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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically (not aerobically) on cellulosic material. | Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel. | Methanogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically (not aerobically) on cellulosic material. | Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel. | Methanogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. |
Consider the following statements regarding bioremediation techniques:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. | Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. | Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. |
Consider the following statement about the Oil spills:
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. | Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. | Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. | Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. | Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites. |
Consider the following statements regarding Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness for Innovation (CEPI):
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| CEPI is neither a WHO subsidiary nor a UN body. | The CEPI is a foundation that takes donations to finance independent research projects to develop vaccines against emerging infectious diseases (EID). | It is focused on the WHO’s ‘blueprint priority diseases’. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| CEPI is neither a WHO subsidiary nor a UN body. | The CEPI is a foundation that takes donations to finance independent research projects to develop vaccines against emerging infectious diseases (EID). | It is focused on the WHO’s ‘blueprint priority diseases’. |
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Mission for Electric Mobility?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| NEMMP aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. | The government would provide fiscal and monetary incentives for this industry. | The National Council for Electric Mobility (NCEM) is chaired by the Minister for Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| NEMMP aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. | The government would provide fiscal and monetary incentives for this industry. | The National Council for Electric Mobility (NCEM) is chaired by the Minister for Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises. |
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation. Which of the following are the impact(s) of the forest fire?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. | Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. | Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. |
Notes:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. | Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. | Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. |
Notes:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
Which of the following organisations/policies provide guidelines for the resettlement and rehabilitation of displaced persons due to anthropogenic or natural disasters in India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| United Nations Relief and Rehabilitation Administration -1943. | National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation -2003. | 3. World Commission on Dams -2000. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| United Nations Relief and Rehabilitation Administration -1943. | National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation -2003. | 3. World Commission on Dams -2000. |
Which of the following is/are the possible reason/s of habitat destruction and deterioration?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Clearing of forest areas for agricultural expansion causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. | Clearing of forest areas because of livestock pressure causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. | Critical natural habitat and its associated biodiversity are diminished in wars around the world. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Clearing of forest areas for agricultural expansion causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. | Clearing of forest areas because of livestock pressure causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. | Critical natural habitat and its associated biodiversity are diminished in wars around the world. |
Pantanal Wetlands, world’s largest tropical wetland, has been in news due to its forest fires. It is located in
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Pantanal Wetlands:
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Pantanal Wetlands:
Heatwaves occurring in the ocean are known as Marine Heatwaves (MHWs). Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Marine Heatwaves?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| It is said to occur when sea surface temperatures in part of the ocean rise and stay above the expected seasonal temperatures for at least five days in a row. | They can occur both in summers and winters. | They can be strengthened by the warm ocean currents. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| It is said to occur when sea surface temperatures in part of the ocean rise and stay above the expected seasonal temperatures for at least five days in a row. | They can occur both in summers and winters. | They can be strengthened by the warm ocean currents. |
With reference to recently launched Green–Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| It is a platform for short-term trading of electricity generated from renewable energy. | Union Power Minister of India has recently launched Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| It is a platform for short-term trading of electricity generated from renewable energy. | Union Power Minister of India has recently launched Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity. |
With reference to the recently launched Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has launched the Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0. | It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has launched the Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0. | It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India. |
Consider the following statements with reference to Energy Conservation Building Code:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings in India. | Buildings intended for private residential purposes only are not covered by the Code. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings in India. | Buildings intended for private residential purposes only are not covered by the Code. |
Consider the following statements with reference to small-hydro energy projects in India:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| In India, hydropower plants of 25 MW or below capacity are classified as small hydro, which have further been classified into micro (100kW or below), mini (101kW-2MW) and small hydro (2-25MW) segments. | Karnataka leads in the production of energy from small-hydro power plants. Karnataka is the first state in the country to set up a professionally managed corporation to plan, construct operate and maintain power generation projects. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| In India, hydropower plants of 25 MW or below capacity are classified as small hydro, which have further been classified into micro (100kW or below), mini (101kW-2MW) and small hydro (2-25MW) segments. | Karnataka leads in the production of energy from small-hydro power plants. Karnataka is the first state in the country to set up a professionally managed corporation to plan, construct operate and maintain power generation projects. |
