IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
Given the fact that the coveted civil services attract lakhs of youngsters to appear in the examination every year, stiff competition is a given! With the experience attained through multiple interactions with thousands of students and mentoring them, we have realised that cracking this examination takes more than just plain learning and application of concepts. It requires emotional management also. In fact, we can put it first in the prerequisites of qualifying this examination. With hardly a month remaining for the preliminary examination, we thought that sharing our experiences and the ways to tackle various scenarios that you must be facing now will help you manage your anxieties and apprehensions.
One thing that we must understand is that we are all different, our problems, priorities and pains are different and therefore the ways and means to address them are also different. You might be facing the same examination as your roommate is; but for both you, the challenges and moods might be different. In the next few paragraphs, we present an exhaustive list of scenarios that you as a candidate might be facing. Please see whether you fit somewhere in this classification. We have also provided the reasons behind the feelings that you might be experiencing in different scenarios and have also tried to give solutions to address them positively. It is also possible that you find yourself in two or even more than two scenarios. We hope that this objective scenario analysis will help you overcome your anxieties and lead to your success eventually.
Scenario 1: You have not yet completed your revision. Wit each passing day, you rewrite your schedule and convince yourself that there is enough time to revise all the subjects. But deep within, you are a bit scared.
Why does it happen: It happens because your emotions are torn between your commitment to excel and reality. You are committed to clear the exam but at the same time have apprehensions that you might lose it eventually. It happens with the majority of candidates (in fact with the top rankers as well!). The major factor could be your overcommitment due to which you covered so many things in the first phase of the study that it is becoming unmanageable to revise them all. The fear of not revising the hard work already done creates even more anxiety! Another reason could, of course, be procrastination. This is a fundamental human trait in the 21st century. With the internet and social media in our hands, we tend to postpone important things in our life.
What can be done: The first and the foremost thing that you need to do is to prioritise. Believe us, it doesn’t take more than 50% of your acquired knowledge to take the form of wisdom. It is wisdom that does the rest. It simply means that an investment in knowledge always pays the best interest. You might not be able to revise everything that you have read in the past few months but still, the wisdom acquired with the help of those readings will sail you through. Therefore, make a fixed time table and stick to it. Prioritise the areas you need to focus without getting too much concerned about the portions that you are going to leave in this process. The second most important thing to do is to stop procrastinating. Do it now, sometimes later becomes never!
Scenario 2: Everything was going fine. You were scoring high marks test after tests and everyone was betting on your preparation and potential. But then, the last few tests have gone haywire. You have lost the sheen and your performance has dropped. You feel that you are losing it now!
Why does it happen: Success makes us complacent. It also makes failures hard to accept. Our mind and emotions get habitual of pride and praise. A departure from the norm makes it difficult to adapt to the new realities. It hurts the confidence and brings a further dip in performance.
What can be done: No success is permanent and no failure is fatal. The mocks that you are appearing in are meant to train you for the ultimate battle. By no stretch of the imagination, they can become the yardstick to decide your performance in the actual examination. Your failure or rather the limited success in the recent tests mean nothing more than a reminder. It simply tells you to be more careful and don’t take things for granted. You are well prepared and only need to focus harder. Don’t lose the momentum now! It will be fatal. Take your failures with a pinch of salt and move on. Neither try too hard nor be listless. Just keep doing your job.
Scenario 3: This is your last attempt and you are in severe stress. You always think about the results. What if you don’t qualify this time too? What will your parents, friends and family think? have you waited your career?
Why does it happen: It happens because we humans are insecure beings. The feeling of insecurity of any kind overpowers our thinking. We start focusing too much on the negative possibilities rather than the positive ones. We start blaming our fate and also lose faith in hard work. Moreover, having spent a considerable amount of time, the feeling of impatience and frustration starts to foster. Lack of security in terms of career makes us uneasy an under-confident.
What can be done: Understand the concept of time zones. Different parts of the world have different times because they lie in different time zones. Human beings are also in their time zones. It simply means that just like sunlight doesn’t come all at once to the entire planet, success also comes at different times for different individuals. What affects your chances however is despondency. What if this is your time right now? What if there is a guarantee of success this time? Don’t lose this opportunity. Give your 100% and hope for the best. If you sail through, nothing can be better and even if you don’t, there are millions of opportunities waiting to be explored.
