Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Allopatric speciation occurs when populations of the same species are geographically isolated, leading to the evolution of distinct species. The physical separation of populations prevents gene flow, causing genetic differences to accumulate over time, eventually resulting in speciation. The formation of new species on islands or in geographically separated regions. Darwin’s finches on the Galapagos Islands are a classic example of allopatric speciation. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Peripatric speciation is a subtype of allopatric speciation where a small, isolated population at the edge of a larger population undergoes speciation due to geographic isolation. It is characterized by the smaller population size, which accelerates genetic drift and the accumulation of unique traits. Speciation in isolated island populations or small groups at the edges of the species’ main range. (Statement 2 is correct)

While sympatric speciation does not require geographic separation, it is still classified as a geographic mode of speciation because it occurs within the same geographic area. It happens when new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region. This speciation process often involves changes in behaviour, niche differentiation, or genetic mutations that reduce gene flow between subpopulations. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Sexual reproduction introduces genetic variation through the combination of genes from two different parents. This happens due to processes like meiosis, where crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes shuffle genetic material, leading to offspring that have unique combinations of genes. Sexual reproduction is one of the primary sources of genetic variation in populations. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Gene flow refers to the transfer of genetic material between different populations of the same species. This happens when individuals migrate between populations, bringing new genetic variants with them. Gene flow can introduce new alleles into a population, increasing genetic diversity and reducing differences between populations. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that occur randomly. They are one of the fundamental sources of genetic variation. Mutations can create new alleles, and if they occur in germ cells (sperm or egg), they can be passed down to the next generation, contributing to the genetic variation within a population. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Ecological diversity refers to the variety of ecosystems in a given region, including both terrestrial (land) and aquatic (water) ecosystems. It encompasses the different habitats, ecological processes, and species interactions within these environments. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Ecological diversity operates on a broader scale compared to genetic and species diversity. It encompasses different ecosystems and their complex interactions across landscapes and regions, making it the largest scale of biodiversity. (Statement 2 is correct)

Ecological diversity does not exclude human-altered ecosystems. In fact, it includes the variation in all ecosystems, including those modified by human activities, such as agricultural and urban landscapes. These systems are considered part of ecological diversity as they host distinct ecological processes and species interactions. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Alpha diversity refers to the species richness or diversity within a particular habitat or ecosystem. It measures the number of species in a local ecosystem or a single community. (Option a is incorrect)
• Gamma diversity refers to the total diversity of species across multiple ecosystems within a larger geographical area or region. It is a measure of the overall biodiversity at the landscape level, encompassing different ecosystems and their species. (Option b is correct)
• Beta diversity measures the change or difference in species composition between different ecosystems or habitats within a region. It highlights how species diversity varies from one habitat to another. (Option c is incorrect)
• Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genes within a population of a species. It ensures the adaptability of a species to changing environments and contributes to the overall health of populations. (Option d is incorrect)

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Western Ghats experience varying rainfall patterns depending on the region. While the western slopes receive heavy rainfall during the monsoon, the eastern slopes are drier. This variation in rainfall contributes to its diverse ecosystems, but it is not uniform throughout the year. (Option a is incorrect)
• While the Western Ghats do act as a physical barrier influencing climate and rainfall, this is not the main reason for its rich biodiversity. The biodiversity of the Western Ghats is largely due to its range of habitats, from tropical rainforests to montane grasslands, and the presence of numerous endemic species. (Option b is incorrect)
• The Western Ghats are recognized as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots, containing a high level of endemism. Many species of plants, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals are found only in this region, making it ecologically significant. Its designation as a global biodiversity hotspot by Conservation International highlights its importance in species diversity. (Option c is correct)

