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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matters-
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matters-
Which among the following is not provided for by the Constitution of India?
Choose the correct code:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
| The Zero Hour is neither mentioned in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of Procedure. | Quorum is provided under Article 100 of the Constitution of India. | Prorogation is provided under Article 85 of the Constitution of India. | Calling Attention Motion is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, unlike the Zero Hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. |
Note:
Zero Hour:
Quorum:
Prorogation:
Calling Attention Motion:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
| The Zero Hour is neither mentioned in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of Procedure. | Quorum is provided under Article 100 of the Constitution of India. | Prorogation is provided under Article 85 of the Constitution of India. | Calling Attention Motion is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, unlike the Zero Hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. |
Note:
Zero Hour:
Quorum:
Prorogation:
Calling Attention Motion:
Consider the following statements regarding Motions:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election Commissioner. | Substitute Motion is a motion that is moved in substitution of an original motion and proposes an alternative to it. | Subsidiary Motion is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House. |
Note:
Different Categories of Motions:
All motions received in the Lok Sabha Secretariat under the rules shall be classified under the following categories:
A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House, e.g., all resolutions are substantive motions.
Motions moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter are called substitute motions
They depend upon or relate to other motions or follow upon some proceedings in the House. They by themselves have no meaning and are not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.
Subsidiary Motions are further divided into three classes-
They are motions that are recognized by the practice of the House as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business. The following are the examples of ancillary motions, namely:
They are motions which, though independent in form, are moved in the course of the debate on another question and seek to supersede that question. In that class all the dilatory motions fall. The following motions are superseding motions in relation to the motion for taking into consideration a Bill:
They are subsidiary motions that interpose a new process of question and decision between the main question and its decision. Amendments may be to the clause of a Bill, to a resolution or to a motion, or to an amendment to a clause of a Bill, resolution or motion.
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election Commissioner. | Substitute Motion is a motion that is moved in substitution of an original motion and proposes an alternative to it. | Subsidiary Motion is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House. |
Note:
Different Categories of Motions:
All motions received in the Lok Sabha Secretariat under the rules shall be classified under the following categories:
A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House, e.g., all resolutions are substantive motions.
Motions moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter are called substitute motions
They depend upon or relate to other motions or follow upon some proceedings in the House. They by themselves have no meaning and are not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.
Subsidiary Motions are further divided into three classes-
They are motions that are recognized by the practice of the House as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business. The following are the examples of ancillary motions, namely:
They are motions which, though independent in form, are moved in the course of the debate on another question and seek to supersede that question. In that class all the dilatory motions fall. The following motions are superseding motions in relation to the motion for taking into consideration a Bill:
They are subsidiary motions that interpose a new process of question and decision between the main question and its decision. Amendments may be to the clause of a Bill, to a resolution or to a motion, or to an amendment to a clause of a Bill, resolution or motion.
Consider the following statements related to the Parliament
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Parliament must be convened by the President at least once in every six months. | The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law. The decision of the Committee is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session | The time allocated for discussing Bills is determined by the Business Advisory Committee, consisting of members from both the ruling and opposition parties. |
Note:
Sessions of Parliament:
Budget Session:
Monsoon Session:
Winter Session:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Parliament must be convened by the President at least once in every six months. | The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law. The decision of the Committee is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session | The time allocated for discussing Bills is determined by the Business Advisory Committee, consisting of members from both the ruling and opposition parties. |
Note:
Sessions of Parliament:
Budget Session:
Monsoon Session:
Winter Session:
Consider the following statements regarding Speaker Pro-Tem?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| Speaker pro-tem presides over the first sitting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha not over Lame-Duck Session. | He is appointed by the President of India. | Usually, the senior most member is selected as Speaker Pro-Tem. The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro-Tem.
It is not a constitutional provision. |
Speaker pro-term:
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| Speaker pro-tem presides over the first sitting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha not over Lame-Duck Session. | He is appointed by the President of India. | Usually, the senior most member is selected as Speaker Pro-Tem. The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro-Tem.
It is not a constitutional provision. |
Speaker pro-term:
Which of the following may be recognized as the leader of the opposition in the Parliament?