Scenario 4: This is your first attempt. You know that there are so many experienced players already in competition. You have a feeling that you don’t stand a chance.
Why does it happen: Contrary to the concept of ‘beginner’s advantage’, freshers suffer from the ill-placed syndrome of ‘beginners disadvantage’. They have a feeling that cramming up concepts of UPSC for years can give an individual edge over the others. This is natural as it happens in many other fields also, most notably sports and jobs.
What can be done: How do some sportsmen have the dream debuts? Why do many first-timers crack UPSC in the very first attempt? The answer is simple. If you have the right tools, the right attitude and the right frame of mind, it doesn’t matter if you are a fresher or a veteran; you will always succeed. You have nothing to lose and no one to compete with except yourself. Just focus on improving your own performance without bothering too much about the people around you.
Scenario 5: You see highly intelligent people around yourself. They study in groups and always keep discussing new concepts, some of which just fly over your head. You have a feeling that you don’t have what it takes to become a civil servant.
Why does it happen: We always tend to put ourselves in comparison to others. Even a slight hint of inferiority bewilders us. We start feeling that we can’t compete with the more competent and the smarter lot. We start feeling excluded and that affects our confidence adversely.
What can be done: Even the smartest and the most talented players have been defeated by the consistent ones. Civil services examination requires consistency in efforts and a willingness to better ourselves. If one goes on to make others as the benchmark, he is bound to get lost in the process. The best thing to do is to stay true to your commitment, strive hard with each passing day and hour and keep improving your abilities. Believe us, success shall be yours.
Scenario 6: You are scared of numbers. Can you succeed by competing lakhs of students? You didn’t even feature in the top 20% of your class in the school/ college! How can you be there in the top 0.5% of the candidates appearing in the examination?
Why does it happen: We get overwhelmed by numbers. India is a country of millions of jobless youth competing neck to neck with each other to get their dream jobs. It is natural to be scared of such stiff competition.
What can be done: A reality check will soothe your senses. Of the lakhs that appear in the preliminary examination, the ones who are actually prepared and hold some potential might only be thousands in number. Moreover, they are all facing the same competition. They are all equally scared of the numbers. You are not alone in this fear. The more you overcome this fear, the better are your chances to succeed.
Scenario 7: Everything is going great. You are high on confidence. You have firm belief in your abilities and hard work. You are sure to crack this examination.
Why does it happen: Hard work and a high level of preparedness give confidence. But it can also lead to overconfidence which can be fatal for you. Many times, brilliant candidates peak much before the actual examination and falter on the ‘D day’.
What can be done: Don’t let your performance peak right now. Remain humble and wait for the right time to give your best performance. There are many like you who are confident of clearing the examination. You have to compete with them and the best way to do it is by not letting your confidence corrupt your senses.
Scenario 8: You are appearing this year just to measure the depth of waters. You will come stronger and better prepared next year. You simply want to have a “feel” of this examination.
Why does it happen: This again is a natural human tendency. Many a time, we don’t give the full throttle fearing failure. We keep convincing ourselves that we have the potential to succeed and we will definitely taste success one day. This escapist tendency might actually be harmful sometimes.
What can be done: Don’t appear in the examination if you aren’t fully prepared. Examination as a process seeps into your intellectual faculties and can cause irreversible harm by affecting your confidence. You won’t even realise it and it will break your spirits. So it is better to stay away from such wishful thinking. If at all, you want to have the “feel”, it would be much better if you attempt the paper at home after the examination.
So, where do you find yourself? It’s perfectly fine to be scared or anxious. We are all human beings. But at the same time, we must have the intelligence to tackle our emotions and move in the right direction.
Success is what we want and success is what we should work for!
All the Best
IASbaba Team
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Forest Rights Act, 2006:
- The law recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest-dwellers.
- The law made the gram sabha the statutory body for managing forestlands and protecting them.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Parliament had passed the Forest Rights Act in 2006. This law gave back to traditional forest dwellers their rights to access, manage and govern forest lands and resources within village boundaries, which had been controlled by the forest department since colonial times.
In other words, the Forest Rights Act 2006 recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes (STs) and other traditional forest-dwellers.
