IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following statements about World Wetlands Day is/are correct?
- The theme for World Wetlands Day 2018 is ‘Wetlands and Climate Change’.
- Every year, February 2 is celebrated as World Wetlands Day.
- In 2018, the World Wetlands Day (WWD) is celebrated in India at Sundarbans, West Bengal.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
World Wetlands Day is celebrated every year on 2 February. This day marks the date of the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar on the shores of the Caspian Sea.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in collaboration with Department of Forests, Assam government has organised the national-level celebration of World Wetlands Day (WWD), 2018 at Deepor Beel, a Ramsar Site in Guwahati.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The 2018 theme ‘Wetlands for a sustainable urban future’ marks the role of healthy wetlands play in making cities and towns liveable, through their role in groundwater recharge, buffering floods, filtering wastewater, enhancing landscape aesthetics, providing income generation opportunities and ultimately supporting well-being.
The 2019 theme ‘Wetlands and Climate Change’ has been chosen to initiate actions against the drainage of wetlands.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Source: PIB
Incorrect
World Wetlands Day is celebrated every year on 2 February. This day marks the date of the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar on the shores of the Caspian Sea.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in collaboration with Department of Forests, Assam government has organised the national-level celebration of World Wetlands Day (WWD), 2018 at Deepor Beel, a Ramsar Site in Guwahati.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The 2018 theme ‘Wetlands for a sustainable urban future’ marks the role of healthy wetlands play in making cities and towns liveable, through their role in groundwater recharge, buffering floods, filtering wastewater, enhancing landscape aesthetics, providing income generation opportunities and ultimately supporting well-being.
The 2019 theme ‘Wetlands and Climate Change’ has been chosen to initiate actions against the drainage of wetlands.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Source: PIB
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements
- The National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and the National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP) are merged to form National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems (NPCA).
- NPCA is a centrally sponsored scheme.
- The National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) is implementing the NPCA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
For conservation of lakes and wetlands, Ministry of Environment and Forests has been implementing two separate Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS), namely the National Wetlands Conservation Programme (NWCP) and the National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP).
The Ministry with the approval of GOI in Feb, 2013, has merged the above two schemes into a new integrated scheme named ‘National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems’ (NPCA).
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
The National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) in the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change is implementing the Centrally Sponsored Schemes of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA) for conservation of rivers, lakes and wetlands in the country.
Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Source: PIB
Incorrect
For conservation of lakes and wetlands, Ministry of Environment and Forests has been implementing two separate Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS), namely the National Wetlands Conservation Programme (NWCP) and the National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP).
The Ministry with the approval of GOI in Feb, 2013, has merged the above two schemes into a new integrated scheme named ‘National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems’ (NPCA).
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
The National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) in the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change is implementing the Centrally Sponsored Schemes of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA) for conservation of rivers, lakes and wetlands in the country.
Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Source: PIB
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following statements regarding Ramsar sites is/are incorrect?
- Sundarban wetland of India is the largest among all the Ramsar sites in the World.
- Among the Ramsar Member States, India is home to 2nd highest number of Ramsar sites.
- The Sundarbans Reserved Forest in Bangladesh is also a Ramsar site.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
Sundarbans is the 27th Ramsar Site in India, and with an area of 4,23,000 hectares is now the largest protected wetland in the country.
The largest Ramsar Sites are Ngiri-Tumba-Maindombe in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Queen Maud Gulf in Canada; these Sites each cover over 60,000 square kilometres. Others are as small as one hectare.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India has only 27 Ramsar Sites, which is not even in top-10 countries with highest Ramsar Sites.
The countries with the most Sites are the United Kingdom with 170 and Mexico with 142. Bolivia has the largest area with 148,000 km2 under Ramsar protection.
Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
The Bangladesh part of the Sunderbans had received the Ramsar tag way back in 1992.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/protecting-the-sundarban-wetlands/article26482707.ece
Incorrect
Sundarbans is the 27th Ramsar Site in India, and with an area of 4,23,000 hectares is now the largest protected wetland in the country.
The largest Ramsar Sites are Ngiri-Tumba-Maindombe in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Queen Maud Gulf in Canada; these Sites each cover over 60,000 square kilometres. Others are as small as one hectare.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India has only 27 Ramsar Sites, which is not even in top-10 countries with highest Ramsar Sites.
The countries with the most Sites are the United Kingdom with 170 and Mexico with 142. Bolivia has the largest area with 148,000 km2 under Ramsar protection.
Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
The Bangladesh part of the Sunderbans had received the Ramsar tag way back in 1992.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/protecting-the-sundarban-wetlands/article26482707.ece
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Montreux Record
- A site can only be included in Montreux record with the approval of the Contracting Party concerned.
- Recently India’s Sundarbans Wetland is included in Montreux Record.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
A site can only be included in the Record with the approval of the Contracting Party concerned.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur are the two Ramsar Sites from India that are now a part of Montreux Record.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Chilika Lake, was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002.
Source: Ramsar Website.
Incorrect
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
A site can only be included in the Record with the approval of the Contracting Party concerned.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur are the two Ramsar Sites from India that are now a part of Montreux Record.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Chilika Lake, was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002.