Solution (a)
Leader of Opposition:
Solution (a)
Leader of Opposition:
Consider the following statements regarding Lame-duck session:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| It is conducted after election of new members but before they are installed. | It refers to a session in which members participated for last time because of failure to re-election in Lok Sabha. | It does not require minimum number of members whose presence is essential to transact the business of the House. |
Lame-duck session:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| It is conducted after election of new members but before they are installed. | It refers to a session in which members participated for last time because of failure to re-election in Lok Sabha. | It does not require minimum number of members whose presence is essential to transact the business of the House. |
Lame-duck session:
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law:
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| There is no fixed timeline in which the Speaker has to decide on the disqualification of the members. | Article 361 B: A member of a House, belonging to any political party, who is disqualified for being a member of the House under paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule, shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post for the duration of the period commencing from the date of his disqualification, till the date on which the term of his office as such member would expire, or till the date on which he contests an election to a House and is declared elected, whichever is earlier. | Disqualification from being a member of the House is not allowed under the Anti-Defection Law. The defected members can be re-elected to the House. | In the Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil vs the Speaker of Karnataka Assembly Case, the Supreme Court observed that the Speaker can disqualify a member of the House, who has resigned from the House with the intention of defecting from whips directions. |
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| There is no fixed timeline in which the Speaker has to decide on the disqualification of the members. | Article 361 B: A member of a House, belonging to any political party, who is disqualified for being a member of the House under paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule, shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post for the duration of the period commencing from the date of his disqualification, till the date on which the term of his office as such member would expire, or till the date on which he contests an election to a House and is declared elected, whichever is earlier. | Disqualification from being a member of the House is not allowed under the Anti-Defection Law. The defected members can be re-elected to the House. | In the Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil vs the Speaker of Karnataka Assembly Case, the Supreme Court observed that the Speaker can disqualify a member of the House, who has resigned from the House with the intention of defecting from whips directions. |
A member of parliament who is not a minister wishes to introduce a bill on an issue of national interest in the Lok Sabha. Which of the following criteria must be fulfilled by the member to introduce such a bill?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Non minister MP can introduce private bill where that MP can be from any party and not necessarily from opposition party. | Notice period for introduction of the private bill before the house should be a minimum of one month notice to examine its compliance with rules of house and constitutional provisions. | Private bill is introduced only on Friday, a popular convention of Indian parliamentary form of government, while government bill can be introduced on any day. | The nature of bill, whether ordinary or money bill, decides the need by the MP to get prior recommendation of the president. The type of bill, whether private or government bill, doesn’t decide the need to get president approval. |
Note:
PRIVATE MEMBER’S BILL:
| GOVERNMENT BILL | PRIVATE BILL |
| It is introduced in the parliament by a minister. | It is introduced in the parliament by non-minister MP. |
| It reflects the policy of the government or the ruling majority party. | It reflects the political mood of an important public matter. |
| It has greater chance to be passed as the minister will be with the majority support of the ruling party. | It is less likely to be passed by the parliament. |
| Its introduction in the house requires 7 days’ notice period only. | Introduction of the private bill before the house should be a minimum of one month notice to examine its compliance with rules of house and constitutional provisions. |
| It is drafted with the assistance from ministry of law and attorney general. | Drafting of the bill is the sole responsibility and concern of the non-minister MP. |
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Non minister MP can introduce private bill where that MP can be from any party and not necessarily from opposition party. | Notice period for introduction of the private bill before the house should be a minimum of one month notice to examine its compliance with rules of house and constitutional provisions. | Private bill is introduced only on Friday, a popular convention of Indian parliamentary form of government, while government bill can be introduced on any day. | The nature of bill, whether ordinary or money bill, decides the need by the MP to get prior recommendation of the president. The type of bill, whether private or government bill, doesn’t decide the need to get president approval. |
Note:
PRIVATE MEMBER’S BILL:
| GOVERNMENT BILL | PRIVATE BILL |
| It is introduced in the parliament by a minister. | It is introduced in the parliament by non-minister MP. |
| It reflects the policy of the government or the ruling majority party. | It reflects the political mood of an important public matter. |
| It has greater chance to be passed as the minister will be with the majority support of the ruling party. | It is less likely to be passed by the parliament. |
