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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
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Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025.
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Consider the following statements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
India is the United States’ ninth-largest trading partner, with U.S. goods and services worth $73.1 billion sold to India in 2022. The United States maintained its position as India’s largest trading partner, with $118.8 billion of imported goods and services. | India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. The TEPA, approved by the Union Cabinet, aims to enhance trade and economic collaboration between India and EFTA countries, including Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein. The FTA will provide a window to Indian exporters to access large European markets. | India has a free trade agreement with four of its top trading partners — Singapore, the UAE, Korea and Indonesia (as part of the Asian bloc). |
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
India is the United States’ ninth-largest trading partner, with U.S. goods and services worth $73.1 billion sold to India in 2022. The United States maintained its position as India’s largest trading partner, with $118.8 billion of imported goods and services. | India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. The TEPA, approved by the Union Cabinet, aims to enhance trade and economic collaboration between India and EFTA countries, including Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein. The FTA will provide a window to Indian exporters to access large European markets. | India has a free trade agreement with four of its top trading partners — Singapore, the UAE, Korea and Indonesia (as part of the Asian bloc). |
With reference to the World Trade Organisation (WTO), consider the following statements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
The World Trade Organization came into being in 1995. One of the youngest of the international organisations, the WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in the wake of the Second World War. So while the WTO is relatively young, the multilateral trading system that was originally set up under the GATT is over 75 years old. | The WTO’s rules – the agreements – are the result of negotiations between the members. The current set is largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations, which included a major revision of the original General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
The Uruguay Round created new rules for dealing with trade in services and intellectual property and new procedures for dispute settlement. |
The WTO’s Trade Policy Review Mechanism is designed to improve transparency, to create a greater understanding of the trade policies adopted by WTO members and to assess their impact. Initially launched in the wake of the financial crisis of 2008, this global trade monitoring exercise has become a regular function of the WTO, with the aim of highlighting WTO members’ implementation of both trade- facilitating and trade-restricting measures. |
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
The World Trade Organization came into being in 1995. One of the youngest of the international organisations, the WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in the wake of the Second World War. So while the WTO is relatively young, the multilateral trading system that was originally set up under the GATT is over 75 years old. | The WTO’s rules – the agreements – are the result of negotiations between the members. The current set is largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations, which included a major revision of the original General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
The Uruguay Round created new rules for dealing with trade in services and intellectual property and new procedures for dispute settlement. |
The WTO’s Trade Policy Review Mechanism is designed to improve transparency, to create a greater understanding of the trade policies adopted by WTO members and to assess their impact. Initially launched in the wake of the financial crisis of 2008, this global trade monitoring exercise has become a regular function of the WTO, with the aim of highlighting WTO members’ implementation of both trade- facilitating and trade-restricting measures. |
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is a member of the World Bank Group that primarily:
Solution (b)
Explanation
International Finance Corporation is the organisation in the World Bank Group that was established to promote development exclusively through the private sector. IFC was formed in 1956, about 10 years after the World Bank started operations. From the legal point, it is interesting to note that IFC’s charter, its Articles of Agreement, prohibit it from accepting a host government guarantee for any of its loans or financial assistance, which complements the World Bank’s charter requirements that the World Bank must take a government guarantee to support any financial assistance that it renders. A member government must first join the IMF in order to be eligible to join the World Bank; and to be a member of IFC, a country must be a member of the World Bank. (Hence option b is correct)
Solution (b)
Explanation
International Finance Corporation is the organisation in the World Bank Group that was established to promote development exclusively through the private sector. IFC was formed in 1956, about 10 years after the World Bank started operations. From the legal point, it is interesting to note that IFC’s charter, its Articles of Agreement, prohibit it from accepting a host government guarantee for any of its loans or financial assistance, which complements the World Bank’s charter requirements that the World Bank must take a government guarantee to support any financial assistance that it renders. A member government must first join the IMF in order to be eligible to join the World Bank; and to be a member of IFC, a country must be a member of the World Bank. (Hence option b is correct)
The Asian Development Fund, a concessional lending window of the ADB, primarily targets which of the following countries?
