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ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

S&T [DAY 17] 

Q.1)Consider the following statements about mitochondrial DNA and Nuclear DNA?

  1. Both Nuclear DNA and mitochondrial DNA are circular in shape.
  2. MtDNA contains two copies per somatic cell, whereas Nuclear DNA usually has only 100-1,000 copies per somatic cell.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding “Organoids” and select the incorrect statement:

  1. They are a group of cells grown in laboratories into three-dimensional, miniature structures that mimic the cell arrangement of a fully-grown organ.
  2. Most of the organoids contain only a subset of all the cells seen in real organ, but lack blood vessels to make them fully functional.
  3. Organoids for brain cannot be developed.
  4. None

Q.3) Consider the following statements about ‘Genome India Project’:

  1. The project aims to carryout whole genome sequencing of 10,000 Indians in the first phase.
  2. The project will be completed in 3 years and anyone looking for free mapping of their entire genome can sign up for it.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. The concept of Germline gene therapy is to introduce gene modified cells into the germline that can be transmitted horizontally across generations.
  2. The somatic cell gene therapy affects the targeted cells/tissue/organs in the patient, and is not passed on to subsequent generations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) Consider the following statements about International campaign to abolish Nuclear weapons:

  1. Nobel peace prize was given to it in 2015.
  2. Its main objective is to achieve full implementation of the treaty on the prohibition of nuclear weapons.
  3. It was launched in 1998 and has it’s headquarter in Melbourne.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None

Q.6) Recently, among scientific community this living creature has attracted a lot of attention due to its potential use in regenerative biology of the heart. Identify the species –

  1. Dragon flies
  2. Tardigrade
  3. Zebrafish
  4. Platypus

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding India’s three stage Nuclear power Programme

  1. It was designed by Vikram Sarabhai.
  2. In the first stage, fast breeder reactor (FBR) was to be used followed by pressurized heavy water reactor (PHWR).
  3. The ultimate focus of the programme was enabling thorium reserves of India to be utilized for energy needs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

  1. Mitochondrial diseases are incurable.
  2. CRISPR-Cas9, the gene editing technology has been harnessed from bacteria.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

  1. Cold fusion describes a form of energy generated when hydrogen interacts with various metals like nickel and palladium.
  2. Cold fusion seeks to produce nuclear energy without harmful radiation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.10) TALEN and Zinc Finger nucleases are heard in the context of

  1. Nuclear technology
  2. Gene editing
  3. Nanotechnology
  4. Defence industry

Q.11) The term “Spindle Nuclear transfer” is associated with which of the following?

  1. Nuclear technology
  2. Cloning
  3. Nano technology
  4. Three parent baby

Q.12) Which of the following diseases are genetic diseases?

  1. Sickle cell anaemia
  2. Down syndrome
  3. Huntington diseases
  4. Breast cancer

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.13) With reference to International Atomic energy Agency (IAEA), consider the following statements?

  1. Its headquarter is in Rome
  2. Its objective is to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons
  3. It reports both to United Nation General Assembly and UN Security council

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.14) The Department of Atomic energy functions under:

  1. Prime Minister of India
  2. Ministry of earth sciences
  3. Ministry of Power
  4. Principal scientific adviser to PM

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

  1. Ht-Bt cotton can tolerate Glyphosate, a herbicide variety, whose action kill only the weeds (Pink Bollworm), not the crop.
  2. Bt brinjal sowing is not allowed commercially by GEAC
  3. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions under Ministry of Agriculture and Fisheries.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

  1. Fission is the process by which the sun and other stars generate light and heat.
  2. Fusion is the splitting of a heavy, unstable nucleus into two lighter nuclei.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Statement 1 is correct only
  2. Statement 2 is correct only
  3. Both the statements are correct
  4. Both the statements are incorrect

Q.17) Consider the following statements:

  1. Kaiga Atomic Power Station is located in Tamil Nadu.
  2. Nuclear power is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity and wind power.
  3. India has uranium supply agreement with Mongolia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) Which of the following countries have signed civil nuclear cooperation agreement with India?

  1. USA
  2. Russia
  3. Japan
  4. Czech Republic

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.19) Select the correct statements from the following:

  1. World Association of Nuclear Operators (WANO) is a not for profit, international organisation with a mission to maximise the safety and reliability of the world’s commercial nuclear power plants.
  2. China and USA have ratified Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)

Choose from the below given options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 not 2

Q.20) Consider the following statements about International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER):

  1. It is a collaboration of 133 nations launched in 1985
  2. it is located in France
  3. Its goal is to demonstrate the scientific and technological feasibility of fusion energy for peaceful use.
  4. India is not a member of it.

Select the Incorrect code:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.21) With reference to International Barcode of Life (iBOL), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a research alliance involving nations to enable expansion of the global DNA reference database.
  2. It is a Canadian not-for-profit corporation.
  3. It signed a MoU with Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) for further efforts in DNA barcoding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Recently the asafoetida (Heeng) cultivation was introduced in India for the first time in which of the following?