With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| The International Renewable Energy Agency is an intergovernmental organisation. | It is mandated to facilitate cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy, for the world’s growing population. | India is one of the Founding Members of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| The International Renewable Energy Agency is an intergovernmental organisation. | It is mandated to facilitate cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy, for the world’s growing population. | India is one of the Founding Members of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). |
With reference to ‘Solar City’, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The Solar City aims at a minimum of 10% reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years, through a combination of enhancing supply from renewable energy sources in the city and energy efficiency measures. | The cities may have a population between 0.50 lakh to 50 lakh, however, relaxation could be considered for special category States including the North-Eastern States and hilly States, Islands and Union Territories. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The Solar City aims at a minimum of 10% reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years, through a combination of enhancing supply from renewable energy sources in the city and energy efficiency measures. | The cities may have a population between 0.50 lakh to 50 lakh, however, relaxation could be considered for special category States including the North-Eastern States and hilly States, Islands and Union Territories. |
Which of the following are the causes of the Forest fire?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 | Statement 5 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Lightning | Volcanic eruption | Sparks from wheels of trains | Clearing of uncultivated land | Fires caused by recreational and tourist activities |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 | Statement 5 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Lightning | Volcanic eruption | Sparks from wheels of trains | Clearing of uncultivated land | Fires caused by recreational and tourist activities |
Consider the following statements-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India. | It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of new and Renewable Energy. | It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India. | It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of new and Renewable Energy. | It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India. |
Which of the following are criteria for Heat Waves as given by Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains. | 2. When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. | Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C for Hilly regions. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains. | 2. When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. | Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C for Hilly regions. |
Consider the following statements regarding Bioremediation:
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
| Bioaugmentation is an In-situ bioremediation technique in which microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process. | Bioreactors is an Ex-situ bioremediation technique which involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system. | The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct |
| Bioaugmentation is an In-situ bioremediation technique in which microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process. | Bioreactors is an Ex-situ bioremediation technique which involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system. | The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox. |
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Select the correct code:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| WCCB conducted “Operation Freefly” on illegal trade of live birds and
|
“Operation Wetmark” was conducted to ensure prohibition of sale of meat of wild animals in wet markets across the country. | WCCB conducted “Operation Birbil” to curb illegal trade in wild cat and wild bird species |
Context – According to the recent data by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) and State Forest and Police Authorities, in the past three years (2018-2020), about 2054 cases were registered for killing or illegal trafficking of wild animals in India.
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| WCCB conducted “Operation Freefly” on illegal trade of live birds and
|
“Operation Wetmark” was conducted to ensure prohibition of sale of meat of wild animals in wet markets across the country. | WCCB conducted “Operation Birbil” to curb illegal trade in wild cat and wild bird species |
Context – According to the recent data by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) and State Forest and Police Authorities, in the past three years (2018-2020), about 2054 cases were registered for killing or illegal trafficking of wild animals in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Magnetars:
Choose the correct statements using the code given below
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Massive stars with masses around10-25 times the mass of the sun eventually collapse and shrink to form very compact objects called neutron stars.A subset of these neutron stars become Magnetars. | Magnetars have high magnetic fields and they emit energy in the range of 10^37-10^40 joules per second. Compare this to the luminosity of the sun which is in the order of 10^26 joules per second | They have breathtakingly high rotation speeds that can be just 0.3 to 12 seconds |
Context – Study of magnetar revealed facets of exotic star.
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Massive stars with masses around10-25 times the mass of the sun eventually collapse and shrink to form very compact objects called neutron stars.A subset of these neutron stars become Magnetars. | Magnetars have high magnetic fields and they emit energy in the range of 10^37-10^40 joules per second. Compare this to the luminosity of the sun which is in the order of 10^26 joules per second | They have breathtakingly high rotation speeds that can be just 0.3 to 12 seconds |
Context – Study of magnetar revealed facets of exotic star.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘NITI Aayog Health Index’:
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is part of a report commissioned by the NITI Aayog,the World Bank and Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare | The Health Index score is prepared based on the States’ performance across a large set of indicators that are divided into three broad domains- health outcomes, governance and information, key inputs and processes. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is part of a report commissioned by the NITI Aayog,the World Bank and Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare | The Health Index score is prepared based on the States’ performance across a large set of indicators that are divided into three broad domains- health outcomes, governance and information, key inputs and processes. |
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Aurobindo Ghose’:
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| At Pondicherry, Sri Aurobindo developed a spiritual practice he called Integral Yoga. The central theme of his vision was the evolution of human life into a divine life in divine body. He believed in a spiritual realisation that not only liberated but transformed human nature, enabling a divine life on earth | Sri Aurobindo (born Aurobindo Ghose) was an Indian philosopher, yoga guru, maharishi, poet, and Indian nationalist. He was also a journalist, editing newspapers such as Bande Mataram | In 1906, Aurobindo was appointed the first principal of the National College in Calcutta, started to impart national education to Indian youth. He resigned from this position in August 1907, due to his increased political activity. |
Context – Prime Minister Narendra Modi is heading an extensive 53-member committee that has been set up to mark the 150th birth anniversary of spiritual leader Sri Aurobindo.
