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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Consider the following statements with respect to the principles of the Rule of Law:
Which of the above given statements are incorrect?
Solution (d)
Hint: Use elimination technique and eliminate option 2. Option 2 is basic knowledge which every student must know. UPSC plays with words in the statements, you must carefully read every word of the statement.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
-The law implies:
*Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts. |
The concept of ‘Equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. | The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated from the Constitution of Britain. |
Solution (d)
Hint: Use elimination technique and eliminate option 2. Option 2 is basic knowledge which every student must know. UPSC plays with words in the statements, you must carefully read every word of the statement.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
-The law implies:
*Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts. |
The concept of ‘Equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. | The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated from the Constitution of Britain. |
Consider the following statements with respect to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
DPSPs are not binding, in nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. |
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ to the State. |
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State.
They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. |
Additional Info:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.
Though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (Equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
DPSPs are not binding, in nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. |
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ to the State. |
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State.
They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. |
Additional Info:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.
Though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (Equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
With respect to Fundamental Rights provided in the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified, which the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control. |
Some of the Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens (Article 15, 16, 19, 29, 30) while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies. | Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. |
Additional Info:
Important features of Fundamental Rights
– The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
– In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (Bill of rights).
– They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
– Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
– Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
– They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
– They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgement of the high courts.
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified, which the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control. |
Some of the Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens (Article 15, 16, 19, 29, 30) while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies. | Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. |
Additional Info:
Important features of Fundamental Rights
– The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
– In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (Bill of rights).
– They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
– Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
– Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
– They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
– They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgement of the high courts.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the Right to Education as provided under the Indian Constitution?
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (d)
* Question is asking to choose incorrect option.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
– Thus, this provision which has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education. |
It is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. |
Additional Info:
86th Amendment, 2002:
Solution (d)
* Question is asking to choose incorrect option.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
– Thus, this provision which has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education. |
It is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. |
Additional Info:
86th Amendment, 2002:
The Parliament cannot amend these provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
– Even though the basic structure doctrine was given by the SC, it is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. It is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution, and our understanding of the basic structure comes from the various judgements of the court.
– The following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution:
*Supremacy of the Constitution; Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian
polity; Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; Federal character of the Constitution; Unity and integrity of the nation; Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
*Judicial review; Freedom and dignity of the individual; Parliamentary system; Rule of law;
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; Principle of
equality.
* Free and fair elections; Independence of Judiciary; Limited power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution; Effective access to justice; Principle of reasonableness; Powers of the Supreme
Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142.
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
– Even though the basic structure doctrine was given by the SC, it is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. It is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution, and our understanding of the basic structure comes from the various judgements of the court.
– The following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution:
*Supremacy of the Constitution; Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian
polity; Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; Federal character of the Constitution; Unity and integrity of the nation; Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
*Judicial review; Freedom and dignity of the individual; Parliamentary system; Rule of law;
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; Principle of
equality.
* Free and fair elections; Independence of Judiciary; Limited power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution; Effective access to justice; Principle of reasonableness; Powers of the Supreme
Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142.
Consider the following statements regarding Writ jurisdiction:
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
In India, both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction |
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights |
T he origin of Writs can be drawn from the English Judicial system. |
Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 are empowered by the Constitution to issue writs. |
Additional Info:
Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of Indian Constitution:
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights. The writs issued may include: Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include High Courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the High Courts.
The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights during National Emergency (Article 359).
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
In India, both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction |
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights |
T he origin of Writs can be drawn from the English Judicial system. |
Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 are empowered by the Constitution to issue writs. |
Additional Info:
Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of Indian Constitution:
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights. The writs issued may include: Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include High Courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the High Courts.
The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights during National Emergency (Article 359).
Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties:
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties.
They were added by 42nd |
They are not enforceable by law but they help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. |
Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties.
They were added by 42nd |
They are not enforceable by law but they help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. |
Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. |
Consider the following statements regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
Consider the following statements:
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The Supreme Court in the “Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam v. Union of India and Ors”
observed that the Right to Reservation is not a fundamental right. However, the Supreme Court pointed that a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution can be filed only in case of violation of fundamental rights. |
In the same case the Court had ruled that reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right. |
Additional Info:
Provisions in Article 15 and 16 of the Constitution empower the State to make special provisions in education and jobs respectively for the socially and educationally backward section of the society and for the economically weaker section.