The Western Ghats have a varying altitude, with many regions reaching high elevations. These altitudinal gradients contribute to the formation of distinct ecosystems, but it is not a low-altitude terrain. The high altitude, rather than promoting migration, supports unique ecosystems adapted to specific conditions. (Option d is incorrect)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Stenothermal organisms are the types of animals which are capable of living only at a certain temperature or within a very narrow range of temperatures. Unlike eurythermal organisms, which can tolerate a broad range of temperatures, stenothermal organisms have limited thermal tolerance. This means they are highly sensitive to changes in temperature, making them vulnerable to temperature fluctuations in their environment. (Statement 1 is correct)
• The temperature range that stenothermal organisms are adapted to varies significantly across different species. For example, some stenothermal organisms thrive in cold environments (like polar regions), while others are adapted to warmer tropical conditions. Therefore, the temperature tolerance is species-specific and not uniform across all stenothermal organisms. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• A flagship species is often chosen to represent an environmental cause, campaign, or habitat. These species are charismatic and have strong public appeal, making them ideal ambassadors for conservation efforts. They symbolize the ecological health of their habitat and play a crucial role in raising awareness for conservation initiatives. (Statement 1 is correct)
• he protection of flagship species often results in broader conservation efforts that benefit the entire ecosystem. By preserving the habitat of a flagship species, other species, including those that are vulnerable or less well-known, also receive protection. This creates a cascading effect of conservation for multiple species sharing the same habitat. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Since the protection of a flagship species often leads to broader conservation efforts benefiting the entire ecosystem, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Wetlands play a critical role in water purification by filtering pollutants, sediments, and nutrients from the water before it reaches rivers, lakes, or oceans. Wetland plants and microorganisms break down contaminants, improving water quality. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands recognizes wetlands’ role in water purification and maintaining water quality. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Wetlands act as natural buffers against flooding by absorbing excess water during heavy rainfall or storm surges. Their ability to store and slowly release water helps reduce the severity of floods and protects surrounding areas. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Wetlands are significant carbon sinks, particularly peatlands, which store large amounts of carbon in the form of organic matter. By sequestering carbon, wetlands help mitigate climate change by reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. (Statement 3 is correct)

Wetlands are not typically associated with tidal energy generation. While tidal energy is a renewable resource harnessed from ocean tides, it requires specific coastal infrastructures like tidal turbines. Wetlands, though vital for other ecosystem services, do not directly contribute to energy generation. (Statement 4 is incorrect)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Anglerfish, which live in the deep sea, use bioluminescence primarily to lure prey. The bioluminescent lure is located on a modified spine that extends from their heads, attracting smaller fish in the darkness of the deep ocean. This light is produced by symbiotic bacteria within the lure and is not used for mating purposes. (Option (a) is correct)
• Fireflies primarily use bioluminescence for mating signals, where males flash specific light patterns to attract females. This behavior is well-known and occurs during the mating season, and while it involves communication, it is not typically used for hunting or other non-mating purposes. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• Earthworms do not exhibit bioluminescence. They rely on burrowing in the soil to protect themselves from predators and do not produce light. Their survival strategies are primarily related to staying underground and maintaining moisture. (Option (c) is incorrect)