The law made the gram sabha the statutory body for managing forestlands, and protecting them. It provides that no activity should be carried out in these forests until individual and community claims over them have been settled.
Incorrect
The Parliament had passed the Forest Rights Act in 2006. This law gave back to traditional forest dwellers their rights to access, manage and govern forest lands and resources within village boundaries, which had been controlled by the forest department since colonial times.
In other words, the Forest Rights Act 2006 recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes (STs) and other traditional forest-dwellers.
The law made the gram sabha the statutory body for managing forestlands, and protecting them. It provides that no activity should be carried out in these forests until individual and community claims over them have been settled.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are true about 73rd Amendment Act?
- The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution.
- The act has given constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions.
- The state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act.
Choose correct answer:
Correct
73rd Amendment Act
- This act added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. It is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
- The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that, “The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
- In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act.
- Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
Incorrect
73rd Amendment Act
- This act added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. It is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
- The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that, “The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
- In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act.
- Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the below statements:
- Formation of panchayats and holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government.
- All the members and chairpersons of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
According to the 73rd Amendment Act – the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system. Neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
Incorrect
According to the 73rd Amendment Act – the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system. Neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Q.4) Consider the below statements with regard to Panchayat Raj and identify the incorrect statement:
Correct
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) provided compulsory (obligatory or mandatory) and voluntary (discretionary or optional) provisions.
Compulsory provisions include –
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
Incorrect
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) provided compulsory (obligatory or mandatory) and voluntary (discretionary or optional) provisions.
Compulsory provisions include –
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements:
- The Governor constitutes state finance commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panachayats.
- The Governor makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.
- The Governor shall place the recommendations of the commission along with the action taken report before the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
The Governor constitutes a state finance commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panachayats.
The state legislature provides for the composition of the state finance commission, the required qualifications of its members and the manner of their selection.
The governor place the recommendations of the commission along with the action taken report before the state legislature.
The state legislature makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and the auditing of such accounts. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Incorrect
The Governor constitutes a state finance commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panachayats.
The state legislature provides for the composition of the state finance commission, the required qualifications of its members and the manner of their selection.
The governor place the recommendations of the commission along with the action taken report before the state legislature.
The state legislature makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and the auditing of such accounts. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Q.6) Which among the following is/are objectives of the PESA Act?
- To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population.
- To extend the provisions of Part XI of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas.
- To have village governance with participatory democracy.
Choose correct answer:
Correct
The objectives of the PESA Act are as follows:
- To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications (not Part XI)
- To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population
- To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities
- To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices
- To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities
- To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements
- To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha
Incorrect
The objectives of the PESA Act are as follows:
- To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications (not Part XI)
- To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population
- To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities
- To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices
- To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities
- To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements
- To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Q.7) Consider the below statements:
- Edwin Samuel Montagu is called as the ‘father of local self government’ in India.
- The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Viceroy, Lord Ripon, is known as ‘Magna Carta’ or ‘Father’ of Local Self Government in India.
Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.
Incorrect
The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Viceroy, Lord Ripon, is known as ‘Magna Carta’ or ‘Father’ of Local Self Government in India.
Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Q.8) Which of the below given statements is/are not correct about State Election Commission?
- The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission.
- The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities.
Select the appropriate code from below:
Correct
Both the given statements are correct, however question asks for not correct statements. Hence, (d) none is the correct answer.
Election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission. The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities.
Incorrect
Both the given statements are correct, however question asks for not correct statements. Hence, (d) none is the correct answer.
Election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission. The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Q.9) Consider the following statements with regard to removal of a member of the UPSC:
- The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office.
- However, it is mandatory that the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances: (without referring the matter to the Supreme Court)
- If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
- If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
- If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he
- is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or
- participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
Incorrect
The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances: (without referring the matter to the Supreme Court)
- If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
- If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
- If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he
- is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or
- participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Q.10) Consider the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India:
- He is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal for a period of five years.
- He can only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
CAG
- Is appointed by President by warrant under his hand and seal
- Holds the office for 6 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
- Can resign anytime from his office addressing letter to President.