Solution (c)
Explanation
Asian Development Fund provides grants to ADB’s lower-income developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Activities supported by the ADF promote poverty reduction and improvements in the quality of life in the poorer countries of the Asia and Pacific region. (Hence option c is correct)
Solution (c)
Explanation
Asian Development Fund provides grants to ADB’s lower-income developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Activities supported by the ADF promote poverty reduction and improvements in the quality of life in the poorer countries of the Asia and Pacific region. (Hence option c is correct)
Which of the following is the largest shareholder in the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development?
Solution (b)
Explanation
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a financial institution established in 1991. The organisation was developed to help Eastern European and ex-Soviet countries develop free-market economies after the fall of communism. The EBRD works in 38 countries in the Southern and Eastern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern Europe, and Central Asia. As the largest single donor to the EBRD, the EU has accounted for about 40 percent of total donor funds channelled through the EBRD since the Bank’s inception. (Hence option b is correct)
Solution (b)
Explanation
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a financial institution established in 1991. The organisation was developed to help Eastern European and ex-Soviet countries develop free-market economies after the fall of communism. The EBRD works in 38 countries in the Southern and Eastern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern Europe, and Central Asia. As the largest single donor to the EBRD, the EU has accounted for about 40 percent of total donor funds channelled through the EBRD since the Bank’s inception. (Hence option b is correct)
“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need,
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
Hence option (b) is correct answer.
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need,
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
Hence option (b) is correct answer.
India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the eight intellectual property items coming under WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights).
TRIPS Agreement:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the eight intellectual property items coming under WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights).
TRIPS Agreement:
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda (trade negotiation round of the WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Statement 1 is correct.
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Statement 2 is correct.
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
TRIPS Agreement:
Solution (c)
Explanation:
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy was introduced as India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda (trade negotiation round of the WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to provide strong protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It came into effect on 1 January 1995. Statement 1 is correct.
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Statement 2 is correct.
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
TRIPS Agreement:
Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.
Objectives of the IMF:
Functions of the IMF:
IMF functions as a regulatory body and as per the rules of the Articles of Agreement, it also focuses on administering a code of conduct for exchange rate policies and restrictions on payments for current account transactions.
IMF provides financial support and resources to the member countries to meet short term and medium term Balance of Payments (BOP) disequilibrium.
IMF a centre for international cooperation for the member countries. It also acts as a source of counsel and technical assistance. Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.
Objectives of the IMF:
Functions of the IMF:
IMF functions as a regulatory body and as per the rules of the Articles of Agreement, it also focuses on administering a code of conduct for exchange rate policies and restrictions on payments for current account transactions.
IMF provides financial support and resources to the member countries to meet short term and medium term Balance of Payments (BOP) disequilibrium.
IMF a centre for international cooperation for the member countries. It also acts as a source of counsel and technical assistance. Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s:
Select the answer using codes given below:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The 10-member Association of Southeast Asian Nations, ASEAN, is arguably the most durable and successful regional grouping in the developing world. Established in 1967, it has contributed greatly to regional harmony and prosperity. ASEAN is characterized by great internal diversity, generally high economic growth, and a reluctance to establish a strong supranational structure. | The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration. |
Statement 3 | |
Incorrect | |
The European Union (EU) is a political and economic partnership that represents a unique form of cooperation among sovereign countries. The EU is the latest stage in a process of integration begun after World War II, initially by six Western European countries, to foster interdependence and make another war in Europe unthinkable. The EU currently consists of 27 member states, including most of the countries of Central and Eastern Europe, and has helped to promote peace, stability, and economic prosperity throughout the European continent. |
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The 10-member Association of Southeast Asian Nations, ASEAN, is arguably the most durable and successful regional grouping in the developing world. Established in 1967, it has contributed greatly to regional harmony and prosperity. ASEAN is characterized by great internal diversity, generally high economic growth, and a reluctance to establish a strong supranational structure. | The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration. |
Statement 3 | |
Incorrect | |
The European Union (EU) is a political and economic partnership that represents a unique form of cooperation among sovereign countries. The EU is the latest stage in a process of integration begun after World War II, initially by six Western European countries, to foster interdependence and make another war in Europe unthinkable. The EU currently consists of 27 member states, including most of the countries of Central and Eastern Europe, and has helped to promote peace, stability, and economic prosperity throughout the European continent. |
