any constituency. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• For registered but unrecognised political parties, one of the free symbols is allotted as a common symbol during an election if that party contests in two Lok Sabha constituencies or in 5% of seats to the Assembly of a State as the case may be. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 76 of the constitution mentions that the Attorney General is the highest law officer of India and he is appointed by the president. As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• • Some of the major powers and functions of the Election Commission are as follows:
    • To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
    • To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters.
    • To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise nomination papers.
    • To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.
    • To advise the president on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
    • To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.

• To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• • There is no national language of India. The Constituent Assembly was bitterly divided on the question, with members from States that did not speak Hindi initially opposing the declaration of Hindi as a national language. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Under Article 343 of the Constitution, the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. The international form of Indian numerals will be used for official purposes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• • The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established in 1993 based on the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is composed of a former chief justice of the Supreme Court of India, a former judge of the Supreme Court, a former chief justice of a High Court and two other members who have knowledge and practical experience in matters relating to human rights. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Commission’s functions include inquiry at its own initiative or on a petition presented to it by a victim into complaint of violation of human rights; visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates; undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights, etc. But the Commission does not have the power of prosecution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The National Human Rights Commission can merely make recommendations to the government or recommend to the courts to initiate proceedings based on the inquiry that it conducts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body as it is established under the Article 280. It provides for the scheme of distribution of net tax proceeds collected by the Union government between the Centre and the States. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Finance Commission is constituted every five years and is a body that is exclusively constituted by the Union Government. It consists of a chairman and four other members who are appointed by the President. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, has specified the qualifications for chairman and other members of the commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The share of States from the divisible pool (vertical devolution) stands at 41% as per the recommendation of the 15th Finance Commission. The Union government has notified the constitution of the 16th Finance Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya for making its recommendations for the period of 2026-31. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the Constitution. It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit. The Central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the SCs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• CAG is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• CAG holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The CAG submits three audit reports to the President–audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings. The President lays these reports before both the Houses of Parliament. After this, the Public Accounts Committee examines them and reports its findings to the Parliament. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Central Information Commission falls under Ministry of Personnel. Finance Commission falls under Ministry of Finance. National Commission for Women falls under Ministry of Women and Child Development. And, National Human Rights Commission falls under Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It plays an important role in the prevention of corruption and maintaining integrity in administration. It investigates crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar to those of a member of UPSC. But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The first backward classes commission was appointed in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar. The second Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1979 with B.P. Mandal as chairman. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The concept of creamy layer was originally introduced in the context of reservation of jobs for certain groups in Indra Sawhney & Others v. Union of India case in 1992. Ram Nandan committee was constituted by the government to identify creamy layer among OBCs in 1993. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Described as the “most important officer in the Constitution of India” by Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. CAG of India or the “Guardian of the Public Purse” is essentially vested with the responsibility of inspecting and auditing all the expenditure and receipts of both the Central and the State Governments as well as of those organizations or bodies which are significantly funded by the government. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

 Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege. Statement 1 is incorrect

The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. Statement 2 is incorrect

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

Strength of ECI is not specified in the Constitution, it is at the discretion of the President. Currently, there are 3 Members. Statement 1 is Incorrect.

The most important function of the commission is to decide the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. Statement 2 is Incorrect.

It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Statement 3 is Correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

NDC comprises the Prime Minister, all the Union Cabinet Ministers, the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories and the Members of the Planning Commission. It does not include the chairman of the Finance Commission. Hence option (b) is correct

Solution (d)

Context:

• According to recent study, seagrass has been declining at a rate of 1-2 per cent per year for the past century and nearly 5 percent of species are now endangered. In this context, a question about seagrass can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Seagrass is a flowering plant that grows submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons. They are so-named because most species have long green, grass-like leaves. Like terrestrial plants, seagrass also photosynthesizes and manufactures their own food and releases oxygen. They evolved around 100 million years ago, and there are approximately 72 different seagrass species that belong to four major groups. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

They are found on all continents except Antarctica. The tropical waters of the Indo-Pacific hold the highest diversity of seagrasses in the world. India too has vast seagrass meadows, home to 16 species of seagrass with major concentrations in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep Islands and the Gulf of Kutch. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• A recent six-day survey conducted on the escalating human-wildlife conflict (HWC) in the Majuli River Island district of Assam sparks concern. In this context, a question about the island can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Often called the soul of Assam, Majuli is the world’s largest river island. It lies at the heart of Assam, spreading over an area of 421 sq. km. The island is formed by the Brahmaputra River in the south and the Kherkutia Xuti, an anabranch of the Brahmaputra, joined by the Subansiri River in the north. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

In 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India. The island’s landscape is characterised by lush greenery, water bodies, and paddy fields. The island has also been the hub of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture, initiated around the 16th century by the great Assamese saint-reformer Srimanta Sankerdeva and his disciple Madhavdeva. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The UN’s World Food Programme (WFP) is closing its southern Africa office in the wake of the Trump administration’s aid cuts. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the World Food Programme.