Although these provisions are mentioned in Part III (fundamental rights) of the constitution, they are not binding on the state.
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
The Supreme Court in the “Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam v. Union of India and Ors”
observed that the Right to Reservation is not a fundamental right. However, the Supreme Court pointed that a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution can be filed only in case of violation of fundamental rights. |
In the same case the Court had ruled that reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right. |
Additional Info:
Provisions in Article 15 and 16 of the Constitution empower the State to make special provisions in education and jobs respectively for the socially and educationally backward section of the society and for the economically weaker section.
Although these provisions are mentioned in Part III (fundamental rights) of the constitution, they are not binding on the state.
Consider the following rights:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
Fundamental Rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India and in some cases to non- citizens too. |
Constitutional Rights: They have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the constitution of India.
They are not under the domain of Part III of the constitution. |
Legal rights are those rights which are accepted and enforced by the state.
Any defilement of any legal right is punished by law. Law courts of the state enforce legal rights. These rights can be enforced against individuals and also against the government. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
Fundamental Rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India and in some cases to non- citizens too. |
Constitutional Rights: They have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the constitution of India.
They are not under the domain of Part III of the constitution. |
Legal rights are those rights which are accepted and enforced by the state.
Any defilement of any legal right is punished by law. Law courts of the state enforce legal rights. These rights can be enforced against individuals and also against the government. |
Shatrughan Chauhan Case is related to violation of which of the constitutional article?
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
On 21st January 2014, the judgment in Shatrughan Chauhan & Anr v. Union of India was delivered by a three-judge bench.
The Supreme Court while commuting the death sentence of all 15 convicts into life imprisonment held that undue, inordinate and unreasonable delay in disposing off the mercy petition is in itself a sufficient ground to entitle the convict to pray for commutation.
The delay in rejecting the mercy plea by the President amounts to torture and is a clear violation of Article 21 of the convict rights.
The Supreme Court, at the same time, however, refused to fix up a certain number of years above which undue delay would amount as torture and laid out that the execution of sentence must only be done in consonance with the constitutional mandate.
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
On 21st January 2014, the judgment in Shatrughan Chauhan & Anr v. Union of India was delivered by a three-judge bench.
The Supreme Court while commuting the death sentence of all 15 convicts into life imprisonment held that undue, inordinate and unreasonable delay in disposing off the mercy petition is in itself a sufficient ground to entitle the convict to pray for commutation.
The delay in rejecting the mercy plea by the President amounts to torture and is a clear violation of Article 21 of the convict rights.
The Supreme Court, at the same time, however, refused to fix up a certain number of years above which undue delay would amount as torture and laid out that the execution of sentence must only be done in consonance with the constitutional mandate.
Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Rights and Directive Principle of State Policy:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
In the Champakam Dorairajan case 1967, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the Fundamental rights would prevail.
It declared that the Directive Principles have to |
In Golaknath case 1967, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. | In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles |
Additional Info:
The present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. This does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented.
The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
In the Champakam Dorairajan case 1967, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the Fundamental rights would prevail.
It declared that the Directive Principles have to |
In Golaknath case 1967, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. | In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles |
Additional Info:
The present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. This does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented.
The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding Preventive Detention:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures.
The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defense, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of Preventive Detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. |
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures.
The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defense, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of Preventive Detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. |
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. |
With regards to Right to Property, consider the following statements:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a constitutional right under article 300 A. |
In 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the right to property was not part of the basic structure of the Constitution and therefore, parliament had the power to abridge this right by an amendment. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a constitutional right under article 300 A. |
In 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the right to property was not part of the basic structure of the Constitution and therefore, parliament had the power to abridge this right by an amendment. |
Which of the following falls within the purview of law as contained under Article 13 of the Constitution?
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
Which of the following rights falls under the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part-III of Indian Constitution. This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike. It cannot be suspended during an emergency.
Some of the rights that are currently included in the ambit of Article 21 includes (mentioned in Menaka Case):
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part-III of Indian Constitution. This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike. It cannot be suspended during an emergency.
