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Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 25] 

Q.1) Which of the following is/are correct features of a parliamentary committee?

  1. It should be appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman.
  2. It should work under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman.
  3. It should have a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Which among the following are part of collective privileges of the Houses of Parliament?

  1. There is complete immunity for anything spoken in the House.
  2. The right to punish members only for breach of its privileges.
  3. The right to publish debates and proceedings and the right to restrain others from publishing.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Which among the following is/are correct in regard to ‘motions’ associated with Parliamentary functions?

  1. Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
  2. Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers.
  3. No-Confidence Motion can be moved against the entire council of ministers only.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements with regard to Parliamentary Privileges:

  1. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president.
  2. The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to attorney general of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding

  1. 9 days
  2. 14 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 30 days

Q.6) Consider the following statements about Rajya Sabha (Council of States)

  1. 12 members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President for their expertise in specific fields of art, literature, science, and social services.
  2. One third of its members retire at the expiration of every two years.
  3. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is appointed by the President of India.

Choose the correct codes from below options:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.7) What is the maximum period during which Parliament may not meet?

  1. Six months
  2. One year
  3. Two years
  4. Three years

Q.8) The budget goes through six stages in the Parliament. Arrange it in right order:

  1. Presentation of budget.
  2. General discussion.
  3. Scrutiny by departmental committees.
  4. Voting on demands for grants.
  5. Passing of appropriation bill.
  6. Passing of finance bill.

Choose the appropriate code:

  1. 1-2-3-4-5-6
  2. 1-2-3-4-6-5
  3. 1-2-4-3-5-6
  4. 1-2-4-3-6-5

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

  1. All Money bills are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills.
  2. Speaker is the sole authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) The budget consists of two types of expenditure—the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India. Consider the following statements regarding the expenditure ‘charged’ upon Consolidated Fund of India:

  1. It is non-votable by the parliament and it can only be discussed.
  2. Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Consider the below statements with regard to Parliamentary Forums:

  1. Speaker of Lok Sabha is the President of all the Parliamentary Forums.
  2. The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha is the Secretary to the forums.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Cabinet Committees are an important tool for the smooth and transparent functioning of Indian Government. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cabinet Committees?

  1. They are extra – Constitutional Bodies
  2. They are of two types, standing and ad hoc.
  3. Non Cabinet members are debarred from the membership of Cabinet Committees.

Select the code from following:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.13) Which of the following correctly point out the difference(s) between Adjournment and Prorogation of a house?

  1. Unlike Prorogation, Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House.
  2. Unlike Adjournment, Prorogation leads to lapse of all the bills or any other business pending before the House.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Which Cabinet committee is often described as a ‘Super Cabinet’?

  1. Appointment committee.
  2. Parliamentary affairs committee.
  3. Economic affairs committee.
  4. Political affairs committee.

Q.15) Consider the following statements and identify the name of the Committee:

  1. It suggest the alternative policies to the Government to ensure the efficiency and economy in administration
  2. A Minister cannot be member of this committee and if the member is appointed as Minister, he/ she shall cease to be a member of this committee
  3. This Committee has 30 members elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Select the correct option

  1. Committee on Public Accounts
  2. Estimate Committee
  3. Committee on Public Undertakings
  4. Business Advisory Committee

Q.16) Consider the following about Question hour of the Parliament:

  1. It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.
  2. The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this
  3. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 only
  4. 2 and 3

Q.17) Identify the correct statement from the following regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women?

  1. The Committee will consist of 10 members from the Lok Sabha and 20 members from Rajya sabha.
  2. A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
  3. The report of National Commission for women is considered by this committee.
  4. The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years

Q.18) Which of the following Cabinet Committee is formed in recent times?

  1. Political Affairs Committee
  2. Cabinet committee on investment and growth
  3. Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
  4. Economic Affairs Committee

Q.19) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched regarding parliamentary votes?

1. Vote on account To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget.
2.  Token grants

 

 Granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service
3. Vote of credit

 

 Blank cheque given to the executive.
 

4.  Vote on exceptional grants

 

 To meet the proposed expenditure on a new service

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 3 and 4

Q.20) Identify the correct statements regarding Motions and Resolutions in the parliament from the given below?

  1. All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions
  2. All motions are not necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.

Select the code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is collaboration between which of the following countries?

  1. India
  2. Bangladesh
  3. Myanmar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) In which one of the following States, the Rupi Bhaba Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Assam
  4. West Bengal

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding ASTRA Mk-I Missile:

  1. It is an air-to-surface Missile.
  2. It has a range of over 300 km.
  3. It can be launched from Sukhoi-30 and LCA Tejas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.24) With reference to Better Than Cash Alliance, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a partnership of governments only.
  2. Its members are committed to digitizing payments.
  3. India is a founding member of the alliance.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.25) Which of the following organisation released a report titled “Realizing the Future of Learning: From learning poverty to learning for everyone, everywhere”?

