Solution (a)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• In first seven Five Year Plans, trade was characterized by an inward-looking trade strategy Import substitution; aiming at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Protection from imports took two forms: Tariffs and Quotas. 
  • Tariffs: Tax on imported goods; they make imported goods more expensive and discourage their use. 

Quotas: Specify the quantity of goods which can be imported. Both restrict imports and, therefore, protect the domestic firms from foreign competition. (Hence statement 2 and 3 is correct)

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Solution (c)

Explanation:

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• By June 1991, India had less than $1 billion in foreign exchange reserves, bar barely enough to cover imports for three weeks. India lacked sufficient foreign exchange reserves to conduct international trade and was about to default on its international debt obligations. Investors withdrew their funds. By June 1991, India had less than $1 billion in foreign exchange reserves, barely enough to cover imports for three weeks. India lacked sufficient foreign exchange reserves to conduct international trade and was about to default on its international debt obligations. The average rate of inflation was 7.5 percent in 1989-90, which went up to 10 percent in the year 1990-91. In 1991-92, it crossed 13 percent. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• Gulf War was a conflict between Iraq and 34 other countries, led by the United States. It started with the invasion of Kuwait. This affected oil prices. India’s oil import bill swelled, exports slumped, credit dried up, and investors took their money out. Large fiscal deficits, over time, had a spillover effect on the trade deficit culminating in an external payments crisis. By the end of the 1980s, India was in serious economic trouble. The Government Expenditure was more than the earnings. Hence the Fiscal Deficit was high. The Gross Fiscal deficit rose from 9 % of GDP in 1980-81 to 12.7 % of GDP in 1990-91. The Internal Debt of the Government rose due to the above reason. It rose from 35 % of GDP in 1985-86 to 53 % of GDP in 1990-91. Hence Options 2 and 3 are correct.

 Before economic reforms occurred, imports grew at a very high rate without matching the growth of exports. Government could not restrict imports even after imposing heavy tariffs and fixing quotas. This had resulted in huge balance of payment of crisis. Added to that, there was a consistent rise in the general price level of essential goods in the economy.  Hence Option 4 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• 3- Under the Air Corporations Act, 1953, the Government nationalised nine airlines—Air India, Air Services of India, Airways (India), Bharat Airways, Deccan Airways, Himalayan Aviation, Indian National Airways, Kalinga Airlines, and Air India International—and brought them under two PSEs, Indian Airlines, and Air India International. 
• 2- This was followed by nationalisation of life insurance in 1956 through the Life Insurance Corporation Act 1956, whereby 154 Indian insurers, 16 non-Indian insurers, and 75 provident societies were nationalised into Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
• 1- In the banking system, the government nationalised 14 banks in 1969 through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970, followed up by a second round of bank nationalisation in 1980, through which another six banks were nationalised.

4- Through the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972, the general insurance business of 55 Indian companies and the 52 foreign insurers was nationalised

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

•  The Government of India announced its first industrial policy resolution on 6 April,1948. The policy resolution laid stress on the role of the state in the development of industry. The Industrial Policy of 1948 laid down the foundation of a mixed economy wherein the public sector (the state) and the private sector were to co-exist and work in their demarcated areas. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956) was also regarded as the “Economic Constitution of India”. Major Objectives of Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956) are as follows: improving living standards and working conditions for the mass of the people; to reduce disparities in income and wealth; to prevent private monopolies and concentration of economic power. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Industrial Policy Statement of July, 1980 was based on Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956). The major objectives are as follows: Optimum utilisation of installed capacity; Maximum production and achieving higher productivity; Higher employment generation; Promotion of export-oriented industries; Consumer protection against high prices and bad quality; Correction of regional imbalances; Strengthening of the agricultural base through agro based industries and promotion of optimum intersectoral relationship. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991 encompasses two main categories: stabilisation measures and structural reform measures. Stabilisation measures are short-term strategies aimed at addressing weaknesses in the balance of payments and curbing inflation to ensure adequate foreign exchange reserves and price stability.
• As an immediate response to the balance of payments crisis in 1991, the Government of India implemented a significant reform in the foreign exchange market by devaluing the rupee against foreign currencies. Devaluation of a currency involves a central bank intentionally lowering the value of the domestic currency relative to a foreign currency. The currency is devalued to a level that permits a trade surplus and reserve accumulation for a short time. Hence Statement I is correct.
•  Devaluing a currency enhances the competitiveness of exports globally, boosting export earnings. Simultaneously, it raises the cost of imports, dampening their demand, and thereby curbing the outflow of foreign currency. This helps to mitigate the trade deficit and increase the foreign exchange reserves. Hence Statement II is correct.