Some of the rights that are currently included in the ambit of Article 21 includes (mentioned in Menaka Case):
Which of the following is/ are part of the Right to Freedom under Fundamental Rights?
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The various rights under the category Right to Freedom are contained under the Article 19-22 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 19: It is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic freedoms”. It provides that all citizens shall have the right – to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble peaceably and without arms; to form associations or unions; to move freely throughout the territory of India; to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. As of now, there are 8 restrictions on
the freedom of speech and expression which include – Security of the state; Friendly relations
with foreign states; Public Order; Decency or morality; Contempt of Court; Defamation;
Incitement to offence; Sovereignty and integrity of India.
Article 20: It provides for protection in respect of conviction of offences. In other words, it lays down certain safeguards to the person accused of crimes as stated below – Ex post facto law; Double Jeopardy and Self-incrimination.
Article 21: It provides for the protection of Life And Personal Liberty i.e. no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
In the Maneka Gandhi case, 1978, the Supreme Court held that the right of free movement is a vital element of personal liberty.
Article 21A: It provides for the right to elementary education. Thus, it is the responsibility of the State to provide for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
years.
Article 22: It provides for the protection of people who have been arrested or detained in certain cases.
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The various rights under the category Right to Freedom are contained under the Article 19-22 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 19: It is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic freedoms”. It provides that all citizens shall have the right – to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble peaceably and without arms; to form associations or unions; to move freely throughout the territory of India; to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. As of now, there are 8 restrictions on
the freedom of speech and expression which include – Security of the state; Friendly relations
with foreign states; Public Order; Decency or morality; Contempt of Court; Defamation;
Incitement to offence; Sovereignty and integrity of India.
Article 20: It provides for protection in respect of conviction of offences. In other words, it lays down certain safeguards to the person accused of crimes as stated below – Ex post facto law; Double Jeopardy and Self-incrimination.
Article 21: It provides for the protection of Life And Personal Liberty i.e. no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
In the Maneka Gandhi case, 1978, the Supreme Court held that the right of free movement is a vital element of personal liberty.
Article 21A: It provides for the right to elementary education. Thus, it is the responsibility of the State to provide for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
years.
Article 22: It provides for the protection of people who have been arrested or detained in certain cases.
Which of the following writs can be issued against both private individuals and public authorities?
Select from the codes given below:
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Habeas Corpus: It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of a detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
Prohibition: Prohibition Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Quo-Warranto: In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. This can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Habeas Corpus: It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of a detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
Prohibition: Prohibition Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Quo-Warranto: In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. This can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Right to Freedom of Religion under the Indian Constitution provides that:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control secular administration of religious Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them some special service or safety measures. |
Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
Further, no person attending any educational institution recognised by the |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control secular administration of religious Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them some special service or safety measures. |
Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
Further, no person attending any educational institution recognised by the |
With respect to Cultural and Educational rights, consider the following statements:
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. |
The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens.
Therefore, there is no specific classification of minorities, Article 30 talks about only religious and linguistic minorities. |
Additional Info:
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic:
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31).
In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority.
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. |
The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens.
Therefore, there is no specific classification of minorities, Article 30 talks about only religious and linguistic minorities. |
Additional Info:
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic:
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31).
In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority.
Consider the following statements
Choose the correct statements
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
The Indian Constitution constantly uses the word “Union” to describe the entire country as well as the government that administers it. For example, Article 53 reads, “the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President”. Central government is a term not used in the original Constitution as passed by the Constituent Assembly. | The modern term “Union” was first officially used in 1946 by the Cabinet Mission Plan, a British scheme to keep India united after transfer of power. |
Context- The new Government formed in Tamil Nadu has carried the term ‘Union Government’ in place of ‘Central Government’ used earlier.
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
The Indian Constitution constantly uses the word “Union” to describe the entire country as well as the government that administers it. For example, Article 53 reads, “the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President”. Central government is a term not used in the original Constitution as passed by the Constituent Assembly. | The modern term “Union” was first officially used in 1946 by the Cabinet Mission Plan, a British scheme to keep India united after transfer of power. |
Context- The new Government formed in Tamil Nadu has carried the term ‘Union Government’ in place of ‘Central Government’ used earlier.
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of
Solution (a)
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of Article 21. In 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right (under Article 21) by the Supreme Court in its landmark verdict (Puttuswamy case).