| Its introduction in the house requires 7 days’ notice period only. | Introduction of the private bill before the house should be a minimum of one month notice to examine its compliance with rules of house and constitutional provisions. |
| It is drafted with the assistance from ministry of law and attorney general. | Drafting of the bill is the sole responsibility and concern of the non-minister MP. |
Which of the following options are available to the Lok Sabha to prevent arbitrary functioning of the Union Executive?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Note:
No-Confidence Motion:
Motion of Thanks:
Censure Motion:
Adjournment Motion:
Solution (d)
Note:
No-Confidence Motion:
Motion of Thanks:
Censure Motion:
Adjournment Motion:
With reference to the Parliamentary Committees, consider the following statements about the Estimates Committee:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| Estimates committee compromises of 30 members all from Lok Sabha because only they can scrutinize the demand of grants of various ministries as a postmortem function in the late period of time. | Election procedure followed is proportional representation system by single transferable vote to choose members among themselves so that all sections of the house are represented. | Estimates committee is also known as postmortem committee as it reviews the demand of grants after they have been sanctioned to create deterrence among ministers for upholding policy standard. |
Note:
| FINANCIAL COMMITTEES | ||
| PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE | ESTIMATES COMMITTEE | COMMITTEE ON PUBLIC UNDERTAKING |
| Established in 1921 with inference from Government of India act 1919. | Instituted in 1951 based on John Mathai committee recommendations. | Established in 1964 under Krishna Menon committee recommendations which made public sector units accountable to the parliament. |
| Comprises of 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members. | Compromises of 30 members all from Lok Sabha. | It has 22 members with 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. |
| Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. | Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. | Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. |
| Ministers cannot be the members of these committees as the role and function of these three committees are to check the functioning, activities and accountability of the government. | ||
| Chairman of the public accounts committee, estimates committee and committee on public undertaking will be appointed by speaker of the Lok Sabha. | ||
| The tenure of all these three committees is confined to one year and are reconstituted at the start of the year. | ||
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| Estimates committee compromises of 30 members all from Lok Sabha because only they can scrutinize the demand of grants of various ministries as a postmortem function in the late period of time. | Election procedure followed is proportional representation system by single transferable vote to choose members among themselves so that all sections of the house are represented. | Estimates committee is also known as postmortem committee as it reviews the demand of grants after they have been sanctioned to create deterrence among ministers for upholding policy standard. |
Note:
| FINANCIAL COMMITTEES | ||
| PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE | ESTIMATES COMMITTEE | COMMITTEE ON PUBLIC UNDERTAKING |
| Established in 1921 with inference from Government of India act 1919. | Instituted in 1951 based on John Mathai committee recommendations. | Established in 1964 under Krishna Menon committee recommendations which made public sector units accountable to the parliament. |
| Comprises of 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members. | Compromises of 30 members all from Lok Sabha. | It has 22 members with 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. |
| Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. | Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. | Election procedure is proportional representation system by single transferable vote. |
| Ministers cannot be the members of these committees as the role and function of these three committees are to check the functioning, activities and accountability of the government. | ||
| Chairman of the public accounts committee, estimates committee and committee on public undertaking will be appointed by speaker of the Lok Sabha. | ||
| The tenure of all these three committees is confined to one year and are reconstituted at the start of the year. | ||
Consider the following statements regarding Statutory Grants:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. | These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year. | The statutory grants are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. |
Note:
Grants-in-Aid to the States:
Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid, viz, statutory grants and discretionary grants:
Statutory Grants:
Discretionary Grants:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. | These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year. | The statutory grants are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. |
Note:
Grants-in-Aid to the States:
Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid, viz, statutory grants and discretionary grants:
Statutory Grants:
Discretionary Grants:
Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Under the article 292, Government of India, can borrow outside India and by Article 112 any debt repayable by government of India is charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of India. | India is not a confederation of the state, wherein states can establish relationship with others countries autonomously. Under the Article 293, the state government extends to borrowing within the territory of India upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of state within such limits. |
Note:
| ARTICLE 292 | ARTICLE 293 |
| Executive power of the union extends to borrowing and regulated by the parliament.