Devaluing a currency helps to mitigate the trade deficit and increase the foreign exchange reserves, by curbing the outflow of foreign currency due to reduced import and boosting the export earnings. Hence it is the reason why the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies as an immediate measure in response to the 1991 balance of payments crisis in India. Hence, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Liberalisation was expected to formalise India’s largely informal agrarian economy, with labour moving from agriculture to the organised industrial sector. But we have witnessed contractualisation of the employment.  
• The quality of employment in India has declined in the post-liberalisation period. Of around 61 million jobs created in India over 22 years post-liberalisation of the economy, 92% were informal jobs, according to an analysis of National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) data for 2011-12. While formal workers comprised 6% of the total workforce in 1999-2000, this increased to around 9% in 2011-12. The Indian labour market is characterised by predominance of informal employment with more than 90 per cent of employment in informal sector. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• Agriculture accounted for nearly 30 per cent of the total GDP in 1991, and now accounts for 17.4 per cent of the economy. The services sector presently contributes nearly 54 per cent to domestic GDP and this was 39 per cent in 1991. The industry sector’s contribution to GDP stands at 29 per cent now against 30 in 1991.  

Services sector contributes over 50 per cent to India’s GDP. While Covid-19 pandemic has had an adverse impact on most sectors of the economy, the services sector has been the worst affected as its’ share in India’s GVA declined from 55 per cent in 2019-20 to 53 per cent in 2021-22. Hence, Statement II is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Mahalanobis model emphasizes a shift in the mode of industrial investment towards building up a domestic consumption goods sector. Therefore, it suggests that in order to reach a high standard in consumption, investment in building a capacity in the production of capital goods is first needed.   To maximise long-term economic growth, it emmphasised the development of the public sector and the rapid industrialization of the economy.  This model of economic development was put forward as a path to India’s second five-year plan. Hence Option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The liberalization policy of 1991 in India was a significant turning point in the country’s economic history. It introduced comprehensive reforms across various sectors, including the financial sector and taxation. 
• The 1991 Indian economic reforms significantly liberalized foreign investment in banking. The foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 74 per cent. Hence Statement a is correct.
• The financial sector reforms aimed to reduce the direct control of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) over the banking sector. Instead, the reforms sought to enhance the autonomy of banks, promote deregulation, and encourage market-driven financial practices. The role of RBI was reoriented towards being a regulator and facilitator. This means that the financial sector was now allowed to take decisions on many matters without consulting the RBI. Hence Statement b is incorrect.

 Over the years, tax reforms have aimed to simplify the tax structure and reduce the tax burden on individuals and corporates. Various budgets since 1991 have introduced measures to lower tax rates, increase tax slabs, and provide exemptions to reduce the overall tax liability for individuals. The Coporate tax was also gradually reduced to attract investment.  Hence Statement c is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The second five-year plan targeted the Industrial growth of the country and was implemented in the period from April 1956 to March 1961. This plan was also known as the Mahalanobis Plan as it was the brainchild of Statistician Prashant Chandra Mahalanobis. 
• The strategy of growth of this model emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy industries and capital goods. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The fundamental assumptions in the Mahalanobis model are as follows: 

• the saving-investment equilibrium is maintained

• the production processes in respective sectors are always operated under the full capacity situation. 

The Mahalanobis model was employed in the Second Five Year Plan. The model laid the blueprint for industrialization and development in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act aims at:

• Generating guaranteed 100 days of employment for the rural unskilled labour.
• Strengthening the livelihood of rural poor by providing economic security.
• Reducing migration to urban areas by providing adequate facilities in rural areas.

The eligibility criteria to receive the benefits under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) are:

• Citizen of India
• 18 years of age at the time of application
• Rural Household
• Willing to do unskilled work

Hence option a is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual Human Development Index report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• In 1990, Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen developed the first Human Development Report. Since then, annual reports have been issued that have investigated many issues using the human development concept, which places people at the centre of the development process. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The HDI is a summary measure for assessing long-term progress in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living. 
• The index is calculated using four indicators — life expectancy at birth, expected years of schooling, mean years of schooling, and the gross national income per capita. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The HDI simplifies and captures only part of what human development entails. It does not reflect on inequalities, poverty, human security, empowerment, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Human Development Report Office (HDRO) provides other composite indices as a broader proxy on some of the key issues of human development, inequality, gender disparity, and poverty.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indian government established the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), a policy think tank, on January 1, 2015. It has a “15-year road map” and a “7-year vision, strategy, and action plan” among its efforts. 
• The Planning Commission was established on March 15, 1950, and it was dissolved on August 17, 2014. The Planning Commission was in charge of creating India’s Five-Year Plans. 
• The erstwhile Planning Commission did not have any participation from the states. 
• NITI Aayog has participation from the States. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the States, the Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu) and Lt. Governors of Union Territories without Legislature. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Planning Commission had the authority to allocate funding to state governments and several central government ministries for a variety of national and state-level programs and projects. 
• The NITI Aayog has not been granted the authority to allocate funds. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950. 