Barnacles are marine organisms that attach themselves to hard surfaces, but they do not exhibit bioluminescence. Their main method of feeding involves filter feeding by extending feathery appendages into the water, but they do not use light for communication, mating, or attracting prey. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• The Aichi Biodiversity Targets were adopted as part of the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011–2020 during the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Conference of Parties (COP 10) held in Nagoya, Aichi Prefecture, Japan in 2010. They were not part of the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• The Aichi Biodiversity Targets were indeed set with a deadline of 2020. These targets aim to address biodiversity loss and promote sustainable management of ecosystems by 2020. (Statement 2 is correct)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Climate change refers to long-term shifts in temperatures and weather patterns. It is directly contributing to humanitarian emergencies from heatwaves, wildfires, floods, tropical storms and hurricanes and they are increasing in scale, frequency and intensity. It is therefore a threat multiplier, undermining and potentially reversing decades of health progress. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth’s surface observed since the pre-industrial period (between 1850 and 1900) due to human activities, primarily fossil fuel burning, which increases heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth’s atmosphere. This term is not interchangeable with the term “climate change.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Climate change can take place due to natural as well as anthropogenic reasons. The natural reasons include changes in the sun’s activity or large volcanic eruptions. But since the 1800s, human activities have been the main driver of climate change, primarily due to the burning of fossil fuels like coal, oil and gas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Report defines tipping points as “critical thresholds in a system that, when exceeded, can lead to a significant change in the state of the system, often with an understanding that the change is irreversible.” Moreover, breaching one tipping point can increase the likelihood of crossing others — triggering a catastrophic domino effect. For instance, unabated global warming can cause irreversible ice melt from the Greenland ice sheet. This could slow down the ocean’s circulation of heat, the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC), which, in turn, could impact South America’s monsoon system. Changes in the monsoon system may lead to a rise in the frequency of droughts in the Amazon rainforest. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Greenhouse gases (GHGs) warm the Earth by absorbing energy and slowing the rate at which the energy escapes to space; they act like a blanket insulating the Earth. Atmospheric gases like Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous Oxide (N2O), Water Vapour, and Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) can trap the out-going infrared radiation from the earth’s surface. Therefore, these gases are known as greenhouse gases (GHGs), and the heating effect is known as the greenhouse effect. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Black carbon, commonly known as soot, is a component of fine particulate air pollution (PM 2.5). It is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels, a process which also creates carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds. It warms the earth by reducing (not increasing) albedo when deposited on snow. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Black carbon is said to be one of the largest contributors to climate change after CO2. But unlike CO2, which can stay in the atmosphere for years together, black carbon is short-lived and remains only for days to weeks before it descends as rain or snow. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The black carbon (soot) is the strongest absorber of sunlight (a lot more than carbon dioxide) and heats the air directly. Among aerosols (such as brown carbon, sulphates), Black Carbon has been recognized as the second most important anthropogenic agent for climate change and the primary marker to understand the adverse effects caused by air pollution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• CO2, by definition, has a GWP of 1 regardless of the time period used, because it is the gas being used as the reference. CO2 remains in the climate system for a very long time: CO2 emissions cause increases in atmospheric concentrations of CO2 that will last thousands of years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Methane (CH4) is estimated to have a GWP of 27-30 over 100 years. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) has a GWP 273 times that of CO2 for a 100-year timescale. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWP gases because, for a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO2. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. GRIHA is a Sanskrit word meaning ‘Abode.’ It is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building.’ Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The GRIHA rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles is developed by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) and it has been adopted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It assesses a building out of 34 criteria and awards points on a scale of 100. In order to qualify for GRIHA certification, a project must achieve at least 50 points. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Arctic is warming twice to three times as fast as the rest of the planet due to sea ice loss—a phenomenon known as Arctic amplification. As sea ice declines, it becomes younger and thinner, and therefore becomes more vulnerable to further melting. This warming is more concentrated in the Eurasian part of the Arctic, where the Barents Sea north of Russia and Norway is warming at an alarming rate- almost seven times faster than the global average. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. It is an intergovernmental body of the UN constituted to advance scientific knowledge about climate change caused by human activities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The IPCC prepares comprehensive Assessment Reports about the state of scientific, technical and socio-economic knowledge on climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for reducing the rate at which climate change is taking place. The latest report is the Sixth (not sixteenth) Assessment Report which consists of three Working Group contributions and a Synthesis Report. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.
• The IPCC does not itself undertake scientific assessments but only evaluates the state of scientific evidence on various aspects of climate change. It has 195 member states who elect a bureau of scientists to serve through an assessment cycle and the bureau selects experts to prepare IPCC reports. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, also known as the Stockholm Declaration, contained 26 principles, and placed environmental issues at the forefront of international concerns and marked the start of a dialogue between industrialized and developing countries on the link between economic growth, the pollution of the air, water, and oceans and the well-being of people around the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992 was also known as the ‘Earth Summit.’ It concluded that the concept of sustainable development was an attainable goal for all the people of the world, regardless of whether they were at the local, national, regional or international level. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm was the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and several resolutions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The triple planetary crisis refers to the three main interlinked issues that humanity currently faces: climate change, pollution and biodiversity loss. This term underscores the interdependence of these issues and their collective impact on the planet’s ecosystems, societies, and economies. Each of these issues has its own causes and effects and each issue needs to be resolved if we are to have a viable future on this planet. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Context: The Pangsau Pass International Festival is celebrated every year in Nampong which is situated in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. 

• Pangsau Pass is considered to be the “Hell Gate” or “Hell Pass”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Pangsau Pass or Pan Saung Pass, 3,727 feet (1,136 m) in altitude, lies on the crest of the Patkai Hills on the India-Myanmar border.
• The pass offers one of the easiest routes into Burma from the Assam plains.
• It became famous during World War II for being the initial obstacle encountered by American General “Vinegar Joe” Stilwell’s forces in their effort to build a land route to isolated China after the fall of Burma to the Japanese.