Source: Ramsar Website.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following:
Reef type Predominantly found at 1. Oceanic atolls Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Platform reefs Gulf of Kutch 3. Barrier reefs Lakshadweep group of islands Which of the above are correctly matched?
Correct
Reef type Predominantly found at 1. Barrier reefs Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Platform reefs Gulf of Kutch 3. Oceanic atolls Lakshadweep group of islands 4. Fringing Reefs Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands Incorrect
Reef type Predominantly found at 1. Barrier reefs Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Platform reefs Gulf of Kutch 3. Oceanic atolls Lakshadweep group of islands 4. Fringing Reefs Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements
- Mesophotic coral systems can survive only in well-lit environments.
- Mesophotic coral reefs are not detectable in satellite images.
- Shallow water coral reef systems are found at greater depths compared to Mesphotic Coral Ecosystems.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
General differences between shallow-water coral reef ecosystems and Mesophotic Coral Ecosystem’s.
Shallow-water coral reef ecosystems Mesophotic coral ecosystems (MCEs) Depth range • 0 to approx. 30–40 m. • Lower depth corresponds to a moderate faunal
transition.
•Detectable in satellite images.
• From approx. 30–40 m to deeper than 150 m. • Lower depth limit varies by location due to differences in light penetration and other abiotic factors.
• Not detectable in satellite images.
Light levels • Generally well-lit environments. • Shallow reefs can become light-limited in turbid
waters (e.g. near estuaries)
• Generally middle- to low-light environments. Thermal regime • Generally stable thermal regime. • Shallow, stratified waters with high residence time
may be subject to extreme thermal events causing
coral bleaching.
• Generally temperatures are cooler and naturally more variable on MCEs than on shallower reefs,
especially those located on the continental slope,
which are subject to internal waves.
• Deeper water column may protect MCEs from
extreme (warm) thermal events.
Hydrodynamic Regime
• Subject to breaking waves and turbulence, except in sheltered lagoons.
• Wave-induced shear stress and mobilization of
seafloor sediments.
• High residence times within lagoons.
• Below the depth affected by breaking waves. • Seafloor generally unaffected by wave motion.
Powerful storms can directly and indirectly
impact MCEs (resuspend sediment or cause
a debris avalanche), especially in the upper
mesophotic zone (30–50 m).
Source:https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/mar/11/first-coral-reef-in-italy-discovered-on-adriatic-coast-monopoli-puglia-mesophotic-ecosystem
Incorrect
General differences between shallow-water coral reef ecosystems and Mesophotic Coral Ecosystem’s.
Shallow-water coral reef ecosystems Mesophotic coral ecosystems (MCEs) Depth range • 0 to approx. 30–40 m. • Lower depth corresponds to a moderate faunal
transition.
•Detectable in satellite images.
• From approx. 30–40 m to deeper than 150 m. • Lower depth limit varies by location due to differences in light penetration and other abiotic factors.
• Not detectable in satellite images.
Light levels • Generally well-lit environments. • Shallow reefs can become light-limited in turbid
waters (e.g. near estuaries)
• Generally middle- to low-light environments. Thermal regime • Generally stable thermal regime. • Shallow, stratified waters with high residence time
may be subject to extreme thermal events causing
coral bleaching.
• Generally temperatures are cooler and naturally more variable on MCEs than on shallower reefs,
especially those located on the continental slope,
which are subject to internal waves.
• Deeper water column may protect MCEs from
extreme (warm) thermal events.
Hydrodynamic Regime
• Subject to breaking waves and turbulence, except in sheltered lagoons.
• Wave-induced shear stress and mobilization of
seafloor sediments.
• High residence times within lagoons.
• Below the depth affected by breaking waves. • Seafloor generally unaffected by wave motion.
Powerful storms can directly and indirectly
impact MCEs (resuspend sediment or cause
a debris avalanche), especially in the upper
mesophotic zone (30–50 m).
Source:https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/mar/11/first-coral-reef-in-italy-discovered-on-adriatic-coast-monopoli-puglia-mesophotic-ecosystem
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following statements regarding Mangroves is/are incorrect?
- Mangroves store more carbon per equivalent area than tropical forests.
- Mangrove species have roots which are very shallow.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
Mangroves are great carbon sinks. They store more carbon per equivalent area than tropical forests.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
All mangrove species have laterally spreading roots with attached vertical anchor roots. These roots are very shallow.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators.
Incorrect
Mangroves are great carbon sinks. They store more carbon per equivalent area than tropical forests.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
All mangrove species have laterally spreading roots with attached vertical anchor roots. These roots are very shallow.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements
- Many species of mangrove trees have aerial roots, called Propagules.