E.g., FRBM Act. |
Executive power of the states extends to borrowing and regulated by the state legislative. |
| The central government can borrow from internal and external source.
E.g., Market borrowing, International Organisation loans |
The state legislative can borrow from only internal source. |
| It may from time to time be fixed by the parliament by law and to the giving of guarantee within such limits. | It may from time to time be fixed under any law made by parliament, make loans to any state shall not exceeded article 292, give guarantee in respect of loans raised by the state shall be charged on the Consolidated fund of India. |
| — | In some cases, state may not without consent of the government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan made to the state by the central government. |
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Under the article 292, Government of India, can borrow outside India and by Article 112 any debt repayable by government of India is charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of India. | India is not a confederation of the state, wherein states can establish relationship with others countries autonomously. Under the Article 293, the state government extends to borrowing within the territory of India upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of state within such limits. |
Note:
| ARTICLE 292 | ARTICLE 293 |
| Executive power of the union extends to borrowing and regulated by the parliament.
E.g., FRBM Act. |
Executive power of the states extends to borrowing and regulated by the state legislative. |
| The central government can borrow from internal and external source.
E.g., Market borrowing, International Organisation loans |
The state legislative can borrow from only internal source. |
| It may from time to time be fixed by the parliament by law and to the giving of guarantee within such limits. | It may from time to time be fixed under any law made by parliament, make loans to any state shall not exceeded article 292, give guarantee in respect of loans raised by the state shall be charged on the Consolidated fund of India. |
| — | In some cases, state may not without consent of the government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan made to the state by the central government. |
Consider the following statements regarding Type of Questions:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. | An Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by Minister.
Thus, it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary question can be asked thereon. |
Note:
Types of Questions:
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned.
The questions are of four types:
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. | An Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by Minister.
Thus, it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary question can be asked thereon. |
Note:
Types of Questions:
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned.
The questions are of four types:
Joint sitting can be summoned for which of the following reasons?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
JOINT SITTING OF TWO HOUSES:
Solution (b)
JOINT SITTING OF TWO HOUSES:
In the context of the enactment of the Budget, the Constitution of India contains which of the following provisions?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| No demand for grants shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Demands for grants are presented to the Parliament along with the budget. These demands for grants show that the estimates of the expenditure for various departments and they need to be voted by the Parliament. |
After the demands for grants are voted by the parliament, the Appropriation Bill is introduced, considered and passed by the appropriation of the Parliament.
It provides the legal authority for withdrawal of funds of what is known as the Consolidated Fund of India. |
No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. |
Note:
Budget:
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| No demand for grants shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Demands for grants are presented to the Parliament along with the budget. These demands for grants show that the estimates of the expenditure for various departments and they need to be voted by the Parliament. |
After the demands for grants are voted by the parliament, the Appropriation Bill is introduced, considered and passed by the appropriation of the Parliament.
It provides the legal authority for withdrawal of funds of what is known as the Consolidated Fund of India. |
No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. |
Note:
Budget:
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| A Bill pending in the Council of States, which has not been passed by the House of the People, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the House of the People. | A Bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. | A Bill, which has been passed by the House of the People and is pending in the Council of States, shall lapse on the dissolution of the House of the People. |
Notes:
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| A Bill pending in the Council of States, which has not been passed by the House of the People, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the House of the People. | A Bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. | A Bill, which has been passed by the House of the People and is pending in the Council of States, shall lapse on the dissolution of the House of the People. |
Notes:
A parliamentary committee means a committee that-
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman | Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman | Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman | Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha |
Parliamentary Committees:
The Parliament is too unwieldy a body to deliberate effectively the issues that come up before it. The functions of the Parliament are varied, complex and voluminous. Moreover, it has neither the adequate time nor necessary expertise to make a detailed scrutiny of all legislative measures and other matters. Therefore, it is assisted by a number of committees in the discharge of its duties.
The Constitution of India makes a mention of these committees at different places, but without making any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc. All these matters are dealt by the rules of two Houses.
Accordingly, a parliamentary committee means a committee that:
The consultative committees, which also consist of members of Parliament, are not parliamentary committees as they do not fulfill above four conditions.