Context- A celebrity has approached Delhi High Court seeking removal of his videos, photographs and articles from the internet citing ‘Right to be forgotten’
Solution (a)
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of Article 21. In 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right (under Article 21) by the Supreme Court in its landmark verdict (Puttuswamy case).
Context- A celebrity has approached Delhi High Court seeking removal of his videos, photographs and articles from the internet citing ‘Right to be forgotten’
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Khadi and Village Industries Commission’
Choose the correct statements
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary | It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. | Project BOLD was launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) & BSF in Jaisalmer to Prevent Desertification and Support Rural Economy. The objective of this project is to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid land zones, To reduce desertification and provide livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support. |
Context: Recently Project BOLD was launched by KVIC & BSF.
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary | It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. | Project BOLD was launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) & BSF in Jaisalmer to Prevent Desertification and Support Rural Economy. The objective of this project is to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid land zones, To reduce desertification and provide livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support. |
Context: Recently Project BOLD was launched by KVIC & BSF.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Black Carbon’
Select the correct statements
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
It is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). | Primary sources of Black Carbon include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. |
Context- A research was conducted on black carbon and its impacts on health
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
It is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). | Primary sources of Black Carbon include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. |
Context- A research was conducted on black carbon and its impacts on health
With reference to ‘Retail Direct Scheme’, consider the following statements
Choose the correct statements
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
Retail investors will be allowed to open retail direct gilt accounts (RDG) directly with RBI under Retail Direct Scheme | A dedicated online portal will provide registered users access to primary issuance of government securities and to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM) | Investments available to the user under this scheme are-
1. Government of India Treasury Bills. 2. Government of India dated securities. 3. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB). 4. State Development Loans (SDLs) |
Context- RBI Retail Direct Scheme was launched
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
Retail investors will be allowed to open retail direct gilt accounts (RDG) directly with RBI under Retail Direct Scheme | A dedicated online portal will provide registered users access to primary issuance of government securities and to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM) | Investments available to the user under this scheme are-
1. Government of India Treasury Bills. 2. Government of India dated securities. 3. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB). 4. State Development Loans (SDLs) |
Context- RBI Retail Direct Scheme was launched
4500 × ? =3375
Solution(b)
4500 × X = 3375
X=3375/4500.
Divide both terms by 25, X=135/180.
Dividing by 5, =27/36=3/4.
Solution(b)
4500 × X = 3375
X=3375/4500.
Divide both terms by 25, X=135/180.
Dividing by 5, =27/36=3/4.
4988÷4÷2
Solution(a)
4988÷4÷2 can also be written as 4988 × (1/4) × (1/2) as multiplication is the opposite of division
By dividing 4988 by 2 we get 2494 -> 2494 × (1/4)
By dividing 2494 by 4 we get 623.5
Solution(a)
4988÷4÷2 can also be written as 4988 × (1/4) × (1/2) as multiplication is the opposite of division
By dividing 4988 by 2 we get 2494 -> 2494 × (1/4)
By dividing 2494 by 4 we get 623.5
267 × 999 =?
Solution(b)
Multiply 267 * 1000 = 267000
Subtract 267 once to obtain 267 * 999 = 267000-267 = 266733
Solution(b)
Multiply 267 * 1000 = 267000
Subtract 267 once to obtain 267 * 999 = 267000-267 = 266733
How many of the following numbers are divisible by 42? 84, 168, 357, 494, 630, 1192, 1764
Solution(d)
42 = 3 * 14 = 3 * 7 * 2. Therefore, 3 , 7 and 2 are factors of 42, Hence, if a number is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 then the number will be divisible by their product 42 also.
If a number is not divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , then it is not divisible by 42
Solution(d)
42 = 3 * 14 = 3 * 7 * 2. Therefore, 3 , 7 and 2 are factors of 42, Hence, if a number is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 then the number will be divisible by their product 42 also.
If a number is not divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , then it is not divisible by 42
“An enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject.” Which one of the following best explicates the larger point being made by the author here?
Solution (a)
As the line indicates, torturing an enemy combatant for intelligence may be just a means to an end.
Solution (a)
As the line indicates, torturing an enemy combatant for intelligence may be just a means to an end.
All the Best
IASbaba