- Mangrove seeds begin growing while still attached to plants, these seedlings are called Pneumatophores.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Many species of mangrove trees have aerial roots, called pneumatophores, that take up oxygen from the air for the roots. Some species also have prop roots or stilt roots extending from the trunk or other roots that help them withstand the destructive action of tides, waves, and storm surges.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Many mangrove trees also have a unique method of reproduction. Instead of forming seeds that fall to the soil below and begin growing, mangrove seeds begin growing while still attached to the parent plant. These seedlings, called propagules, even grow roots. After a period of growth, these seedlings drop to the water below and float upright until they reach water that is shallow enough for their roots to take hold in the mud.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Many species of mangrove trees have aerial roots, called pneumatophores, that take up oxygen from the air for the roots. Some species also have prop roots or stilt roots extending from the trunk or other roots that help them withstand the destructive action of tides, waves, and storm surges.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Many mangrove trees also have a unique method of reproduction. Instead of forming seeds that fall to the soil below and begin growing, mangrove seeds begin growing while still attached to the parent plant. These seedlings, called propagules, even grow roots. After a period of growth, these seedlings drop to the water below and float upright until they reach water that is shallow enough for their roots to take hold in the mud.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following:
Ramsar Site State in which it is located 1. Chandertal wetland Uttarakhand 2. Renuka wetland Himachal Pradesh 3. Harike Lake Jammu and Kashmir 4. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura Which of the above are not correctly matched?
Correct
There are 27 Ramsar sites from India.
Ramsar Site State in which it is located Andhra Pradesh 1. Kolleru Assam 2. Deepor Beel Gujarat 3. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary Himachal Pradesh 4. Pong Dam Lake 5. Chandertal Wetland
6. Renuka Wetland
Jammu & Kashmir 7. Wular Lake 8. Tsomoriri
9. Hokera Wetland
10. Surinsar-Mansar Lake
Kerala 11. Vembanad Kol Wetland 12. Ashtamudi Wetland
13. Sasthamkotta lake
Madhya Pradesh 14. Bhoj Wetland Manipur 15. Loktak Lake Odisha 16. Chilika Lake 17. Bhitarkanika Wetland
Punjab 18. Harike Wetland 19. Kanjli Wetland
20. Ropar Wetland
Rajasthan 21. Sambhar Lake 22. Keoladeo National Park
Tamil Nadu 23. Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary Tripura 24. Rudra Sagar Lake Uttar Pradesh 25. Upper Ganga River West Bengal 26. East Calcutta Wetland 27. Sundarbans Wetland
Source: Shankar IAS book.
Incorrect
There are 27 Ramsar sites from India.
Ramsar Site State in which it is located Andhra Pradesh 1. Kolleru Assam 2. Deepor Beel Gujarat 3. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary Himachal Pradesh 4. Pong Dam Lake 5. Chandertal Wetland
6. Renuka Wetland
Jammu & Kashmir 7. Wular Lake 8. Tsomoriri
9. Hokera Wetland
10. Surinsar-Mansar Lake
Kerala 11. Vembanad Kol Wetland 12. Ashtamudi Wetland
13. Sasthamkotta lake
Madhya Pradesh 14. Bhoj Wetland Manipur 15. Loktak Lake Odisha 16. Chilika Lake 17. Bhitarkanika Wetland
Punjab 18. Harike Wetland 19. Kanjli Wetland
20. Ropar Wetland
Rajasthan 21. Sambhar Lake 22. Keoladeo National Park
Tamil Nadu 23. Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary Tripura 24. Rudra Sagar Lake Uttar Pradesh 25. Upper Ganga River West Bengal 26. East Calcutta Wetland 27. Sundarbans Wetland
Source: Shankar IAS book.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Coral reefs
- Fringing Reefs are platforms separated from the adjacent land by a bay or Lagoon.
- Barrier Reefs project seaward directly from the shores of islands or continents.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Reefs are classified in three types. Fringing Reefs, the most common type, project seaward directly from the shores of islands or continents.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Barrier Reefs are platforms separated from the adjacent land by a bay or lagoon.
Barrier Reefs grow parallel to the shoreline and develop due to the subsiding of islands around which fringing reefs grow. They are separated from the mainland by a deep lagoon.
The longest barrier reefs occur off the coasts of Australia.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Atolls are reefs that grow around islands, which gradually sink into the sea over centuries due to volcanic activity leaving the reef behind. Atolls can take up to 30 million years to form.
Atolls rest on the tops of submerged volcanoes. They are usually circular or oval with a central lagoon.
Incorrect
Reefs are classified in three types. Fringing Reefs, the most common type, project seaward directly from the shores of islands or continents.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Barrier Reefs are platforms separated from the adjacent land by a bay or lagoon.
Barrier Reefs grow parallel to the shoreline and develop due to the subsiding of islands around which fringing reefs grow. They are separated from the mainland by a deep lagoon.
The longest barrier reefs occur off the coasts of Australia.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Atolls are reefs that grow around islands, which gradually sink into the sea over centuries due to volcanic activity leaving the reef behind. Atolls can take up to 30 million years to form.
Atolls rest on the tops of submerged volcanoes. They are usually circular or oval with a central lagoon.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements
- While the annual range of temperature is very small, diurnal temperature range is high.