  1. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
  2. World Bank
  3. United Nations Social Development Network (UNSDN)
  4. Education Development Center (EDC)

Q.26) Consider the following pairs:

Traditional Toys State/UT
1.     Etikoppaka Toys Andhra Pradesh
2.     Kinnal Craft Karnataka
3.     Nirmal Toys Maharashtra

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.27) The National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) works under which of the following Ministry?

  1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. Ministry of AYUSH
  3. Ministry of Science and Technology
  4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q.28) The first Honey Farmers Producer Organisation (FPO) has been registered in which of the following State of India?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Bihar
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.29) With reference to Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI), consider the following statements:

  1. It is released by United Nations Environment Program (UNEP).
  2. PHDI is the level of human development adjusted by carbon dioxide emissions per person and material footprint per capita.
  3. As pressures on the planet increase, the PHDI falls below the Human Development Index (HDI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) Consider the following statements:

  1. Australia is the largest producer of lithium in the world.
  2. India’s first Lithium refinery will be set up in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Study the following 2 (two) passages and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1

The benefits of psychotherapy result not only from the advice the therapist gives but also from the supportive relationship offered to the patient. Even though this relationship may cost large amounts of money over many years, most patients interpret the therapist’s concern for them as genuine and identify this caring relationship as the primary factor in improving their mental health. However, recent studies have found that only eight per cent of therapist/patient relationships continue after the patient terminates formal paid visits.

Q.31) Which of the following is in accordance with the ideas contained in the passage?

  1. therapists are equally concerned with moneymaking and their patients’ well-being
  2. reading published articles of reputed psychotherapists will hardly be beneficial
  3. therapists can always treat mental illness without the use of prescription drugs
  4. therapists who terminate relationships are likely to improve the mental health of their patients

Passage 2

Read not to contradict and confute, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested; that is, some books are to be read-only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others; but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading makes a full man, conference a ready man, and writing an exact man. And therefore if a man writes little, he had need have a good memory; if he confers little, he had need have a present wit; and if he read little, he had need have much cunning to seem to know that he doth not. Histories make men wise, poets witty, the mathematics subtle, natural philosophy deep, moral grave, logic and rhetoric able to contend.

Q.32) What can be done about the ‘meaner’ sort of books?

  1. to be read but not to contradict and confute
  2. to be read curiously
  3. to be read, but not curiously
  4. they can be read by deputy and extracts made of them by others

Q.33) From a pack of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the drawn card is a club or a jack?

  1. 8/13
  2. 7/41
  3. 4/13
  4. 6/13

Q.34) Tickets numbered 1 to 50 are mixed and one ticket is drawn at random. Find the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 4 or 7?

  1. 9/25
  2. 9/50
  3. 8/25
  4. 18/25

Q.35) P, Q and R were trying to hit a target. If P hits the target 5 times in 8 attempts, Q hits it 3 times in 5 attempts and R hits it 2 times in 4 attempts. What is the probability that the target is hit by at least 2 persons?

  1. 41/80
  2. 23/70
  3. 49/80
  4. 47/90

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Mansi 60
2 Taranpreet kaur 60
3 Shubam Singhla 58
4 Ravi kumar Singh 55.34
5 Sankar S 54.67
6 Vinay 54
7 Naveen 52
8 Tarunkumar M N 51.334
9 Montey 50
10 Jayashankar 48
11 Swati jindal 46
11 Shruthika 46
12 kanika 44
13 Ranveer shankar kadam 42
13 s.mishra 42
14 Apeksha Agrawal 41.36
15 SNL 40
15 Santosh Kumar 40
16 PRABHAT SHARMA 39.38
17 Priyanshi Goel 38.66
18 Ayaan pathan 38.2
19 Sadhana 38.04
20 rani singh 37.36
20 TINKU MITTAL 37.33
20 Sushil 37.33
21 Sherlock 36
22 hemant 35.33
23 Vinay Tripathi 34.67
23 Rakshitha 34.6
24 vatsal singh 34.4
25 Sravan 34.06
26 SURYA S 34
26 Aayushi Sahitya 34
27 Mahima 33.38
27 soham sengupta 33.33
28 P CHAVAN 32
28 Pallavi P 32
28 Aakriti Pandey 32
29 Arjun Kashyap 30.72
30 ABHIN T S 30.06

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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