  1. Neora valley, West Bengal
  2. Lahaul valley, Himachal Pradesh
  3. Araku valley, Andhra Pradesh
  4. Narmada valley, Gujarat

Q.23) With reference to ESG Funds, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. These are portfolios of equities and/or bonds for which economical, social and governance factors have been integrated into the investment process.
  2. It is a kind of mutual fund and is regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  3. The first ESG mutual fund was launched by the Yes Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Which of the following country is NOT a member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO)?

  1. Armenia
  2. Kazakhstan
  3. Kyrgyzstan
  4. Uzbekistan

Q.25) Recently discovered two new species of pipeworts, Eriocaulonparvicephalum & Eriocaulonkaraavalense are from which of the following region?

  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Andaman and Nicobar islands
  3. Western Ghats
  4. Sundarban National Park

Q.26) With reference to SVAMITVA scheme consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.
  2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
  3. Rural inhabited area would be mapped using drone by Indian Institute of Surveying and Mapping (IISM).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.27) India’s first Multi-Modal Logistic Park is coming up in which of the following State?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Assam
  4. Kerala

Q.28) With reference to Global Nitrous Oxide (N2O) Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international collaboration between the International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. Highest growth rates in N20 emissions come from western industrialized economies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) The first-ever Ministerial Meeting of the G-20 Anti-Corruption Working Group (ACWG) was hosted by which of the following G20 member?

  1. Saudi Arabia
  2. Australia
  3. Japan
  4. France

Q.30) Which of the following is/are benefits of Aquaponics?

  1. It is water efficient.
  2. It allows continuous production of food.
  3. Its products alone are enough to ensure a balanced diet.
  4. No reliance on mined and manufactured fertilizers.
  5. It can be used on non-arable land.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  2. 1, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Read the following three passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

The casual horrors and real disasters are thrown at newspaper reader without discrimination. In the contemporary arrangements for circulating the news, an important element, evaluation is always weak and often wanting entirely. There is no point anywhere along the line somewhere someone put his foot down for certain and says, “This is important and that does not amount to row of beans; deserves no one’s attention, and should travel the wires no farther”. The junk is dressed up to look as meaningful as the real news.

Q.31) The writer of the above passage

  1. seems to be happy with the contemporary arrangements for circulating news
  2. is shocked by the casual stories about horrors and disasters reported in the newspapers
  3. wants better evaluation of news before publication
  4. wants to put his foot down on news stories

Passage 2

Internet banking is the term used for new age banking system. Internet banking is also called as online banking and it is an outgrowth of PC banking. Internet banking uses the internet as the delivery channel by which to conduct banking activity, for example, transferring funds, paying bills, viewing checking and savings account balances, paying mortgages and purchasing financial instruments and certificates of deposits. Internet banking is a result of explored possibility to use internet application in one of the various domains of commerce. It is difficult to infer whether the internet tool has been applied for convenience of bankers or for the customers’ convenience. But ultimately it contributes in increasing the efficiency of the banking operation as well providing more convenience to customers. Without even interacting with the bankers, customers transact from one corner of the country to another corner.

There are many advantages of online banking. It is convenient, it isn’t bound by operational timings, there are no geographical barriers and the services can be offered at a minuscule cost. Electronic banking has experienced explosive growth and has transformed traditional practices in banking

Q.32) Which of the following is not an advantage of online banking?

  1. It is convenient.
  2. It is bound by operational timings.
  3. The services can be offered at a minimum cost.
  4. There is no geographical barrier.

Passage 3

Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people’s bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation’s system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realised that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatized for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the “security bug” and took up freelance work.

Q.33) In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures

  1. In his village
  2. In his own house
  3. In a different land
  4. In his office

Q.34) How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15

Q.35) How many triangles are there in this figure?

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 11
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 18

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 PRAVEEN GUPTA 57.34
2 Taranpreet Kaur 53.34
3 Shubam Singhla 54.67
4 Aditya Gupta 54
5 Ankith Pandey 51.4
6 Saurabh Chaubey 48
7 Deepika gupta 47.333
8 S RAHEEM BASHA 46.66
8 Sankar S 46.66
9 Montey 46
9 Abhimanyu 46
9 SHUBHAM KUMAR 46
10 Sarath 45.33
11 Naveen 44
12 Shrutika 43.4
12 Ravi Kumar singh 43.4
13 Rahul 43.36
13 SHRUTHI 43.36
14 himant 42
14 Raghu 42
15 saikiran b 40
16 Gauri Shankar 39.3
16 Swati Jindal 39.3
17 Swaroop 38.7
18 Diganth 37.33
19 Mansi 36
20 Sushil 34
20 Aakriti Pandey 34
21 Maharshi 33.38
22 Santosh Reddy 33.33
22 Siri 33.33
22 Ananya Singh 33.33
23 Akshata 33.04
24 rani singh 32.7
25 Ayaan Pathan 32
25 Sherlock 32
26 Md Nauman 30
27 Prashant Gautam 29.4
28 Pavan 29
28 Ritika Dalal 29
29 Sravan 28
29 tanmay 28
30 Rakshitha 26

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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