The NITI Aayog was set up by a Cabinet Resolution of the Government of India in January 2015. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The PM SVANidhi Scheme is implemented by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its objective is to provide affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
• It intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR 10,000/- of one-year tenure to street vendors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors.
• No collateral is required to avail of the loan, making it more accessible to street vendors. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• There will be no penalty on early repayment of the loan.
• The vendors can avail of the facility of escalation of the credit limit on timely/ early repayment of a loan.
• The maximum amount of credit a financial institution extends to a client on a credit card or a line of credit.

On timely or early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy of 7% per annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) aims to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is currently active in 14 key sectors – mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It provides financial rewards to domestic and foreign companies for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their revenue over up to five years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Context:

• India and Egypt will hold Exercise Cyclone 2025 from February 10 to 23 in Rajasthan. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the exercise.

Explanation:

Exercise Cyclone is a joint military exercise held between India and Egypt army. This is the third edition of Cyclone exercise. The first edition of the exercise was conducted in 2023 (In India) and second edition (In Egypt) was in 2024. The goal is to improve coordination between the two armies. Training will include real-world scenarios and tactical drills. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Russia has reportedly offered the R-37M missile, one of the world’s best air-to-air missiles, to India. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the missile.

Explanation:

The R-37M missile, known by its NATO reporting name AA-13 Axehead, is a long-range air-to-air missile developed by Russia. It is designed to eliminate enemy fighter jets and drones beyond visual range (BVR). It evolved from the earlier R-33 missile and is designed to engage high-value targets such as AWACS, tanker aircraft, and other support platforms, thereby keeping the launching aircraft out of the range of enemy fighters. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech group company, Biovet, recently announced that its Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) vaccine for dairy cattle and buffaloes, Biolumpivaxin, has received a license from the Central Drug Standards Control Organization (CDSCO). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about this disease.

Explanation:

• Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious viral disease of cattle and water buffalo. It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

LSDV is not zoonotic, so humans cannot get infected by the virus. Originally found in Africa, it has also spread to countries in the Middle East, Asia, and eastern Europe. LSD is a highly host-specific disease. It primarily affects cows and to a lesser extent, buffalo. Morbidity rate is higher in cattle than buffalo. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Astronomers recently identified what could be the largest structure ever found in the known universe, named Quipu. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about it.

Explanation:

• Quipu is a recently discovered superstructure in which galaxies group together in clusters and clusters of clusters (superclusters). It contains nearly 70 galactic superclusters. Inspired by the Incan counting system of knotted cords, the structure mirrors its namesake with a long central filament and multiple branching filaments. Despite its vast size, Quipu will not last forever. Scientists believe it will eventually break into smaller, collapsing units. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Quipu is the largest known structure in the universe in terms of length. It stretches an astonishing 1.3 billion light-years across and contains an estimated 200 quadrillion solar masses. It is over 13,000 times the length of the Milky Way. It is also hundreds of thousands of times more massive than a single galaxy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (d)

Context:

• Chinese scientists recently placed special detectors deep in the South China Sea to explore the possibility of building a huge underwater observatory to find neutrinos. In this context, a question about neutrinos can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Neutrinos are nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particles that interact extremely weakly with matter. Their tendency not to interact very often with other particles makes detecting neutrinos very difficult. First predicted in 1930, they weren’t discovered in experiments until 1956, and scientists thought they were massless until even later. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Neutrinos belong to the family of particles called leptons, which are not subject to the strong force. Rather, neutrinos are subject to the weak force that underlies certain processes of radioactive decay. Neutrinos come from all kinds of different sources and are often the product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay.” They are the most common particles in the universe. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Three Indian cricket team players visited the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri recently, a day before the second ODI against England. In this context, a question about the temple can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Jagannath Temple is a Hindu temple located in Puri, Odisha. It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century. However, the completion of the temple happened in 1230 AD under Anangbheema Deva III, who also installed the deities in the shrine. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath temple. It is also one of the four sacred pilgrimage sites, known as the Chaar Dhaams, that hold great significance for Hindus. It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The 12-year ritual of the Jagannath Temple is a significant event in the temple’s religious and cultural calendar, called the “Nabakalebara” (meaning “New Body”). Hence, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment chaired a meeting of the central advisory committee for the PM-AJAY scheme. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the scheme.

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It is aimed at reducing poverty among the SC communities through various initiatives like the generation of additional employment and improving socio-economic indicators in SC dominated villages. It is a merged scheme of three Centrally Sponsored Schemes, namely Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP), and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY). Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Karnataka government’s move to build a village for tribals in the buffer zone of Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary has raised questions over their safety, besides concerns over fueling wildlife conflicts. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the sanctuary.