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman | Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman | Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman | Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha |
Parliamentary Committees:
The Parliament is too unwieldy a body to deliberate effectively the issues that come up before it. The functions of the Parliament are varied, complex and voluminous. Moreover, it has neither the adequate time nor necessary expertise to make a detailed scrutiny of all legislative measures and other matters. Therefore, it is assisted by a number of committees in the discharge of its duties.
The Constitution of India makes a mention of these committees at different places, but without making any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc. All these matters are dealt by the rules of two Houses.
Accordingly, a parliamentary committee means a committee that:
The consultative committees, which also consist of members of Parliament, are not parliamentary committees as they do not fulfill above four conditions.
A bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for-
Solution (b)
Money Bills:
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
However, a bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for:
Solution (b)
Money Bills:
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
However, a bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the President of all the Parliamentary Forums except the:
Solution (a)
Parliamentary Forums:
Solution (a)
Parliamentary Forums:
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about the Right to Information (Amendment) Act of 2019:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
The Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information.
The Right to Information (Amendment) Act of 2019:
Solution (a)
The Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information.
The Right to Information (Amendment) Act of 2019:
Consider the following statements about Baba Farid:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements about the activities under the “Meri Maati Mera Desh Campaign”:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Meri Maati Mera Desh Campaign aims to honour the brave freedom fighters and brave hearts who sacrificed their lives for the country. The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for this scheme.
The activities under the Meri Maati Mera Desh Campaign:
Solution (c)
Meri Maati Mera Desh Campaign aims to honour the brave freedom fighters and brave hearts who sacrificed their lives for the country. The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for this scheme.
The activities under the Meri Maati Mera Desh Campaign:
Consider the following statements about Venezuela:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)

Image source: WorldAtlas
Solution (c)

Image source: WorldAtlas
Consider the following statements about the NexCAR19:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Which of the following Indian cities are part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network?
Choose the correct code:
Solution (c)
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network was launched in 2004 and aims to promote cooperation among cities which recognized creativity as a major factor in their urban development. Recently, Gwalior and Kozhikode from India joined the 55 new cities which have been included in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
There are seven categories– Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, Music, and Crafts & Folk Art. With the latest additions, the UCCN now counts 350 cities in more than a hundred countries
Do You Know?: World Cities Day designated by the United Nations on October 31.
The newly designated Creative Cities are invited to participate in the 2024 UCCN Annual Conference (July 1-5, 2024) in Braga, Portugal, under the theme “Bringing Youth to the table for the next decade”
Indian cities that are part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network are:
| Cities | Category |
| Kozhikode | City of Literature |
| Gwalior | City of Music |
| Srinagar | Crafts and Folk Arts |
| Mumbai | Film |
| Hyderabad | Gastronomy |
| Chennai | City of Music |
| Jaipur | Crafts and Folk Arts |
| Varanasi | City of Music |
Hence option c is correct.
Solution (c)
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network was launched in 2004 and aims to promote cooperation among cities which recognized creativity as a major factor in their urban development. Recently, Gwalior and Kozhikode from India joined the 55 new cities which have been included in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
There are seven categories– Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, Music, and Crafts & Folk Art. With the latest additions, the UCCN now counts 350 cities in more than a hundred countries
Do You Know?: World Cities Day designated by the United Nations on October 31.
The newly designated Creative Cities are invited to participate in the 2024 UCCN Annual Conference (July 1-5, 2024) in Braga, Portugal, under the theme “Bringing Youth to the table for the next decade”
Indian cities that are part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network are:
| Cities | Category |
| Kozhikode | City of Literature |
| Gwalior | City of Music |
| Srinagar | Crafts and Folk Arts |
| Mumbai | Film |
| Hyderabad | Gastronomy |
| Chennai | City of Music |
| Jaipur | Crafts and Folk Arts |
| Varanasi | City of Music |
Hence option c is correct.
Recently in the news, the Bletchley Declaration is related to?