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| At Pondicherry, Sri Aurobindo developed a spiritual practice he called Integral Yoga. The central theme of his vision was the evolution of human life into a divine life in divine body. He believed in a spiritual realisation that not only liberated but transformed human nature, enabling a divine life on earth | Sri Aurobindo (born Aurobindo Ghose) was an Indian philosopher, yoga guru, maharishi, poet, and Indian nationalist. He was also a journalist, editing newspapers such as Bande Mataram | In 1906, Aurobindo was appointed the first principal of the National College in Calcutta, started to impart national education to Indian youth. He resigned from this position in August 1907, due to his increased political activity. |
Context – Prime Minister Narendra Modi is heading an extensive 53-member committee that has been set up to mark the 150th birth anniversary of spiritual leader Sri Aurobindo.
’Emergency Use Listing’ is used in the context of
Solution (c)
Covovax is produced by the Serum Institute of India under license from Novovax, a US based biotechnology company. The vaccine has been approved by the World Health Organization(WHO) under its Emergency Use Listing.
Context – Corbevax and covovax was approved for emergency use listing.
Solution (c)
Covovax is produced by the Serum Institute of India under license from Novovax, a US based biotechnology company. The vaccine has been approved by the World Health Organization(WHO) under its Emergency Use Listing.
Context – Corbevax and covovax was approved for emergency use listing.
The probability of getting a number greater than 2 by throwing a fair dice is
Solution (b)
Possible outcomes = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6 } = 6
Possibility of a number greater than 2 = {3, 4 ,5, 6} = 4
Therefore, Required probability = 4/6 = 2/3
Solution (b)
Possible outcomes = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6 } = 6
Possibility of a number greater than 2 = {3, 4 ,5, 6} = 4
Therefore, Required probability = 4/6 = 2/3
A pair of dices are rolled together till a sum of 5 or 7 is obtained, The probability that a 5 comes before 7 is
Solution (a)
5 can be obtained by the following combinations = {1,4 }, {2,3}
Hence, the probability of 5 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6)+ (1/6)*(1/6))= 1/9
Similarly, 7 can be obtained from the following combinations = {1,6}, {2,5}, {3,4}
Hence, the probability of 7 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6)) = 1/6
Probability that neither sum occurs = 1 – P(7) – P(5) = 1 – 1/6 – 1/9 = 13/18
Hence, the probability that A occurs before B is
P(a) + P(c)P(a) + P(c2)P(a)
= 1/9 + (13/18)(1/9) + (13/18)2(1/9)+ …..
=(1/9)/1 – 13/18 = 2/5
Solution (a)
5 can be obtained by the following combinations = {1,4 }, {2,3}
Hence, the probability of 5 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6)+ (1/6)*(1/6))= 1/9
Similarly, 7 can be obtained from the following combinations = {1,6}, {2,5}, {3,4}
Hence, the probability of 7 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6)) = 1/6
Probability that neither sum occurs = 1 – P(7) – P(5) = 1 – 1/6 – 1/9 = 13/18
Hence, the probability that A occurs before B is
P(a) + P(c)P(a) + P(c2)P(a)
= 1/9 + (13/18)(1/9) + (13/18)2(1/9)+ …..
=(1/9)/1 – 13/18 = 2/5
Two dice are thrown, what is the probability that both the dices are not having the same number.
Solution (d)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown together = 36
Outcomes when both the numbers can be same = ( (1,1), (2,2) , (3,3) , (4,4) , (5,5) , (6,6))= 6
Therefore, the probability of getting the same number = 6/36 = 1/6
The probability of not getting the same number = 1- 1/6 = 5/6
Solution (d)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown together = 36
Outcomes when both the numbers can be same = ( (1,1), (2,2) , (3,3) , (4,4) , (5,5) , (6,6))= 6
Therefore, the probability of getting the same number = 6/36 = 1/6
The probability of not getting the same number = 1- 1/6 = 5/6
two dices are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability that sum of these scores is a perfect square or an even number.
Solution (c)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown = 62 = 36
Two dices can form any number between 2 and 12.