- Tropical rain forests, if cleared are suitable for long term agriculture.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The lushness of the tropical rain forest suggests a high net productivity, but this is illusory as the high rainfall leaches soil minerals below the reach of the plant roots.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
There is a great uniformity of temperature throughout the year, which is around 28 degree Celsius with very little variation.
The diurnal as well as annual range of temperature is very small.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Once the humus is used and the natural vegetative cover is removed, the torrential downpours soon washout most of the soil nutrients, making the soils of tropical rain forest useless for agricultural purposes.
Incorrect
The lushness of the tropical rain forest suggests a high net productivity, but this is illusory as the high rainfall leaches soil minerals below the reach of the plant roots.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
There is a great uniformity of temperature throughout the year, which is around 28 degree Celsius with very little variation.
The diurnal as well as annual range of temperature is very small.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Once the humus is used and the natural vegetative cover is removed, the torrential downpours soon washout most of the soil nutrients, making the soils of tropical rain forest useless for agricultural purposes.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Temperate Forest
- It is characterized by softwood trees.
- The diurnal range of temperature in this biome is very small.
- The soil in the temperate forest is mostly of poor quality.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
Temperate forest is characterized by hardwood trees. Example:- Maple, Oak etc
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
The average temperature in temperate forest is around 15 degree Celsius in the daytime and can get below freezing in the night time. Hence diurnal range is not small.
Hence statement 2 is wrong.
The soil in temperate forest is generally rocky, sandy and is known to be mostly of poor quality.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
The trees in temperate forests shed their leaves in the autumn against that of trees of Tropical deciduous forests which shed their leaves in summer season.
Know about it: Why do trees shed their leaves? and why it is in different seasons for different biomes?
Incorrect
Temperate forest is characterized by hardwood trees. Example:- Maple, Oak etc
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
The average temperature in temperate forest is around 15 degree Celsius in the daytime and can get below freezing in the night time. Hence diurnal range is not small.
Hence statement 2 is wrong.
The soil in temperate forest is generally rocky, sandy and is known to be mostly of poor quality.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
The trees in temperate forests shed their leaves in the autumn against that of trees of Tropical deciduous forests which shed their leaves in summer season.
Know about it: Why do trees shed their leaves? and why it is in different seasons for different biomes?
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements
- Boreal forests represent the largest terrestrial biome.
- The trees of boreal forest tend to have shallow roots.
- The needle-leaves of boreal conifers have thick waxy coatings.
- The soils of boreal forest are generally basic in nature.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Boreal forests or Taiga represent the largest terrestrial biome. Boreal forests are dominated by conifers, especially spruces and firs.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Boreal forests correspond with regions of subarctic and cold continental climate.
There are long severe winters and short summers.
The needles of boreal conifers have thick waxy coatings (a water proof cuticle) in which stomata are sunken and protected from dry winds.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
The trees of boreal forests tend to have shallow roots, due to thin soils.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The soils of the boreal forest are often acidic, due to falling pine needles and low on nutrients since cold temperatures do not allow much foliage to rot.
Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Boreal forests or Taiga represent the largest terrestrial biome. Boreal forests are dominated by conifers, especially spruces and firs.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Boreal forests correspond with regions of subarctic and cold continental climate.
There are long severe winters and short summers.
The needles of boreal conifers have thick waxy coatings (a water proof cuticle) in which stomata are sunken and protected from dry winds.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
The trees of boreal forests tend to have shallow roots, due to thin soils.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The soils of the boreal forest are often acidic, due to falling pine needles and low on nutrients since cold temperatures do not allow much foliage to rot.
Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements
- World’s largest 3D-printed reef is installed in Mauritius.
- In India, artificial reefs are deployed in Vaan island, which is funded by UNEP.
- Vaan island is one of the islands in Andaman and Nicobar islands.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Developed using computer modeling and a 3D printer at a lab in Melbourne, Australia, the artificial reef was designed to resemble reef structures typically found in the Maldives.
The molds were shipped to the Maldives, filled with concrete, assembled on-site at Summer Island and then submerged seven metres below the surface.
Live coral was then transplanted within the artificial reef, where it’s hoped that within two to three years, it will grow and colonise the structure.
The 3D-printed reef installed in Maldives is the world’s largest.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Tamil Nadu government in collaboration with IIT Madras have been restoring Vaan island by deploying artificial reefs.
The Vaan Island project was funded by the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Vaan Island is one of 21 islands in the Gulf of Mannar between India and Sri Lanka.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Developed using computer modeling and a 3D printer at a lab in Melbourne, Australia, the artificial reef was designed to resemble reef structures typically found in the Maldives.
The molds were shipped to the Maldives, filled with concrete, assembled on-site at Summer Island and then submerged seven metres below the surface.
Live coral was then transplanted within the artificial reef, where it’s hoped that within two to three years, it will grow and colonise the structure.
The 3D-printed reef installed in Maldives is the world’s largest.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Tamil Nadu government in collaboration with IIT Madras have been restoring Vaan island by deploying artificial reefs.
The Vaan Island project was funded by the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Vaan Island is one of 21 islands in the Gulf of Mannar between India and Sri Lanka.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following:
Grass Lands Area it is predominantly found in 1. Pustaz Uruguay 2. Veldts Australia 3. Pampas Argentina 4. Downs South America Which of the above are not correctly matched?