Explanation:

Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary is nestled in the Western Ghats in the Kodagu district of Karnataka. It covers an area of about 181 sq.km. The sanctuary gets its name from the highest point, the Brahmagiri peak, which is 1607 m in height. The Lakshmana Tirtha River originates in the sanctuary and is a tributary of the Cauvery River. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The Supreme Court recently agreed to hear a plea in seeking passive euthanasia for rabies patients. In this context, a question about judgements related to it can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Euthanasia is defined as the hastening of death of a patient to prevent further suffering. Active euthanasia is a method that involves taking active steps to end a life. Passive Euthanasia is defined as the deliberate act of causing someone’s death by withholding or withdrawing artificial life support, such as a ventilator, from a patient who is terminally ill.

In a landmark ruling in the Common Cause vs. Union of India case (2018), a five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court recognised the right to die as part of the right to life, legalising passive euthanasia and permitting the creation of a “living will” for terminally ill patients or those in a persistent vegetative state with no hope of recovery, ensuring a dignified exit by refusing medical treatment or life support. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The elections to the Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council and the Jaintia Hills Autonomous District Council (ADC) are scheduled for February 21. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about ADC and Sixth Schedule.

Explanation:

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian constitution provides a list of ten tribal areas in Assam (3), Meghalaya (3), Tripura (1) and Mizoram (3). Each of these tribal areas constitutes an autonomous district. Each autonomous district has an Autonomous District Council (ADC). Autonomous District Councils have up to 30 members with a term of five years. Out of 30, four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The tenure of Autonomous District Council is five years from the date of their constitution. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

 Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect.  The passage states, “India, therefore, needs to look beyond its cities and take action at the sub-national level for effective air pollution control strategies…” As the emphasis is on the sub-national level efforts, a uniform national-level policy cannot be said to be the most rational action among the options provided. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Option (b) is incorrect. The passage does mention that the secondary form of PM2.5 “crosses jurisdictional borders.” However, this is in the context of jurisdiction within India as the passage focuses on action at the sub-national level rather than at the international level. Therefore, it does not best reflect the most rational action among the options provided as it is beyond the context of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Option (c) is incorrect. The passage notes, “India, therefore, needs to look beyond its cities and take action at the sub-national level for effective air pollution control strategies…” It also states that “airsheds can extend over several hundred kilometres, well beyond the boundaries of cities.” Thus, it does not follow from the passage that instituting city-level emission reduction measures could be the primary solution to air quality issues as the problem may extend across many cities. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Option (d) is correct. The passage notes, “…this secondary form spreads farther and wider than primary PM 2.5 and travels across states, cities, and crosses jurisdictional borders.” Therefore, since this major pollutant moves across states, collaborative efforts among neighbouring states to address air quality issues are needed. Also, the sub-national level action means that the action must be taken at the state level through inter-state cooperation. So, among the options provided, this is the most suitable choice.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage does not touch upon the sources of pollution in terms of their relative contribution. It only notes that it is a multi-sectorial issue. The most harmful pollutant is noted as PM 2.5, but no further assumption about the sources of air pollution can be made from the information given in the passage alone. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not discuss the relative merits of approaches in terms of the costs they entail. Also, the context of cost-effectiveness is not discussed in the passage. While the statement may be otherwise correct, in the context of the information provided in the passage, this assumption is not valid.

 Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

The ages of the people are 12 years, 12.5 years, 13 years and so on. 

These form an arithmetic progression (AP) series as the difference between two consecutive numbers is the same (i.e. 6 months).       

The sum of the terms of an arithmetic series can be calculated using the formula, Sn = (n/2) {2a + (n – 1)d} 

Here, a is the first term, n is the number of terms in the sequence, d is the common difference. 

Sn = 450, a = 12, d = 1/2 

So, 450 = (n/2) {2×12 + (n –1)(1/2)} 

Or 450×2 = n{24 + (n – 1)/2} 

Or 450×2 = n{(48 + n – 1)/2} 

Or 450×2×2 = n(47 + n) 

Or 1800 = n2 + 47n 

Or n2 + 47n – 1800 = 0 

Or n2 + 72n – 25n – 1800 = 0 

Or n(n + 72) – 25(n + 72) = 0 

Or (n + 72) (n – 25) = 0 

Or n = 25 people (  n ≠ -72) 

Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

The given series is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of -4.

So, the next term = 44 – 4 = 40

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Given that, W = XY + Z

Or XY + Z = W

From Statement 1: When X = 7, W = 41

7Y + Z = 41 ……(i)

From Statement 2: When X = 9, W = 49

9Y + Z = 49 …….(ii)

From Statements 1 & 2:

By subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:

2Y = 8

Or Y = 4

Putting the value of Y in equation (i), we get:

7Y + Z = 41

Or 7 × 4 + Z = 41

Or Z = 41 – 28

Or Z = 13

Therefore, Y = 4 and Z =13.

Thus, both Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.