In this range, there are three perfect squares: 4, 9 = 2
Number of even numbers between 2 and 12 are 2, 6, 8, 10, 12= 7
Ways to form 2 = (1,1) = 1 way
Ways to form 4 = (1,3) , (2,2) , (3,1) = 3 ways
Ways to form 6 = (1,5) , (2,4) , (3,3) , (4,2) , (5,1) = 5 ways
Ways to form 8 = (2,6) , ( 3,5), (4,4), (5,3) , (6,2) = 5 ways
Ways to form 9 = (3,6) , (4,5) , ( 5,4) , (6,3) = 4 ways
Ways to form 10 = (4,6) , (5,5) , (6,4) = 3 ways
Ways to form 12 = ( 6,6) = 1 way
Therefore, in all there are 22 ways out of 36 total outcomes = 22/36 = 11/18.
Solution (c)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown = 62 = 36
Two dices can form any number between 2 and 12.
In this range, there are three perfect squares: 4, 9 = 2
Number of even numbers between 2 and 12 are 2, 6, 8, 10, 12= 7
Ways to form 2 = (1,1) = 1 way
Ways to form 4 = (1,3) , (2,2) , (3,1) = 3 ways
Ways to form 6 = (1,5) , (2,4) , (3,3) , (4,2) , (5,1) = 5 ways
Ways to form 8 = (2,6) , ( 3,5), (4,4), (5,3) , (6,2) = 5 ways
Ways to form 9 = (3,6) , (4,5) , ( 5,4) , (6,3) = 4 ways
Ways to form 10 = (4,6) , (5,5) , (6,4) = 3 ways
Ways to form 12 = ( 6,6) = 1 way
Therefore, in all there are 22 ways out of 36 total outcomes = 22/36 = 11/18.
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
Journalism may never have been as public-spirited an enterprise as editors and writers liked to think it was. Yet the myth mattered. It pushed journalism to challenge power; it made journalists loath to bend to the whims of their audience; it provided a crucial sense of detachment. The new generation of media giants that dominates journalism today has no patience for the old ethos of detachment. It’s not that these companies don’t have aspirations toward journalistic greatness. Buzz Feed, Vice, and the Huffington Post invest in excellent reporting and employ first-rate journalists—and they have produced some of the most memorable pieces of investigative journalism in this century. But in the pursuit of audience, they have allowed the endless feedback loop of the web to shape their editorial sensibility and determine their editorial investments.
Q.30) Which of the following is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Solution (c)
The paragraph given argues that though journalism may have never been as public-spirited as it believed itself to be, the myth of detachment mattered, as it encouraged journalistic ideals such as standing up to power and not bending to the whims of the audience. In contrast, the guiding ethos of media giants that dominate journalism today is not detachment or editorial sensibility, but the relentless pursuit of the audience.
Option c sums up the main idea of the paragraph the best.
Option a talks of ‘editorial insight’ being engineered with the help of audience feedback loops. The paragraph, on the other hand talks of editorial sensibility/discernment, and expresses concern that media giants, in their single-minded focus on audience, have dashed the crucial myth of detachment that shaped journalism earlier. Option a does not touch upon this.
Option b is close, but incorrect, as it refers to social-consciousness that journalism exhibited earlier. The paragraph categorically states that journalism was never as public-spirited as it imagined itself to be.
Option d talks of a drop in the quality of journalism. The paragraph actually states the contrary. It only holds that editorial sensibility has been compromised.
Solution (c)
The paragraph given argues that though journalism may have never been as public-spirited as it believed itself to be, the myth of detachment mattered, as it encouraged journalistic ideals such as standing up to power and not bending to the whims of the audience. In contrast, the guiding ethos of media giants that dominate journalism today is not detachment or editorial sensibility, but the relentless pursuit of the audience.
Option c sums up the main idea of the paragraph the best.
Option a talks of ‘editorial insight’ being engineered with the help of audience feedback loops. The paragraph, on the other hand talks of editorial sensibility/discernment, and expresses concern that media giants, in their single-minded focus on audience, have dashed the crucial myth of detachment that shaped journalism earlier. Option a does not touch upon this.
Option b is close, but incorrect, as it refers to social-consciousness that journalism exhibited earlier. The paragraph categorically states that journalism was never as public-spirited as it imagined itself to be.
Option d talks of a drop in the quality of journalism. The paragraph actually states the contrary. It only holds that editorial sensibility has been compromised.
All the Best
IASbaba