Correct
Some of the important grasslands are
Grass Lands Area it is predominantly found in 1. Pustaz Hungary 2. Veldts South Africa 3. Pampas Argentina 4. Downs Australia 5. Savannas Africa 6. Steppes Russia/China 7. Prairies North America Incorrect
Some of the important grasslands are
Grass Lands Area it is predominantly found in 1. Pustaz Hungary 2. Veldts South Africa 3. Pampas Argentina 4. Downs Australia 5. Savannas Africa 6. Steppes Russia/China 7. Prairies North America -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements about different zones of a lake/pond
- Limnetic Zone is warmest of all the zones.
- Benthic Zone is devoid of any life.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The topmost zone near the shore of a lake or pond is the Littoral zone. This zone is the warmest since it is shallow and can absorb more of the Sun’s heat.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The near-surface open water surrounded by the littoral zone is the limnetic zone. The limnetic zone is well-lighted (like the littoral zone) and is dominated by plankton, both phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Benthic Zone is at the bottom of the lake. Tiny, microscopic benthic organisms live in this zone and act as a source of food for bottom feeding animals. Benthic organisms are very important as they are good indicators of water quality.
There are a wide range of species found living within the substrate of the benthic zone, these species are referred to as benthos.
Benthos is also critical for the breakdown of organic matter. Species use organic matter as their food source making them a key player in nutrient cycling process.
Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
Incorrect
The topmost zone near the shore of a lake or pond is the Littoral zone. This zone is the warmest since it is shallow and can absorb more of the Sun’s heat.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The near-surface open water surrounded by the littoral zone is the limnetic zone. The limnetic zone is well-lighted (like the littoral zone) and is dominated by plankton, both phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Benthic Zone is at the bottom of the lake. Tiny, microscopic benthic organisms live in this zone and act as a source of food for bottom feeding animals. Benthic organisms are very important as they are good indicators of water quality.
There are a wide range of species found living within the substrate of the benthic zone, these species are referred to as benthos.
Benthos is also critical for the breakdown of organic matter. Species use organic matter as their food source making them a key player in nutrient cycling process.
Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following statements is/are true Ramsar convention
- It releases the Global Wetland Outlook.
- International Water Management Institute (IWMI) is one of the International Organizational Partners of the convention.
- At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party must designate at least one wetland site within their territory for inclusion in the Ramsar List.
- It is an Intergovernmental treaty.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
Hence statement 4 is correct.
The Convention works very closely with six global non-governmental organizations (NGOs) which have the formal status of International Organization Partners of the Convention. Birdlife International, IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature, Wetlands International and WWF have all been associated with the Convention since its beginnings.
Later International Water Management Institute (IWMI) and Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT) are added.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party must designate at least one wetland site within their territory for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance (the Ramsar List).
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Global Wetland Outlook is released by Ramsar Convention. It provides a current overview of global wetlands: their extent, trends, drivers of change and the responses needed to reverse the historical decline in wetland area and quality.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Source: Ramsar website
Incorrect
The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
Hence statement 4 is correct.
The Convention works very closely with six global non-governmental organizations (NGOs) which have the formal status of International Organization Partners of the Convention. Birdlife International, IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature, Wetlands International and WWF have all been associated with the Convention since its beginnings.
Later International Water Management Institute (IWMI) and Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT) are added.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party must designate at least one wetland site within their territory for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance (the Ramsar List).
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Global Wetland Outlook is released by Ramsar Convention. It provides a current overview of global wetlands: their extent, trends, drivers of change and the responses needed to reverse the historical decline in wetland area and quality.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Source: Ramsar website
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements
- Plants and animals that can tolerate only slight changes in salinity are called Euryhaline.
- Plants and animals that can tolerate wide range of salinities are called Stenohaline .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Plants and animals that can tolerate only slight changes in salinity are called Stenohaline. These organisms usually live in either freshwater or saltwater environments. In general Stenohaline organisms cannot tolerate the rapid changes in salinity.
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
Plants and animals that can tolerate wide range of salinities are called Euryhaline. These are the species that are often found in the brackish water of estuaries. These organisms adapt to constantly changing salinities. For example, the smooth cordgrass has special filters on its roots to remove salt from the water it absorbs.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Plants and animals that can tolerate only slight changes in salinity are called Stenohaline. These organisms usually live in either freshwater or saltwater environments. In general Stenohaline organisms cannot tolerate the rapid changes in salinity.
Hence statement 1 is wrong.
Plants and animals that can tolerate wide range of salinities are called Euryhaline. These are the species that are often found in the brackish water of estuaries. These organisms adapt to constantly changing salinities. For example, the smooth cordgrass has special filters on its roots to remove salt from the water it absorbs.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following correctly explains Marine Snow
Correct
Marine snow is a shower of organic material falling from upper waters to the deep ocean. Marine snow is the falling debris of dead organisms in the ocean, such as plankton and algae.