Solution (d)
The Bletchley Declaration is related to Artificial Intelligence. It addresses risks and responsibilities associated with frontier AI comprehensively and collaboratively. Its member countries include Australia, Brazil, Canada, Chile, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Kenya, Saudi, Arabia, Netherlands, Nigeria, The Philippines, the Republic of Korea, Rwanda, Singapore, Spain, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, the United States of America, and the European Union. Hence option d is correct.
Solution (d)
The Bletchley Declaration is related to Artificial Intelligence. It addresses risks and responsibilities associated with frontier AI comprehensively and collaboratively. Its member countries include Australia, Brazil, Canada, Chile, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Kenya, Saudi, Arabia, Netherlands, Nigeria, The Philippines, the Republic of Korea, Rwanda, Singapore, Spain, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, the United States of America, and the European Union. Hence option d is correct.
Consider the following border crossings:
How many of the given above are correctly matched?
Solution (b)
Border crossings:
Hence option b is correct.

Image Source: Indian Express
Solution (b)
Border crossings:
Hence option b is correct.

Image Source: Indian Express
Which of the following are the applications of carbon nanoflorets?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Carbon nanoflorets are a unique nanostructure composed of carbon atoms arranged in a distinctive floret-like morphology. They have a high surface area and various potential applications in fields such as materials science, electronics, and nanotechnology due to their exceptional properties and structure.
The applications of carbon nanoflorets:
Solution (c)
Carbon nanoflorets are a unique nanostructure composed of carbon atoms arranged in a distinctive floret-like morphology. They have a high surface area and various potential applications in fields such as materials science, electronics, and nanotechnology due to their exceptional properties and structure.
The applications of carbon nanoflorets:
In a row of Children facing north, K is 15th to the left of H, who is 22nd from the right end. If P is 14th from the left end and 6th to the right of K, how many children are there in that row?
Solution (d)
Here, P is 14th from the left end and 6th to the right of K. Hence, K is 8th from the left side.
Again, K is 15thto the left of H, who is 22nd from the right end.
Hence, K is 37th from the right side.
Therefore, the total number of Children is
= K’s position from the right ends + K’s position from the left ends – 1
= 37 + 8 – 1 = 45 – 1 = 44
Solution (d)
Here, P is 14th from the left end and 6th to the right of K. Hence, K is 8th from the left side.
Again, K is 15thto the left of H, who is 22nd from the right end.
Hence, K is 37th from the right side.
Therefore, the total number of Children is
= K’s position from the right ends + K’s position from the left ends – 1
= 37 + 8 – 1 = 45 – 1 = 44
The digit at unit place of the number (1640)^2 + (1641)^2 + (1662)^3 + (1693)^2 is:
Solution (c)
(1640)^2 = unit digit is 0
(1641)^2 = unit digit is 1
(1662)^3 = unit digit is 2^3 = 8
(1693)^2 = unit digit is 3^2 = 9
So, 0 +1+ 8 + 9 = 18, unit digit is 8
Solution (c)
(1640)^2 = unit digit is 0
(1641)^2 = unit digit is 1
(1662)^3 = unit digit is 2^3 = 8
(1693)^2 = unit digit is 3^2 = 9
So, 0 +1+ 8 + 9 = 18, unit digit is 8
XYZ is a 3 digit number such that when we calculate the difference between the two three-digit numbers XYZ-YXZ the difference is exactly 90. How many possible values exist for the digits X and Y?
Solution (a)
First of all we get that the digits X and Y cannot accept the value of zero because both of them are occurring at the hundredth’s place.
Now expanding both the numbers in terms ones, tens, and hundreds we get,
XYZ = 100X + 10Y + Z, YXZ = 100Y + 10X + Z
Now we are given the difference of both numbers,
XYZ-YXZ = 90
100X + 10Y + Z – 100Y + 10X + Z = 90
90X – 90Y = 90
X – Y = 1
Therefore we can say that the values of X and Y are in consecutive order of numbers starting from one.
The possible values of X and Y are,
(X,Y) = (2,1), (3,2), (4,3), (5,4), (6,5), (7,6), (8,7), (9,8)
Hence, there are existing eight possible values of both X and Y for the required scenario.
Solution (a)
First of all we get that the digits X and Y cannot accept the value of zero because both of them are occurring at the hundredth’s place.