- Can be removed by President on same grounds and in same manner as a judge of S.C. i.e., on the basis of the resolution passed by both the houses with special majority, either on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Incorrect
CAG
- Is appointed by President by warrant under his hand and seal
- Holds the office for 6 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
- Can resign anytime from his office addressing letter to President.
- Can be removed by President on same grounds and in same manner as a judge of S.C. i.e., on the basis of the resolution passed by both the houses with special majority, either on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Q.11) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Gram Sabha?
Correct
Only adult villagers who have the right to vote can be member of Gram Sabha. Persons below 18 years of age can’t become members.
Gram Sabha plays a supervisory and monitoring role over Gram Panchayat by approving it plan of work.
Gram Sabha form committees like construction, animal husbandry, etc to carry out some specific tasks.
The Gram Panchayat has a Secretary who is also the Secretary of the Gram Sabha. This person is not an elected person but is appointed by the government. The Secretary is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.
Incorrect
Only adult villagers who have the right to vote can be member of Gram Sabha. Persons below 18 years of age can’t become members.
Gram Sabha plays a supervisory and monitoring role over Gram Panchayat by approving it plan of work.
Gram Sabha form committees like construction, animal husbandry, etc to carry out some specific tasks.
The Gram Panchayat has a Secretary who is also the Secretary of the Gram Sabha. This person is not an elected person but is appointed by the government. The Secretary is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Q.12) At the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’ is dealt with by which of the following ministries:
- Ministry of Urban Development
- Ministry of Defence
- Ministry of Home Affairs
Select the correct code given below:
Correct
The system of urban government was constitutionalised through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. At the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’ is dealt with by the following three ministries:
- Ministry of Urban Development, created as a separate ministry in 1985
- Ministry of Defence in the case of cantonment boards
- Ministry of Home Affairs in the case of Union Territories
Incorrect
The system of urban government was constitutionalised through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. At the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’ is dealt with by the following three ministries:
- Ministry of Urban Development, created as a separate ministry in 1985
- Ministry of Defence in the case of cantonment boards
- Ministry of Home Affairs in the case of Union Territories
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Q.13) Which of the statements provided below is/are true in regard to all-India services?
- All-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States.
- While they are serving in a state, they are under the control of the central government.
- States can take disciplinary action, however they cannot remove these officers from service.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government.
Hence, States cannot take disciplinary action nor can they remove these officers from service.
Incorrect
The all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government.
Hence, States cannot take disciplinary action nor can they remove these officers from service.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Q.14) The functions of the National Commission for SCs include:
- To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the SCs
- To discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs) and the Anglo-Indian Community
- The commission presents an annual report to the Parliament upon their working
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
The commission presents an annual report to the President (not Parliament) upon their working.
The functions of the National Commission for SCs are:
- To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the SCs and to evaluate their working;
- To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the SCs;
- To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the SCs and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union or a state; and so on.
The Central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the SCs.
The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs) and the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the Commission has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upon their working.
Incorrect
The commission presents an annual report to the President (not Parliament) upon their working.
The functions of the National Commission for SCs are:
- To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the SCs and to evaluate their working;
- To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the SCs;
- To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the SCs and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union or a state; and so on.
The Central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the SCs.
The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs) and the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the Commission has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upon their working.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Q.15) In which of the following commissions, Constitution of India has not prescribed or authorised the Parliament to determine the qualifications for the commission’s membership?
- UPSC
- Election Commission
- Finance Commission
- Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Code:
Correct
Only in the case of Finance Commission, Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to determine the qualifications for the commission’s membership.
Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
- A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
- A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
- A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
- A person who has special knowledge of economics.
Incorrect
Only in the case of Finance Commission, Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to determine the qualifications for the commission’s membership.
Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
- A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
- A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
- A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
- A person who has special knowledge of economics.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Q.16) Which among the following is set up by the legislation enacted by the Central Government?
Correct
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government.
Thus, unlike the other four types of urban local bodies (i.e., Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area Committee and Town Area Committee) which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
Incorrect
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government.
Thus, unlike the other four types of urban local bodies (i.e., Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area Committee and Town Area Committee) which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Q.17) The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:
Correct
The functions of the UPSC can be extended by Parliament.
Incorrect
The functions of the UPSC can be extended by Parliament.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Q.18) Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
- He is appointed by the President of India.