As plants and animals near the surface of the ocean die and decay, they fall toward the seafloor, just like leaves and decaying material fall onto a forest floor. In addition to dead animals and plants, marine snow also includes fecal matter, sand, soot, and other inorganic dust.
The decaying material is referred to as “marine snow” because it looks a little bit like white fluffy bits. The “snowflakes” grow as they fall, some reaching several centimeters in diameter. Some flakes fall for weeks before finally reaching the ocean floor.
This continuous rain of marine snow provides food for many deep-sea creatures. Many animals in the dark parts of the ocean filter marine snow from the water or scavenge it from the seabed. NOAA scientists and others have measured the amount of useable material in marine snow and found that there is plenty of carbon and nitrogen to feed many of the scavengers in the deep sea.
The small percentage of material not consumed in shallower waters becomes incorporated into the muddy “ooze” blanketing the ocean floor, where it is further decomposed through biological activity. About three-quarters of the deep ocean floor is covered in this thick, smooth ooze. The ooze collects as much as six meters every million years.
Incorrect
Marine snow is a shower of organic material falling from upper waters to the deep ocean. Marine snow is the falling debris of dead organisms in the ocean, such as plankton and algae.
As plants and animals near the surface of the ocean die and decay, they fall toward the seafloor, just like leaves and decaying material fall onto a forest floor. In addition to dead animals and plants, marine snow also includes fecal matter, sand, soot, and other inorganic dust.
The decaying material is referred to as “marine snow” because it looks a little bit like white fluffy bits. The “snowflakes” grow as they fall, some reaching several centimeters in diameter. Some flakes fall for weeks before finally reaching the ocean floor.
This continuous rain of marine snow provides food for many deep-sea creatures. Many animals in the dark parts of the ocean filter marine snow from the water or scavenge it from the seabed. NOAA scientists and others have measured the amount of useable material in marine snow and found that there is plenty of carbon and nitrogen to feed many of the scavengers in the deep sea.
The small percentage of material not consumed in shallower waters becomes incorporated into the muddy “ooze” blanketing the ocean floor, where it is further decomposed through biological activity. About three-quarters of the deep ocean floor is covered in this thick, smooth ooze. The ooze collects as much as six meters every million years.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following:
Mangroves Location 1. Godavari-Krishna Mangroves Telangana 2. Pichavaram Mangroves Andhra Pradesh 3. Baratang Island Mangroves Lakshadweep Which of the above are not correctly matched?
Correct
Mangroves Location 1. Godavari-Krishna Mangroves Andhra Pradesh 2. Pichavaram Mangroves Tamil Nadu 3. Baratang Island Mangroves Andaman 4. Sundarbans West Bengal 5. Bhitarkanika Odisha Incorrect
Mangroves Location 1. Godavari-Krishna Mangroves Andhra Pradesh 2. Pichavaram Mangroves Tamil Nadu 3. Baratang Island Mangroves Andaman 4. Sundarbans West Bengal 5. Bhitarkanika Odisha -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)’
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment as a Central Sector Scheme.
- Identified manual scavengers and their dependents are provided with loans upto Rs. 15 lacs at concessional rate of interest.
Select the correct statements
Correct
Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment as a Central Sector Scheme
Identified manual scavengers and their dependents are provided the following rehabilitation benefits:
- Onetime cash assistance of Rs.40000/-.
- Loans upto Rs. 15.00 lacs at concessional rate of interest.
- Credit linked back end capital subsidy upto Rs. 3,25,000/-.
- Skill Development Training upto two years with stipend of Rs.3000/- per month
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1540792
Incorrect
Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment as a Central Sector Scheme
Identified manual scavengers and their dependents are provided the following rehabilitation benefits:
- Onetime cash assistance of Rs.40000/-.
- Loans upto Rs. 15.00 lacs at concessional rate of interest.
- Credit linked back end capital subsidy upto Rs. 3,25,000/-.
- Skill Development Training upto two years with stipend of Rs.3000/- per month
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1540792
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS)’
- It aims to support Indian entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad
- The financing is solely decided by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
Select the correct statements
Correct
Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS)
- Under the CFS, GoI has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad
- MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA)
- The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA
- The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance.
- The scheme envisages Government of India to provide counter guarantee and interest equalization of 2 % to EXIM Bank to offer concessional finance to any foreign Govt. or foreign Govt. owned or controlled entity, if any Indian entity, succeeds in getting contract for the execution of a project.
Impact
- Having projects of strategic interest to India executed by Indian entities, the CFS enables India to generate substantial backward linkage induced jobs, demand for material and machinery in India and also a lot of goodwill for India.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1541088
Incorrect
Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS)
- Under the CFS, GoI has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad
- MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA)
- The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA
- The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance.
- The scheme envisages Government of India to provide counter guarantee and interest equalization of 2 % to EXIM Bank to offer concessional finance to any foreign Govt. or foreign Govt. owned or controlled entity, if any Indian entity, succeeds in getting contract for the execution of a project.