This is due to difficult terrains in the Indo-Burma Patkai mountain Range. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Context: A Kerala woman was sentenced to death this week for the 2022 murder of her boyfriend. She used paraquat, a toxic chemical and one of the world’s most-used herbicides.

• Paraquat is primarily used to control the growth of weeds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Paraquat, also known as paraquat dichloride or methyl viologen, is one of the world’s most-used herbicides.
• If ingested in a small amount, a person would display signs of damage to the heart, kidneys, liver, and lungs over several days or weeks.
• If ingested in large amounts then the person could face acute kidney failure, rapid heart rate, failure of the heart and liver, seizures, and respiratory failure. 
• Its sale is banned in over 70 countries, including China and the European Union, due to its potent toxicity. It is widely used in the US and India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The WHO classifies paraquat as a Category 2 (moderately hazardous and moderately irritating) chemical.
• It is completely degraded by soil microorganisms. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• There are no known antidotes for paraquat poisoning but some studies mention immunosuppression or charcoal haemoper fusion as treatment.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: As the nation celebrated its 76th Republic Day, a particularly captivating tableau from Andhra Pradesh made its way down New Delhi’s Kartavya Path, earning applause from onlookers. Adorned with meticulously crafted wooden toys, the display offered a glimpse into the ancient art of Etikoppaka Bommalu, a 400-year-old craft that has become synonymous with eco-friendly creativity and cultural heritage.

Hence option c is correct

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Context: Nagoba Jatara, the eight-day holy pilgrimage event of Mesram clan Adivasi Gonds, is slated to start at Keslapur village in north Telangana’s tribal heartland of Indervelli mandal in Adilabad district.

Nagoba Jatara is a tribal festival held in January/February. It is held in Keslapur village, Adilabad district, Telangana. It is the second biggest tribal festival in India, after the Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, held in Telangana itself. It is celebrated for 10 days by the Mesaram clan of Gond tribes. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has launched the enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO) 2.0 System, a significant upgrade designed to simplify the certification process for exporters and enhance trade efficiency. 

• The Certificates of Origin 2.0 Systems is designed to simplify the certification process for exporters and enhance trade efficiency. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Certificates of Origin is a single access point for all exporters, for all FTAs/PTAs, and for all agencies concerned. 
• The certificate of origin shall be issued by the government authorities designated by the Government of the exporting beneficiary country.
• It enables exporters to authorize multiple users under a single Importer Exporter Code (IEC). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It introduces an in-lieu Certificate of Origin feature, allowing exporters to request corrections to previously issued certificates through an easy online application process.
• It supports Aadhaar-based e-signing alongside digital signature tokens, providing greater flexibility.
• It has been developed by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and Regional & Multilateral Trade Relations (RMTR) Division, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: s per the Asian Waterbird Census-2025 carried out by the CWS authorities under the aegis of the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in early January, ‘‘A record number of 39,725 birds belonging to 106 species have been sighted in the Coringa and adjoining wetlands. 

• The Asian Waterbird Census is a part of the global International Waterbird Census (IWC). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a citizen-science programme that supports the conservation and management of wetlands and waterbirds worldwide.
• It is conducted annually under the aegis of the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was initiated in 1987 in the Indian subcontinent and since has grown rapidly to cover major regions of Asia, from Afghanistan eastwards to Japan, Southeast Asia, and Australasia.
• It covers the East Asian – Australasian Flyway and the Central Asian Flyway. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) is looking to launch a “when-listed” platform for trading of shares of companies that have finished their initial public offering (IPO) and are yet to be listed on stock exchanges, its Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch said.

• The “when-listed” platform is for trading of shares of companies that have finished their initial public offering (IPO) and are yet to be listed on stock exchanges. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is aimed at reducing the activity in the grey market, which is largely unregulated. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Grey Market refers to an unofficial trading of securities even before they are listed on a stock exchange. This is an unregulated market and works on demand and supply.
• Many investors look at the premium offered in the grey market for stock of a company that has launched an IPO, before considering investing in the offer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: In a move expected to rile environmentalists working to conserve green cover in the Western Ghats, the State Board of Wildlife gave conditional approval for the Sharavathy Pumped Storage Project in the Sharavathy Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary.