Consider the following statements with reference to Indian System of Medicine and identify the correct one/s:
Select the answer using codes given below:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) consist of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy, and therapies such as Yoga and Naturopathy. Some of these systems are indigenous and others have over the years become a part of Indian tradition. There are over six lakh ISM&H practitioners. The majority of the practitioners work in the private sector, in remote rural areas/urban slums and are accepted by the community. | According to WHO data, 65 to 70 per cent of people in India use traditional therapies at some stage in their lives. The turnover of the AYUSH industry has gone up six times in the past eight years. Paradoxically, however, there is a lot of misinformation about such cures and their practitioners are vilified at times. |
Statement 3 | |
Incorrect | |
Inaugurating the WHO’s Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) at Jamnagar in Gujarat recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi talked of the possibilities offered by therapeutic approaches that are different from the allopathic medicine system. Their emphasis on “holistic care” makes traditional medicine systems particularly potent in dealing with the challenges posed by modern lifestyle disorders like diabetes and obesity. |
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) consist of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy, and therapies such as Yoga and Naturopathy. Some of these systems are indigenous and others have over the years become a part of Indian tradition. There are over six lakh ISM&H practitioners. The majority of the practitioners work in the private sector, in remote rural areas/urban slums and are accepted by the community. | According to WHO data, 65 to 70 per cent of people in India use traditional therapies at some stage in their lives. The turnover of the AYUSH industry has gone up six times in the past eight years. Paradoxically, however, there is a lot of misinformation about such cures and their practitioners are vilified at times. |
Statement 3 | |
Incorrect | |
Inaugurating the WHO’s Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) at Jamnagar in Gujarat recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi talked of the possibilities offered by therapeutic approaches that are different from the allopathic medicine system. Their emphasis on “holistic care” makes traditional medicine systems particularly potent in dealing with the challenges posed by modern lifestyle disorders like diabetes and obesity. |
Consider the following statements with reference to Bretton Woods Conference and identify the correct one/s:
Select the answer using codes given below:
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The Bretton Woods Conference held in 1944 set up the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank and reestablished a system of fixed exchange rates. This was different from the international gold standard in the choice of the asset in which national currencies would be convertible. | A two-tier system of convertibility was established at the centre of which was the dollar. The US monetary authorities guaranteed the convertibility of the dollar into gold at the fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold. |
Statement 3 | |
Correct | |
The second-tier of the system was the commitment of monetary authority of each IMF member participating in the system to convert their currency into dollars at a fixed price. The latter was called the official exchange rate. A change in exchange rates was to be permitted only in case of a ‘fundamental disequilibrium’ in a nation’s BoP – which came to mean a chronic deficit in the
BoP of sizeable proportions. Such an elaborate system of convertibility was necessary because the distribution of gold reserves across countries was uneven with the US having almost 70 per cent of the official world gold reserves. |
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The Bretton Woods Conference held in 1944 set up the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank and reestablished a system of fixed exchange rates. This was different from the international gold standard in the choice of the asset in which national currencies would be convertible. | A two-tier system of convertibility was established at the centre of which was the dollar. The US monetary authorities guaranteed the convertibility of the dollar into gold at the fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold. |
Statement 3 | |
Correct | |
The second-tier of the system was the commitment of monetary authority of each IMF member participating in the system to convert their currency into dollars at a fixed price. The latter was called the official exchange rate. A change in exchange rates was to be permitted only in case of a ‘fundamental disequilibrium’ in a nation’s BoP – which came to mean a chronic deficit in the
BoP of sizeable proportions. Such an elaborate system of convertibility was necessary because the distribution of gold reserves across countries was uneven with the US having almost 70 per cent of the official world gold reserves. |
In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?
Solution (a)
Explanation:
In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Amber Box: It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. With limited exceptions, all domestic assistance policies that distort commerce and production are classified under amber box.
Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production by imposing production quotas. It is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal levels.
Green Box: Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortions are placed in Green Box. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
Hence correct answer is option A.
Solution (a)
Explanation:
In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Amber Box: It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. With limited exceptions, all domestic assistance policies that distort commerce and production are classified under amber box.
Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production by imposing production quotas. It is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal levels.
Green Box: Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortions are placed in Green Box. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
Hence correct answer is option A.