Impact
- Having projects of strategic interest to India executed by Indian entities, the CFS enables India to generate substantial backward linkage induced jobs, demand for material and machinery in India and also a lot of goodwill for India.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1541088
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Indian star tortoise’
- It is found only in India
- It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List
- The species is prohibited from export under the Foreign Trade Policy
Select the correct statements
Correct
Indian star tortoises
- It is categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ in the red list of endangered species of the IUCN.
- It is listed in the Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and prohibited from export under the Foreign Trade Policy.
- The species are liable for confiscation under the Customs Act, 1962.
- It has been included on Appendix II of the CITES
- Native: India (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Orissa, Tamil Nadu); Pakistan; Sri Lanka
- It naturally inhabits scrub forests, grasslands, and some coastal scrublands of arid and semi-arid regions throughout its wide range, but also commonly inhabits human-dominated landscapes.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/1125-indian-star-tortoises-seized-from-three-train-passengers/article24610332.ece
Incorrect
Indian star tortoises
- It is categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ in the red list of endangered species of the IUCN.
- It is listed in the Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and prohibited from export under the Foreign Trade Policy.
- The species are liable for confiscation under the Customs Act, 1962.
- It has been included on Appendix II of the CITES
- Native: India (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Orissa, Tamil Nadu); Pakistan; Sri Lanka
- It naturally inhabits scrub forests, grasslands, and some coastal scrublands of arid and semi-arid regions throughout its wide range, but also commonly inhabits human-dominated landscapes.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/1125-indian-star-tortoises-seized-from-three-train-passengers/article24610332.ece
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)’ is/are correct?
- In case of accidental death or full disability, the payment to the nominee will be ₹2 lakh and in case of partial Permanent disability ₹1 lakh
- It is available to people between 18 and 60 years of age with bank accounts
- The GST is exempted on Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
Select the correct statements
Correct
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
- It was launched with a view to enhance the level of insurance penetration in the country and to provide insurance cover to common people especially poor and the Under-privileged Sections of the society.
- It is available to people between 18 and 70 years of age with bank accounts.
- It has an annual premium of ₹12 exclusive of taxes.
- The GST is exempted on Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana.
- The amount will be automatically debited from the account.
- The accident insurance scheme will have one year cover from June 1 to May 31 and would be offered through banks and administered through public sector general insurance companies.
Risk Coverage:
- Death – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot – Rs.1 Lakh.
Incorrect
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
- It was launched with a view to enhance the level of insurance penetration in the country and to provide insurance cover to common people especially poor and the Under-privileged Sections of the society.
- It is available to people between 18 and 70 years of age with bank accounts.
- It has an annual premium of ₹12 exclusive of taxes.
- The GST is exempted on Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana.
- The amount will be automatically debited from the account.
- The accident insurance scheme will have one year cover from June 1 to May 31 and would be offered through banks and administered through public sector general insurance companies.
Risk Coverage:
- Death – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot – Rs.1 Lakh.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to ‘RBI survey of inward remittances for 2016-17’ is/are correct?
- United States has emerged as the top source of inward remittances to India
- Maharashtra receives the highest number of inward remittances
Select the correct statements
Correct
RBI survey of inward remittances for 2016-17
- United Arab Emirates (UAE) has emerged as the top source of inward remittances, while Kerala has received the maximum funds sent from abroad
- UAE’s share in total remittances was 26.9%, followed by the United States (22.9%), Saudi Arabia (11.6%), Qatar (6.5%) and Kuwait (5.5%).
- 82% of the total remittances received by India originated from eight countries — UAE, the U.S., Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman, the United Kingdom and Malaysia.
- Among destinations, Kerala has the highest share with 19%, followed by Maharashtra (16.7%), Karnataka (15%), Tamil Nadu (8%) and Delhi (5.9%).
- Kerala, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu together received 58.7% of total remittances.
- More than half of remittances received by Indian residents were used for family maintenance, i.e., consumption (59.2%).
- Rupee drawing arrangement (RDA) is the most popular channel of remittances which accounts for 75.2% of remittances, followed by SWIFT (19.5%), direct transfers (3.4%) and cheques and drafts (1.9%).
Incorrect
RBI survey of inward remittances for 2016-17
- United Arab Emirates (UAE) has emerged as the top source of inward remittances, while Kerala has received the maximum funds sent from abroad
- UAE’s share in total remittances was 26.9%, followed by the United States (22.9%), Saudi Arabia (11.6%), Qatar (6.5%) and Kuwait (5.5%).
- 82% of the total remittances received by India originated from eight countries — UAE, the U.S., Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman, the United Kingdom and Malaysia.
- Among destinations, Kerala has the highest share with 19%, followed by Maharashtra (16.7%), Karnataka (15%), Tamil Nadu (8%) and Delhi (5.9%).
- Kerala, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu together received 58.7% of total remittances.
- More than half of remittances received by Indian residents were used for family maintenance, i.e., consumption (59.2%).
- Rupee drawing arrangement (RDA) is the most popular channel of remittances which accounts for 75.2% of remittances, followed by SWIFT (19.5%), direct transfers (3.4%) and cheques and drafts (1.9%).
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
They outweigh people by about 7,500 to 1, and make up more than 80% of the world’s biomass as per a new census based on biomass. What is being referred to here?