Now expanding both the numbers in terms ones, tens, and hundreds we get,
XYZ = 100X + 10Y + Z, YXZ = 100Y + 10X + Z
Now we are given the difference of both numbers,
XYZ-YXZ = 90
100X + 10Y + Z – 100Y + 10X + Z = 90
90X – 90Y = 90
X – Y = 1
Therefore we can say that the values of X and Y are in consecutive order of numbers starting from one.
The possible values of X and Y are,
(X,Y) = (2,1), (3,2), (4,3), (5,4), (6,5), (7,6), (8,7), (9,8)
Hence, there are existing eight possible values of both X and Y for the required scenario.
Two numbers x and y are chosen at random from the set of first 30 natural numbers. The probability that x^2 – y^2 is divisible by 3 is
Solution (c)
Total number of ways of choosing 2 numbers from the set = 30 C2 = 30×29 /2=435
Now, x^2 –y^2 =(x+y)(x−y)
Two cases arise.
Case 1: When both x,y are divisible by 3
The numbers which are divisible by 3 = 3,6,9,….,30
Number of ways 2 numbers can be chosen from this set of numbers = 10 C2 = 10×9 /2 =45
Case 2: When both x,y are not divisible by 3
The numbers not divisible by 3 = (All the numbers in the set) – ( All the numbers divisible by 3) Hence, there are 20 numbers which aren’t divisible by 3.
Number of ways 2 numbers can be chosen from this set = 20 C 2 = (20×19)/2 =190
Thus, total number of favorable outcomes = 45 + 190 = 235
Thus, the required probability = 235/435 = 47 /87
Solution (c)
Total number of ways of choosing 2 numbers from the set = 30 C2 = 30×29 /2=435
Now, x^2 –y^2 =(x+y)(x−y)
Two cases arise.
Case 1: When both x,y are divisible by 3
The numbers which are divisible by 3 = 3,6,9,….,30
Number of ways 2 numbers can be chosen from this set of numbers = 10 C2 = 10×9 /2 =45
Case 2: When both x,y are not divisible by 3
The numbers not divisible by 3 = (All the numbers in the set) – ( All the numbers divisible by 3) Hence, there are 20 numbers which aren’t divisible by 3.
Number of ways 2 numbers can be chosen from this set = 20 C 2 = (20×19)/2 =190
Thus, total number of favorable outcomes = 45 + 190 = 235
Thus, the required probability = 235/435 = 47 /87
A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20,30 and 40 days respectively. A is assisted by B on one day and by C on the next day, alternatively. How long should the work take to complete?
Solution (b)
Work done by A, B and C respectively in 20, 30 and 40 days.
Total unit of work is equal to L. C. M. of 20, 30 and 40 = 120.
Efficiency of A 120/20 = 6 Units in 1 day
Efficiency of B 120/30 = 4 units in 1 day
Efficiency of C 120/40 = 3 units in 1 day
Work done by (A+B) in 1 day = 6 + 4 = 10 units
Work done by (A+C) in 1 day = 6 + 3 = 9 units
And this cycle continuous alternatively so, work done in 2 days = 10 + 9 = 19 units
Work done in 12 days = 114 units
Remaining work = 120 – 114 = 6 units
And this remaining work is done by (A +B) in 6/10 days
So, total work done = 12 + (6/10) = 12(3/5) days
Solution (b)
Work done by A, B and C respectively in 20, 30 and 40 days.
Total unit of work is equal to L. C. M. of 20, 30 and 40 = 120.
Efficiency of A 120/20 = 6 Units in 1 day
Efficiency of B 120/30 = 4 units in 1 day
Efficiency of C 120/40 = 3 units in 1 day
Work done by (A+B) in 1 day = 6 + 4 = 10 units
Work done by (A+C) in 1 day = 6 + 3 = 9 units
And this cycle continuous alternatively so, work done in 2 days = 10 + 9 = 19 units
Work done in 12 days = 114 units
Remaining work = 120 – 114 = 6 units
And this remaining work is done by (A +B) in 6/10 days
So, total work done = 12 + (6/10) = 12(3/5) days
All the Best
IASbaba