With reference to the World Trade Organisation (WTO), consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. | The WTO has many roles: it operates a global system of trade rules, it acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries. A number of simple, fundamental principles form the foundation of the multilateral trading system. The primary purpose of the WTO is to open trade for the benefit of all. |
Statement 3 | |
Correct | |
The WTO’s top decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference. Below this is the General Council and various other councils and committees. Ministerial conferences usually take place every two years. The General Council is the top day-to-day decision-making body. It meets a number of times a year in Geneva. |
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. | The WTO has many roles: it operates a global system of trade rules, it acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements, it settles trade disputes between its members and it supports the needs of developing countries. A number of simple, fundamental principles form the foundation of the multilateral trading system. The primary purpose of the WTO is to open trade for the benefit of all. |
Statement 3 | |
Correct | |
The WTO’s top decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference. Below this is the General Council and various other councils and committees. Ministerial conferences usually take place every two years. The General Council is the top day-to-day decision-making body. It meets a number of times a year in Geneva. |
After 10 years of deadlock, European Union (EU) is ready to negotiate with India in WTO on which issue related to food security?
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Recently, WTO has given a positive response to the issue of public stakeholding for food security purposes. These norms need to be developed to present illegitimate exports from excessive food stocks. European Union has expressed its willingness to negotiate on global terms regarding the purchase, stockpiling,and distribution of stocks.
Public stockholding norms are policy instrument used by the government to meet the food security of the country.
These programs are carried out by countries to meet the food security.current rules suggest that around 10% of food procurement should be used to feed the poor.
Hence correct answer is option A.
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Recently, WTO has given a positive response to the issue of public stakeholding for food security purposes. These norms need to be developed to present illegitimate exports from excessive food stocks. European Union has expressed its willingness to negotiate on global terms regarding the purchase, stockpiling,and distribution of stocks.
Public stockholding norms are policy instrument used by the government to meet the food security of the country.
These programs are carried out by countries to meet the food security.current rules suggest that around 10% of food procurement should be used to feed the poor.
Hence correct answer is option A.
What is the most Favoured Nation (MFN) in terms of International Trade?
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Hence correct answer is option B.
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Hence correct answer is option B.
When was WTO (World Trade Organization) established?
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Hence correct answer is option A.
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Hence correct answer is option A.
How many countries signed GATT on 30 October 1947?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The agreement contained tariff concessions agreed to during the first multilateral trade negotiation and a set of rules designed to prevent these concessions from being frustrated by restrictive trade measures. Hence correct answer is option (c).
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The agreement contained tariff concessions agreed to during the first multilateral trade negotiation and a set of rules designed to prevent these concessions from being frustrated by restrictive trade measures. Hence correct answer is option (c).
Arrange the following countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below;
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024
Hence option (c) is correct answer.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Countries in the ascending order of their contribution to the WTO budget 2024
Hence option (c) is correct answer.
Which of the following countries/territories is not a member of the WTO?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements about La-Nina:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Context:
Explanation:
Consider the following statements about Bullet Curtain, seen in news recently:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
Arrange the following places located in South China Sea, from North to South:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
With respect to the Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
With reference to Index of Industrial Production (IIP), consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. And, the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Solution (a)
Context:
Explanation:
The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. And, the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Consider the following statements about Kathak, which was in news recently:
Which of the above statements are correct?
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Pakke Tiger Reserve, seen in news recently is located in?
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on?
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
Consider the following statements about Yimkhiung Tribe, which was in news suddenly:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Context:
Explanation:
Consider the following statements about Plastic Ice VII:
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Context:
Explanation:
Passage
Sand and gravel have long been used as aggregate for the construction of roads and buildings. Today, the demand for these materials continues to rise. In India, the main sources of sand are river floodplains, coastal sand, paleo channel sand, and sand from agricultural fields. River sand mining is a common practice as habitation concentrates along the rivers and the mining locations are preferred near the markets or along the transportation route, to reduce the transportation cost. River sand mining can damage private and public properties as well as aquatic habitats. Excessive removal of sand may significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.