Correct
Plants outweigh all
They outweigh people by about 7,500 to 1, and make up more than 80% of the world’s biomass, a study in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences concluded.
- Bacteria are nearly 13% of the world’s biomass.
- Fungi yeast, mold and mushrooms make up about 2%.
These estimates aren’t very exact, the real numbers could be more or less, but they give a sense of proportion.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/humans-form-a-minuscule-part-of-life-on-earth/article23961689.ece
Incorrect
Plants outweigh all
They outweigh people by about 7,500 to 1, and make up more than 80% of the world’s biomass, a study in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences concluded.
- Bacteria are nearly 13% of the world’s biomass.
- Fungi yeast, mold and mushrooms make up about 2%.
These estimates aren’t very exact, the real numbers could be more or less, but they give a sense of proportion.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/humans-form-a-minuscule-part-of-life-on-earth/article23961689.ece
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
4500-year-old DNA from Rakhigarhi was recently examined and a term ‘Haplogroup’ was seen. Which of the following closely describes a haplogroup?
Correct
A haplotype is a group of alleles in an organism that are inherited together from a single parent, and a haplogroup is a group of similar haplotypes that share a common ancestor with a single-nucleotide polymorphism mutation.
Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/magazine/cover-story/story/20180910-rakhigarhi-dna-study-findings-indus-valley-civilisation-1327247-2018-08-31
Incorrect
A haplotype is a group of alleles in an organism that are inherited together from a single parent, and a haplogroup is a group of similar haplotypes that share a common ancestor with a single-nucleotide polymorphism mutation.
Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/magazine/cover-story/story/20180910-rakhigarhi-dna-study-findings-indus-valley-civilisation-1327247-2018-08-31
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following is not a medicinal plant?
Correct
Oleander (Nerium oleander) is an evergreen shrub or small tree that is prized by home gardeners for its showy, funnel-shaped blooms.
Oleanders are fast-growing and easy to care for, which makes them an appealing landscape plant.
However, all parts of this plant are highly toxic and in some locations is considered invasive.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=181668
Incorrect
Oleander (Nerium oleander) is an evergreen shrub or small tree that is prized by home gardeners for its showy, funnel-shaped blooms.
Oleanders are fast-growing and easy to care for, which makes them an appealing landscape plant.
However, all parts of this plant are highly toxic and in some locations is considered invasive.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=181668
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
This recently found exoplanet is three times the size of Jupiter and only half as dense. It is the hottest exoplanet where iron and titanium glow in it. Which of the following is it?
Correct
KELT-9b, one of the most unlikely planets ever discovered, has surprised astronomers yet again with the discovery that its atmosphere contains the metals iron and titanium.
The planet is truly like no other. Located around 620 light-years away from Earth in the constellation Cygnus, it is known as a Hot Jupiter – which gives a hint to its nature. Nearly three times the size of Jupiter, its surface temperature tops 3780 degrees Celsius – the hottest exoplanet ever discovered. It is even hotter than the surface of some stars. In some ways it straddles the line between a star and a gas-giant exoplanet.
Source: https://www.latestly.com/technology/science/alien-planet-kelt-9b-has-hottest-temperatures-exceeding-4000c-327715.html
Incorrect
KELT-9b, one of the most unlikely planets ever discovered, has surprised astronomers yet again with the discovery that its atmosphere contains the metals iron and titanium.
The planet is truly like no other. Located around 620 light-years away from Earth in the constellation Cygnus, it is known as a Hot Jupiter – which gives a hint to its nature. Nearly three times the size of Jupiter, its surface temperature tops 3780 degrees Celsius – the hottest exoplanet ever discovered. It is even hotter than the surface of some stars. In some ways it straddles the line between a star and a gas-giant exoplanet.
Source: https://www.latestly.com/technology/science/alien-planet-kelt-9b-has-hottest-temperatures-exceeding-4000c-327715.html
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
In July 2018, Mars will be at its closest point to Earth in 15 years. This phenomenon also brought a term known as ‘Mars at Opposition”. Which of the following explains ‘Mars at Opposition’?
Correct
Mars orbits the Sun at a greater distance than Earth. As the distance increases, the orbital period also increases.
While Earth takes a little more than 365 days to go round the Sun, Mars takes 687 days.
Due to the difference of the orbital speed and orbital period, every 26 months or so Earth passes between Mars and the Sun, bringing Mars and Sun on exactly opposite sides of the Earth. This is called Mars at Opposition.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/up-there-with-mars-dont-miss-our-neighbours-brightest-show/article24554732.ece
Incorrect
Mars orbits the Sun at a greater distance than Earth. As the distance increases, the orbital period also increases.
While Earth takes a little more than 365 days to go round the Sun, Mars takes 687 days.
Due to the difference of the orbital speed and orbital period, every 26 months or so Earth passes between Mars and the Sun, bringing Mars and Sun on exactly opposite sides of the Earth. This is called Mars at Opposition.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/up-there-with-mars-dont-miss-our-neighbours-brightest-show/article24554732.ece