Explanation:

World Food Programme is a branch of the United Nations that deals with hunger eradication and promotes food security in the world. It has been functioning in India since 1963. It is operating in more than 120 countries, which provides food assistance during emergencies and works with communities to enhance nutrition and generate resilience. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Pakistan has discovered vast gold reserves worth approximately Rs 80,000 crore in the Indus River bed, potentially boosting the country’s struggling economy. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the Indus River.

Explanation:

• The Indus River is one of the longest rivers in Asia. It rises from Mansarovar in Tibet at an elevation of about 5182 m and flows for about 2880 km up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea. The length of the river in India is 800.75 km. Its principal tributaries are the Sutlej, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

It flows through China, India, and Pakistan, serving as a vital water source for agriculture, hydropower, and human consumption. Its drainage area in India is 321289 sq. km. which is nearly 9.8% of the total geographical area of the country. It is bounded on the north by the Karakoram and Haramosh ranges, on the east by the Himalayas, on the west by the Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges and on the south by the Arabian Sea. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Beneath Antarctica’s Mount Erebus, a hidden world of volcanic ice caves harbors thriving microbial life, offering a glimpse into how life could exist on alien worlds. In this context, a question about it can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Mount Erebus is the world’s southernmost active volcano. It has been continuously active since 1972. Most eruptions are small and Strombolian in character, tossing bombs onto the crater rim. The largest Antarctic settlement—McMurdo Station, operated by the United States—stands within sight of the volcano (about 40 kilometers or 25 miles away). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It is located on the western half of Ross Island, off the coast of Antarctica in the Ross Sea. It is a glaciated intraplate stratovolcano, part of the Ring of Fire that encircles the Pacific Ocean basin. It was discovered in 1841 by the British explorer Sir James Clark Ross, who named it after his ship, the Erebus. Its summit is 12,448 feet (3,794 meters) above sea level, making it the second tallest volcano in Antarctica, after Mount Sidley. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Russia is launching repeated “suicidal” assaults to cross the Dnieper River in Kherson, despite heavy casualties, as part of a strategy to seize more territory before potential peace talks. In this context, the river becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Dnieper River is one of the major transboundary rivers of Europe. It originates in Russia, in the low Valday Hills west of Moscow. It runs a total length of 1,368 miles through western Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea. Approximately 300 miles of the waterway is located in Russia, 430 miles are in Belarus, and 680 miles are within Ukraine. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is the fourth-longest river in Europe (after the Volga, the Danube, and the Ural). Located in Eastern Europe, the Dnieper River and its many tributaries drain much of Belarus and Ukraine. Historically, the river was an important barrier dividing Ukraine into right and left banks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, an Ongole cow named Viatina-19 was sold for a record-breaking 4.38 million USD (approximately INR 40 crore) in Brazil’s Minas Gerais. In this context, a question about the cow can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Viatina-19 is a Nelore breed cow (Ongole cattle), renowned for its exceptional genetic qualities. The Nelore breed, originating from India and now prevalent in Brazil, is prized for its adaptability and meat quality. They are known for their unique genetic traits, including exceptional physical strength, heat resistance, and superior muscular structure. These qualities make them highly desirable for dairy. The Nelore breed is well known for its ability to adapt to tropical climates and disease resistance. Due to this, Viatina-19’s embryos are in high demand globally for breeding programs. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The Maharashtra government disbursed ₹17,500 crore to 2.38 crore women under the Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana till December 2024, stated the Economic Survey tabled in the State Assembly. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the scheme.

Explanation:

• The Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana, commonly referred to as the Ladki Bahin Yojana, is a key welfare program introduced by the Maharashtra government in 2024. It aims to provide financial support to economically disadvantaged women aged 21 to 65, promoting their rehabilitation, economic development, and empowerment. Under this scheme, eligible women will receive Rs 1,500 per month through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Brahmastra Missile is a Long Range Anti-Ship Missile (LRAShM). It was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It outperforms similar missiles like China’s DF-17 in terms of range and technology. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With a range of 1,500 km, this missile can obliterate an enemy ship or warship within 7 to 8 minutes of being launched. It can be deployed from both land and sea, offering versatility in combat scenarios. This missile operates at 10 Mach, making it 10 times faster than the speed of sound. This allows it to travel 3.37 km in just one second. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the global scientific authority on the state of knowledge and challenges from global warming, has begun work on its seventh cycle of assessment report. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about IPCC.