Q.31) Which one of the following best reflects the most logical, rational, and practical message conveyed by the author?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage states that the demand for sand continues to rise and that the river floodplain is among the main sources of sand in India. The author does highlight the harms of indiscriminate sand mining. However, the tone of the passage is not all in favour of a complete ban on sand mining. A middle ground wherein sand mining is carried out in a regulated manner can be explored. In this context, a complete ban on river sand mining is not correct. Hence, this option is not correct. Option (b) is incorrect. The passage notes that sand and gravel have long been used for construction purpose. Towards the end of the passage, the author highlights the ill-effects of indiscriminate sand mining. This does not mean immediate pause on use of sand and gravel by the construction sector. It would be an extreme and impractical step. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that excess removal of sand leads to environmental damage. It states that such removal can “significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.” Therefore, sand mining should be done sustainably. River sand mining also has a social impact as the passage states that it can damage private properties. Hence, sustainable mining practices should be implemented to mitigate such impacts. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage has underscored the environmental problems associated with mining. Hence, it cannot be said to convey the message of prioritising economic development over environmental concerns. That would be diagonally opposite to the stance of the author. Also, the role of the government is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage states that the demand for sand continues to rise and that the river floodplain is among the main sources of sand in India. The author does highlight the harms of indiscriminate sand mining. However, the tone of the passage is not all in favour of a complete ban on sand mining. A middle ground wherein sand mining is carried out in a regulated manner can be explored. In this context, a complete ban on river sand mining is not correct. Hence, this option is not correct. Option (b) is incorrect. The passage notes that sand and gravel have long been used for construction purpose. Towards the end of the passage, the author highlights the ill-effects of indiscriminate sand mining. This does not mean immediate pause on use of sand and gravel by the construction sector. It would be an extreme and impractical step. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that excess removal of sand leads to environmental damage. It states that such removal can “significantly distort the natural equilibrium of a stream channel.” Therefore, sand mining should be done sustainably. River sand mining also has a social impact as the passage states that it can damage private properties. Hence, sustainable mining practices should be implemented to mitigate such impacts. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage has underscored the environmental problems associated with mining. Hence, it cannot be said to convey the message of prioritising economic development over environmental concerns. That would be diagonally opposite to the stance of the author. Also, the role of the government is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
Passage
When global warming reduces agricultural outputs through severe droughts and soil depletion, it makes farming households poorer, and more likely to have to resort to child labour (in agriculture or off the farm) to meet their subsistence needs. At the same time, climate related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable. But diminishing agricultural productivity may also make adult agricultural labour less valuable, inducing adults to move to off-farm jobs, in turn increasing the need for children working on the farm. The net impact of climate change on child labour in any given context depends on the interaction and relative strength of these different effects.
Q.32) Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage suggests that global warming, through its impact on agricultural productivity and poverty, may lead to a net increase or decrease in child labour based on the context present. It particularly notes, “climate-related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable.” So, the direct correlation with an increase in child labour is not always correct. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state how specific groups among society are affected by global warming. The statement might be true, but it does not follow from the context of the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage suggests that global warming, through its impact on agricultural productivity and poverty, may lead to a net increase or decrease in child labour based on the context present. It particularly notes, “climate-related droughts and soil depletion can reduce agricultural productivity, in turn encouraging families to lessen the time children spend in agricultural work since their labour on the farm becomes less valuable.” So, the direct correlation with an increase in child labour is not always correct. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state how specific groups among society are affected by global warming. The statement might be true, but it does not follow from the context of the passage. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
What is the difference between the total number of only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers to only Dosa lovers?
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers = 23
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Required difference = 31 – 23 = 8
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Only Dosa and Bada-pav lovers = 23
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Required difference = 31 – 23 = 8
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers is
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Only Bada-pav lovers = 74 – (23 + 14 + 31) = 6
Only Misal-pav lovers = 86 – (20 + 14 + 31) = 21
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers = 31 + 6 + 21 = 58
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Only Dosa lovers = 88 – (20 + 14 + 23) = 31
Only Bada-pav lovers = 74 – (23 + 14 + 31) = 6
Only Misal-pav lovers = 86 – (20 + 14 + 31) = 21
The total number of only Dosa lovers, only Bada-pav lovers and only Misal-pav lovers = 31 + 6 + 21 = 58
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Raj’s wife enquired him the day on which his new shop will get inaugurated. Raj replied, “My shop will open 1095 days after my brother’s birthday this month”. If Raj’s brother’s birthday is on Monday, then on which day will Raj open his shop?
Solution (b)
Explanation:
On dividing 1095 days with 7, we get 3 as remainder.
Hence, Raj will open his shop 3 days after Monday, i.e. on Thursday. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
Solution (b)
Explanation:
On dividing 1095 days with 7, we get 3 as remainder.
Hence, Raj will open his shop 3 days after Monday, i.e. on Thursday. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
All the Best
IASbaba