• Sharavathy Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary is located in the Sharavathi River Valley in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It lies in the Western Ghats, mainly covered with evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the valleys and grassy patches on hilltops.
• It was formed by combining the existing Sharavathi Valley Wildlife Sanctuary, Aghanashini Lion-Tailed Macaque Conservation Reserve, and the adjoining reserve forest blocks. 
• Silent Valley National Park in Kerala is home to the largest population of lion-tailed macaques in South India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

It shares its southwestern boundary with the Mookambika Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Context: Recently, a scene of Lezim dancing in the upcoming Bollywood film Chhava, based on the life of Maratha ruler Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, has led to controversy in Maharashtra.

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Context: In recent days RNA-based precision therapeutics are emerging as a game-changer for genetic disorders, including inherited retinal diseases (IRDs).

RNA Therapy is a term used to describe the use of RNA-based molecules to modulate biological pathways to cure a specific condition. Applications of RNA-based Therapies:

• It can correct specific genetic mutations at the RNA level. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It could help restore proper retinal function in IRD patients. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Inherited Retinal Diseases (IRDs) are genetic conditions that lead to progressive vision loss, often resulting in blindness. These diseases stem from mutations in more than 300 genes responsible for the function of the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. While some individuals may lose their sight shortly after birth, others experience gradual deterioration over time. In many cases, early intervention could slow down or even prevent the progression of blindness.
• It is used to treat patients with cystic fibrosis and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage notes that there has been a “surge of interest” in making happiness a target of policy consideration. However, it also adds that attention has shifted to “a broader focus on well-being”, which encompasses “not just happiness but also other welfare concerns of citizens.” Therefore, it is amply clear that in addition to happiness, other avenues of citizen welfare are also being covered. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions that the idea of happiness policy “remains on the fringes in some locales, notably the United States.” Even in the United States it is on the margins. Clearly, the United States is not leading the global trend in implementing happiness policies. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions that almost all economic transactions involve information asymmetries. Just because this asymmetry is present in most of the economic transaction does not mean that economic transactions won’t be possible if asymmetric information is not there. Deducing such inference would be incorrect, extreme and beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct. 

Option (b) is incorrect. The passage does not make any mention of the impact of symmetric information on economic exchanges, especially in terms of their fairness. It restricts its ambit to information asymmetries. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and not correct. 

Option (c) is correct. The passage notes that asymmetric information can be “viewed as the specialization and division of knowledge, as applied to any economic trade.” It is natural to think of asymmetry as an undesirable thing. However, in this particular context asymmetric information is not an undesirable outcome. Hence, this option is correct. 

Option (d) is incorrect. The passage touches upon neither the need for regulation, nor the conditions needed for a country to develop. These cannot be inferred from the passage and so are beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

Total income of Mr. Batra during first 4 months = 1200 × 4 = Rs 4800

Total income of Mr. Batra during next 3 months = 1500 × 3 = Rs 4500

Total income of Mr. Batra during next 5 months = 1800 × 5 = Rs 9000

Total income during whole year = 4800 + 4500 + 9000 = 18300

Total expenditure during whole year =15000 (given)

∴ Total saving = 18300 – 15000 = Rs 3300

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Taking option (a), we get:

P – Q × R ÷ S + T

P is the mother of Q, Q is the brother of R, R is the sister of S, S is the father of T.

Family tree:

From the diagram we can say that ‘P’ is not the aunt of ‘T’

Taking option (b), we get:

P + Q ÷ R – S × T

P is the father of Q, Q is the sister of R, R is the mother of S, S is the brother of T.

Family tree:

From the diagram we can say that ‘P’ is not the aunt of ‘T’

Taking option (c), we get:

P ÷ Q + R ÷ S × T

P is the sister of Q, Q is the father of R, R is the sister of S, S is the brother of T.

Family tree:

From the diagram, we can say that ‘P’ is the aunt of ‘T’.

Hence, option (c) is the right answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

Every digit is replaced by the remainder that is obtained when the number is divided by 3.

1 gives remainder 1 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 1.

2 gives remainder 2 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 2

3 gives remainder 0 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 0.

4 gives remainder 1 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 1.

5 gives remainder 2 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 2.

6 gives remainder 0 when divided by 3. So, it is encoded as 0.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.