- He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
- He can be removed by impeachment process by the Parliament.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Attorney General is appointed by the President. He should be qualified to be a Judge of Supreme Court i.e. must be citizen of India and
- Should have been Judge of some High court for atleast 5 years
- Or should have been an advocate of some High court for atleast 10 years
- Or eminent jurist in the eyes of the President
Under article 76, impeachment procedure of Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
Incorrect
Attorney General is appointed by the President. He should be qualified to be a Judge of Supreme Court i.e. must be citizen of India and
- Should have been Judge of some High court for atleast 5 years
- Or should have been an advocate of some High court for atleast 10 years
- Or eminent jurist in the eyes of the President
Under article 76, impeachment procedure of Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Q.19) The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:
Correct
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India. He implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central cadre established for the purpose.
Incorrect
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India. He implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central cadre established for the purpose.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Q.20) With reference to the Advocate General, consider the following statements:
- He is appointed by governor but removed by President.
- The remuneration of the advocate general is fixed by the Constitution
- He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Advocate General
- The advocate general is appointed by the governor.
- The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
- He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time.
- The remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the governor may determine.
- He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.
Incorrect
Advocate General
- The advocate general is appointed by the governor.
- The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
- He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time.
- The remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the governor may determine.
- He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Q.21) ‘Press Freedom Index’ is published by
Correct
The Press Freedom Index is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders.
Incorrect
The Press Freedom Index is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Q.22) ‘BOLD-QIT’ refers to Border Management System along the
Correct
India-Bangladesh border in Dhubri District of Assam.
Incorrect
India-Bangladesh border in Dhubri District of Assam.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Q.23) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘anti-satellite (ASAT) weapon’ which was recently in news.
- India was the first country in the world to use ASAT in a military conflict
- It is a ground based system which can hack and jam a satellite in a Low Earth Orbit.
Select the correct statements
Correct
No country has used ASAT yet in a military conflict.
It is basically a ballistic missile.
Incorrect
No country has used ASAT yet in a military conflict.
It is basically a ballistic missile.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’
- Banks whose assets exceed 1% of GDP are considered part of this group
- D-SIB means that the bank is too big to fail
Select the correct statements
Correct
D-SIB means that the bank is too big to fail. Banks whose assets exceed 2% of GDP are considered part of this group. Some banks become systemically important due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity and lack of substitute and interconnection
Incorrect
D-SIB means that the bank is too big to fail. Banks whose assets exceed 2% of GDP are considered part of this group. Some banks become systemically important due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity and lack of substitute and interconnection
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘REIT (Real Estate Investment Trust)’
- It pools funds from a number of investors and invests them in rent-generating properties.
- The entry point for an investor is 50,000/- rupees
Select the correct statements
Correct
India’s first real estate investment trust (REIT) has become a reality. The first REIT initial public offering (IPO) by Embassy Office Parks, a Bangalore-based real estate developer backed by Blackstone Group LP, a global private equity firm, was open for investment between March 18 and 20, 2019.
REITs are securities linked to real estate that can be traded on stock exchanges once they get listed. The structure of REITs is similar to that of a mutual fund. Just like mutual funds, there are sponsors, trustees, fund managers and unit holders in REITs. However, unlike mutual funds, where the underlying asset is bonds, stocks and gold, REITs invest in physical real estate. The money collected is deployed in income-generating real estate. This income gets distributed among the unit holders. Besides regular income from rents and leases, gains from capital appreciation of real estate also form an income for the unit holders.
In the latest amendment on 1 March 2019, Sebi reduced the minimum investment limit in REIT to ₹50,000 from ₹2 lakh. However, since Embassy Office Parks REIT IPO was filed much before the amendment, the minimum amount is above ₹2 lakh.
Incorrect
India’s first real estate investment trust (REIT) has become a reality. The first REIT initial public offering (IPO) by Embassy Office Parks, a Bangalore-based real estate developer backed by Blackstone Group LP, a global private equity firm, was open for investment between March 18 and 20, 2019.