Explanation:

• The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. It was established by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 1988. The IPCC is an organisation of governments that are members of the United Nations or the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). The IPCC currently has 195 members. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The IPCC does not undertake new research or monitor climate-related data. Instead, it conducts assessments of the state of climate change knowledge on the basis of published and peer-reviewed scientific and technical literature. Scientists volunteer their time to assess the thousands of scientific papers published each year to provide a comprehensive summary of what is known about the drivers of climate change, impacts and future risks, and how adaptation and mitigation can reduce those risks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect. The author tries to convey the loss of wealth sooner than expected because of lack of financial awareness among people, as stated in the passage, “…A major reason for this is a lack of financial awareness. They tend to spend uncontrollably…” Thus, the author does not suggest that wealth can never stay in one hand, rather, it gets lost because of improper spending.

Option (b) is incorrect. The author does agree and also mentions a survey showing that most American lottery winners soon become poor. It is evident from the line, “A survey conducted shows that most American lottery winners have become poor soon (typically within two or three years) after the sudden spike in their wealth. However, the author does not suggest against taking part in the lottery per se. His focus is on efficient management of wealth gained in the lottery, and not on analysing lottery itself. Also, we cannot say that money earned from lottery is ‘inevitably lost’, as the passage mentions that, “…most American lottery winners have become poor soon…”, not all. Hence, this answer option is incorrect. 

Option (c) is incorrect. The author has reflected on some improper spending which includes luxury cars as mentioned in the passage, “…depreciating assets such as luxury cars which not only require huge spending when purchased but also attract higher tax obligations and exorbitant maintenance charges”. However, the mention of luxury cars is just an example to explain the consequences of lack of financial awareness. There is no suggestion to not buy luxury cars. The author would most likely have no issue with a financially aware person buying luxury cars. Thus, the statement in option (c) is not the critical message of the passage. 

Option (d) is correct. Statement (d) perfectly captures the critical message given in the passage. At the start of the passage, the author seems to describe the gain of wealth and becoming rich but not being able to retain the wealth. It is evident from the line, “A survey conducted shows that most American lottery winners have become poor soon (typically within two or three years) after the sudden spike in their wealth.” Further, the author explains the human tendency to spend on luxurious goods and lack of financial awareness to spend wisely, as stated in the passage, “A major reason for this is a lack of financial awareness. They tend to spend uncontrollably on unnecessary lavish lifestyles and depreciating assets…”.

Solution (b)

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect. Though the author considers childhood envy to be common, like Duryodhana’s being jealous of Bhima’s physical strength, however, the author is of the opinion, that action must be taken by parents to curb the envy and jealousy, as stated in the passage, “Childhood envy is common and it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life.” Thus, the statement in option (a) is not the correct suggestion of the author. 

Option (b) is correct. The author shows how Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it. He did not set his son on the right track. As a result, Duryodhana nurtured his jealousy over the years, until it led to an unconquerable rage against Bhima.” Thus, this was the result of the non-curbing of envy by Dhritarashtra. According to the author, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life”.  

Option (c) is incorrect. The author is not of the opinion that Dhritarashtra took efforts to correct Duryodhana, as mentioned in the passage, “Dhritarashtra knew of Duryodhana’s ill-feeling towards the Pandavas and particularly towards Bhima. But he did nothing about it.” Thus, the statement in option (c) is in direct contrast to what is stated in the passage.

 Option (d) is incorrect. According to the author, it is the parents’ duty to curb envy among children and teach them good attitude, “…it is the duty of a parent to advise his child about the dangers of jealousy and to help the child acquire a healthy attitude towards life…” The author doesn’t suggest Bhima himself should have taken steps to solve the issue of jealousy between Duryodhana and him. Thus, the statement in option (d) is not in resonance with what is mentioned in the passage.

Solution (c)

Explanation

Let average of 19 innings be X 

Total of 19 innings = 19X 

Total of 20 innings = 19X + 205  

As given, (19X + 205)/20 = X + 7.5  

or 19X + 205 = 20X + 150 

or X = 55

 Solution (a)

Explanation

Let the amount of money earned by a man and a woman in 1 day be „a‟ and „b‟ respectively, 

Then, 3 × (5a + 5b) = 660 

⇒ 5a + 5b = 220 

⇒ a + b = 44       ———–(1) 

Now, 5 × (10a + 20b) = 3500 

⇒ 10a + 20b = 700 ⇒ a + 2b = 70      ————(2) 

Solving equations 1 & 2, we get: 

b = 26 and a = 18

Required number of days = 1060/(6 × 18 + 4 ×26) = 1060/212 = 5 days 

Hence, 6 men and 4 women can earn 1060 rupees in 5 days.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

 Solution (d)

Explanation

Let the prices of the four varities of pens in ascending order be a, b, c and d respectively. 

Average price of the cheaper three varities = Rs. 20 

So, (a + b + c)/3 = 20 

Or a + b + c = 60   …..(1) 

Average price of the dearer three varities = Rs. 25. 

So, (b + c + d)/3  = 25. 

Or b + c + d = 75   …..(2)

Subtracting (1) from (2) we get,  

d – a = 15. 

It is given in the question that the cost of the costliest pen (i.e. d) is Rs. 30. 

Hence, a = 15. 

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.