REITs are securities linked to real estate that can be traded on stock exchanges once they get listed. The structure of REITs is similar to that of a mutual fund. Just like mutual funds, there are sponsors, trustees, fund managers and unit holders in REITs. However, unlike mutual funds, where the underlying asset is bonds, stocks and gold, REITs invest in physical real estate. The money collected is deployed in income-generating real estate. This income gets distributed among the unit holders. Besides regular income from rents and leases, gains from capital appreciation of real estate also form an income for the unit holders.
In the latest amendment on 1 March 2019, Sebi reduced the minimum investment limit in REIT to ₹50,000 from ₹2 lakh. However, since Embassy Office Parks REIT IPO was filed much before the amendment, the minimum amount is above ₹2 lakh.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Q.26) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
- Marayur jiggery – Maharashtra
- Sirsi Supari – Kerala
- Thirubhuvanam Silk – Tamil Nadu
Select the correct statements
Correct
Marayur jiggery – Kerala
Sirsi Supari – Karnataka
Thirubhuvanam Silk – Tamil Nadu
Incorrect
Marayur jiggery – Kerala
Sirsi Supari – Karnataka
Thirubhuvanam Silk – Tamil Nadu
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Lokpal Act, 2013’
- Lokpal should consist of a chairperson and such number of members, not exceeding eight, of whom 50% should be from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
- The Act states that not less than 50% of the members of the Lokpal should be from among persons belonging to the SCs, the STs, OBCs, minorities and women.
- The Prime Minister does not come under the purview of this Act
Select the correct statements
Correct
Under the 2013 Act, the Lokpal should consist of a chairperson and such number of members, not exceeding eight, of whom 50% should be judicial members.
The Act states that not less than 50% of the members of the Lokpal should be from among persons belonging to the SCs, the STs, OBCs, minorities and women. The same rules apply members of the search committee. Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court.
If a complaint is filed against the Prime Minister, the Act says, “Lokpal shall inquire or cause an inquiry to be conducted into any matter involved in, or arising from, or connected with, any allegation of corruption made in a complaint”. However, certain conditions will apply.
Incorrect
Under the 2013 Act, the Lokpal should consist of a chairperson and such number of members, not exceeding eight, of whom 50% should be judicial members.
The Act states that not less than 50% of the members of the Lokpal should be from among persons belonging to the SCs, the STs, OBCs, minorities and women. The same rules apply members of the search committee. Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court.
If a complaint is filed against the Prime Minister, the Act says, “Lokpal shall inquire or cause an inquiry to be conducted into any matter involved in, or arising from, or connected with, any allegation of corruption made in a complaint”. However, certain conditions will apply.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Q.28) The Official Secrets Act, 1923 was notified during the tenure of?
Correct
OSA in short, it has its roots in the British colonial era. The original version was The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act XIV), 1889. This was brought in with the main objective of muzzling the voice of a large number of newspapers that had come up in several languages, and were opposing the Raj’s policies, building political consciousness and facing police crackdowns and prison terms. It was amended and made more stringent in the form of The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1904, during Lord Curzon’s tenure as Viceroy of India. In 1923, a newer version was notified (Lord Reading (1921-1926). The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act No XIX of 1923) was extended to all matters of secrecy and confidentiality in governance in the country.
Incorrect
OSA in short, it has its roots in the British colonial era. The original version was The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act XIV), 1889. This was brought in with the main objective of muzzling the voice of a large number of newspapers that had come up in several languages, and were opposing the Raj’s policies, building political consciousness and facing police crackdowns and prison terms. It was amended and made more stringent in the form of The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1904, during Lord Curzon’s tenure as Viceroy of India. In 1923, a newer version was notified (Lord Reading (1921-1926). The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act No XIX of 1923) was extended to all matters of secrecy and confidentiality in governance in the country.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Q.29) ‘One Nation, One Card’ refers to
Correct
National Common Mobility Card
It is the Indigenous Automatic Fare Collection System based on One Nation One Card Model i.e. National Common Mobility Card (NCMC).
Incorrect
National Common Mobility Card
It is the Indigenous Automatic Fare Collection System based on One Nation One Card Model i.e. National Common Mobility Card (NCMC).
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Q.30) ‘Forward Search Experiment’ is associated with
Correct
FASER is an experiment designed to look for light and weakly interacting particles at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC).
Incorrect
FASER is an experiment designed to look for light and weakly interacting particles at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC).