IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
Given the fact that the coveted civil services attract lakhs of youngsters to appear in the examination every year, stiff competition is a given! With the experience attained through multiple interactions with thousands of students and mentoring them, we have realised that cracking this examination takes more than just plain learning and application of concepts. It requires emotional management also. In fact, we can put it first in the prerequisites of qualifying this examination. With hardly a month remaining for the preliminary examination, we thought that sharing our experiences and the ways to tackle various scenarios that you must be facing now will help you manage your anxieties and apprehensions.
One thing that we must understand is that we are all different, our problems, priorities and pains are different and therefore the ways and means to address them are also different. You might be facing the same examination as your roommate is; but for both you, the challenges and moods might be different. In the next few paragraphs, we present an exhaustive list of scenarios that you as a candidate might be facing. Please see whether you fit somewhere in this classification. We have also provided the reasons behind the feelings that you might be experiencing in different scenarios and have also tried to give solutions to address them positively. It is also possible that you find yourself in two or even more than two scenarios. We hope that this objective scenario analysis will help you overcome your anxieties and lead to your success eventually.
Scenario 1: You have not yet completed your revision. Wit each passing day, you rewrite your schedule and convince yourself that there is enough time to revise all the subjects. But deep within, you are a bit scared.
Why does it happen: It happens because your emotions are torn between your commitment to excel and reality. You are committed to clear the exam but at the same time have apprehensions that you might lose it eventually. It happens with the majority of candidates (in fact with the top rankers as well!). The major factor could be your overcommitment due to which you covered so many things in the first phase of the study that it is becoming unmanageable to revise them all. The fear of not revising the hard work already done creates even more anxiety! Another reason could, of course, be procrastination. This is a fundamental human trait in the 21st century. With the internet and social media in our hands, we tend to postpone important things in our life.
What can be done: The first and the foremost thing that you need to do is to prioritise. Believe us, it doesn’t take more than 50% of your acquired knowledge to take the form of wisdom. It is wisdom that does the rest. It simply means that an investment in knowledge always pays the best interest. You might not be able to revise everything that you have read in the past few months but still, the wisdom acquired with the help of those readings will sail you through. Therefore, make a fixed time table and stick to it. Prioritise the areas you need to focus without getting too much concerned about the portions that you are going to leave in this process. The second most important thing to do is to stop procrastinating. Do it now, sometimes later becomes never!
Scenario 2: Everything was going fine. You were scoring high marks test after tests and everyone was betting on your preparation and potential. But then, the last few tests have gone haywire. You have lost the sheen and your performance has dropped. You feel that you are losing it now!
Why does it happen: Success makes us complacent. It also makes failures hard to accept. Our mind and emotions get habitual of pride and praise. A departure from the norm makes it difficult to adapt to the new realities. It hurts the confidence and brings a further dip in performance.
What can be done: No success is permanent and no failure is fatal. The mocks that you are appearing in are meant to train you for the ultimate battle. By no stretch of the imagination, they can become the yardstick to decide your performance in the actual examination. Your failure or rather the limited success in the recent tests mean nothing more than a reminder. It simply tells you to be more careful and don’t take things for granted. You are well prepared and only need to focus harder. Don’t lose the momentum now! It will be fatal. Take your failures with a pinch of salt and move on. Neither try too hard nor be listless. Just keep doing your job.
Scenario 3: This is your last attempt and you are in severe stress. You always think about the results. What if you don’t qualify this time too? What will your parents, friends and family think? have you waited your career?
Why does it happen: It happens because we humans are insecure beings. The feeling of insecurity of any kind overpowers our thinking. We start focusing too much on the negative possibilities rather than the positive ones. We start blaming our fate and also lose faith in hard work. Moreover, having spent a considerable amount of time, the feeling of impatience and frustration starts to foster. Lack of security in terms of career makes us uneasy an under-confident.
What can be done: Understand the concept of time zones. Different parts of the world have different times because they lie in different time zones. Human beings are also in their time zones. It simply means that just like sunlight doesn’t come all at once to the entire planet, success also comes at different times for different individuals. What affects your chances however is despondency. What if this is your time right now? What if there is a guarantee of success this time? Don’t lose this opportunity. Give your 100% and hope for the best. If you sail through, nothing can be better and even if you don’t, there are millions of opportunities waiting to be explored.
Scenario 4: This is your first attempt. You know that there are so many experienced players already in competition. You have a feeling that you don’t stand a chance.
Why does it happen: Contrary to the concept of ‘beginner’s advantage’, freshers suffer from the ill-placed syndrome of ‘beginners disadvantage’. They have a feeling that cramming up concepts of UPSC for years can give an individual edge over the others. This is natural as it happens in many other fields also, most notably sports and jobs.
What can be done: How do some sportsmen have the dream debuts? Why do many first-timers crack UPSC in the very first attempt? The answer is simple. If you have the right tools, the right attitude and the right frame of mind, it doesn’t matter if you are a fresher or a veteran; you will always succeed. You have nothing to lose and no one to compete with except yourself. Just focus on improving your own performance without bothering too much about the people around you.
Scenario 5: You see highly intelligent people around yourself. They study in groups and always keep discussing new concepts, some of which just fly over your head. You have a feeling that you don’t have what it takes to become a civil servant.
Why does it happen: We always tend to put ourselves in comparison to others. Even a slight hint of inferiority bewilders us. We start feeling that we can’t compete with the more competent and the smarter lot. We start feeling excluded and that affects our confidence adversely.
What can be done: Even the smartest and the most talented players have been defeated by the consistent ones. Civil services examination requires consistency in efforts and a willingness to better ourselves. If one goes on to make others as the benchmark, he is bound to get lost in the process. The best thing to do is to stay true to your commitment, strive hard with each passing day and hour and keep improving your abilities. Believe us, success shall be yours.
Scenario 6: You are scared of numbers. Can you succeed by competing lakhs of students? You didn’t even feature in the top 20% of your class in the school/ college! How can you be there in the top 0.5% of the candidates appearing in the examination?
Why does it happen: We get overwhelmed by numbers. India is a country of millions of jobless youth competing neck to neck with each other to get their dream jobs. It is natural to be scared of such stiff competition.
What can be done: A reality check will soothe your senses. Of the lakhs that appear in the preliminary examination, the ones who are actually prepared and hold some potential might only be thousands in number. Moreover, they are all facing the same competition. They are all equally scared of the numbers. You are not alone in this fear. The more you overcome this fear, the better are your chances to succeed.
Scenario 7: Everything is going great. You are high on confidence. You have firm belief in your abilities and hard work. You are sure to crack this examination.
Why does it happen: Hard work and a high level of preparedness give confidence. But it can also lead to overconfidence which can be fatal for you. Many times, brilliant candidates peak much before the actual examination and falter on the ‘D day’.
What can be done: Don’t let your performance peak right now. Remain humble and wait for the right time to give your best performance. There are many like you who are confident of clearing the examination. You have to compete with them and the best way to do it is by not letting your confidence corrupt your senses.
Scenario 8: You are appearing this year just to measure the depth of waters. You will come stronger and better prepared next year. You simply want to have a “feel” of this examination.
Why does it happen: This again is a natural human tendency. Many a time, we don’t give the full throttle fearing failure. We keep convincing ourselves that we have the potential to succeed and we will definitely taste success one day. This escapist tendency might actually be harmful sometimes.
What can be done: Don’t appear in the examination if you aren’t fully prepared. Examination as a process seeps into your intellectual faculties and can cause irreversible harm by affecting your confidence. You won’t even realise it and it will break your spirits. So it is better to stay away from such wishful thinking. If at all, you want to have the “feel”, it would be much better if you attempt the paper at home after the examination.
So, where do you find yourself? It’s perfectly fine to be scared or anxious. We are all human beings. But at the same time, we must have the intelligence to tackle our emotions and move in the right direction.
Success is what we want and success is what we should work for!
All the Best
IASbaba Team
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to National Human Rights Commission and identify the incorrect statement:
Correct
National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act. Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
It may call for information or report from the Central and state governments or any other authority subordinate thereto.
The commission has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Besides, it is empowered to utilise the services of any officer or investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose.
Incorrect
National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act. Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
It may call for information or report from the Central and state governments or any other authority subordinate thereto.
The commission has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Besides, it is empowered to utilise the services of any officer or investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Q.2) Consider the below statements:
- NHRC submits its annual or special reports to the President.
- CAG submits its audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to the Governor.
- The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
NHRC submits its annual or special reports to the Central government and to the state government concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
CAG submits its audit reports relating to the accounts of a Centre to President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament (Article 151).
CAG submits its audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature (Article 151).
The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
Incorrect
NHRC submits its annual or special reports to the Central government and to the state government concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
CAG submits its audit reports relating to the accounts of a Centre to President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament (Article 151).
CAG submits its audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature (Article 151).
The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the below statements:
- The Protection of Human Rights Act (1993) provides for the establishment of Human Rights Court in every district.
- For every Human Rights Court, the chairman of SHRC specifies a public prosecutor or appoints an advocate as a special public prosecutor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Protection of Human Rights Act (1993) also provides for the establishment of Human Rights Court in every district for the speedy trial of violation of human rights.
Do you know?
- These courts can be set up by the state government only with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court of that state.
- For every Human Rights Court, the state government specifies a public prosecutor or appoints an advocate (who has practiced for seven years) as a special public prosecutor.
Incorrect
The Protection of Human Rights Act (1993) also provides for the establishment of Human Rights Court in every district for the speedy trial of violation of human rights.
Do you know?
- These courts can be set up by the state government only with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court of that state.
- For every Human Rights Court, the state government specifies a public prosecutor or appoints an advocate (who has practiced for seven years) as a special public prosecutor.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Q.4) Which among the following statements is/are correct with reference to National Human Rights Commission?
- It has power to punish the violators of human rights.
- It has power to award monetary relief to the victim.
- Its recommendations are not binding on the concerned government or authority.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
- It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
- Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the concerned government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month.
Do you know?
- The Parliament has passed the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. The amended Act just empowers the Commission to recommend award of compensation.
Incorrect
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
- It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
- Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the concerned government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month.
Do you know?
- The Parliament has passed the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. The amended Act just empowers the Commission to recommend award of compensation.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Q.5) With reference to State Human Rights Commission, which among the below given statements is/are correct?
- SHRC can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II).
- Chairperson and members of a SHRC are appointed by the governor and can be removed only by the President.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.
The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and two members. They are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President (and not by the governor).
Incorrect
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.
The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and two members. They are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President (and not by the governor).
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Q.6) Consider the below statements with regard to tenure of Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner:
- They hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- They are not eligible for reappointment.
- IC is eligible for appointment as CIC but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as IC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
However, the Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.
Incorrect
The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
However, the Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Q.7) With reference to CIC, consider the below statements:
- It submits an annual report to the President on the implementation of the provisions of RTI Act.
- It can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Incorrect
The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Q.8) In 2004, the Government of India authorised which among the following body as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action?
Correct
In 2004, the Government of India authorised the CVC as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.
Incorrect
In 2004, the Government of India authorised the CVC as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Q.9) Consider the following statements:
- CVC is a statutory body established under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
- Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Recently, in September 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
The Central Vigilance Commission Bill having been passed by both the Houses of Parliament received the assent of the president on 11 September 2003. It came on the statute Book as the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
CVC was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Incorrect
Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Recently, in September 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
The Central Vigilance Commission Bill having been passed by both the Houses of Parliament received the assent of the president on 11 September 2003. It came on the statute Book as the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
CVC was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission (CIC):
- It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
- It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government, State Government and the Union Territories.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Central Information Commission (CIC) was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
CIC entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.
Incorrect
Central Information Commission (CIC) was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
CIC entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Q.11) Who appoints Lokayukta and Upalokayukta?
Correct
The lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state. While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults (a) the chief justice of the state high court, and (b) the leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly.
Incorrect
The lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state. While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults (a) the chief justice of the state high court, and (b) the leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI):
- GANHRI is affiliated to United Nations.
- It is a global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs).
- GANHRI accreditation confers international recognition and protection of the NHRI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), formerly known as the International Coordinating Committee of National Human Rights Institutions, is a global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs) – administrative bodies set up to promote, protect and monitor human rights in a given country.
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has retained its ‘A’ status of accreditation with the United Nations (UN) mandated GANHRI in Geneva for the fourth consecutive term of five years.
The accreditation confers international recognition and protection of the NHRI.
‘A’ status accreditation also grants participation in the work and decision-making of the GANHRI.
This status is given to those NHRIs, which, after a rigorous process of review every five years, are found fully compliant with the UN mandated Paris Principles.
Adopted in 1993 by the United Nations General Assembly, the Paris Principles require NHRIs to protect human rights, including by receiving, investigating and resolving complaints, mediating conflicts and monitoring activities; and promote human rights, through education, outreach, the media, publications, training and capacity building, as well as advising and assisting the government.
Reference –
Incorrect
Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), formerly known as the International Coordinating Committee of National Human Rights Institutions, is a global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs) – administrative bodies set up to promote, protect and monitor human rights in a given country.
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has retained its ‘A’ status of accreditation with the United Nations (UN) mandated GANHRI in Geneva for the fourth consecutive term of five years.
The accreditation confers international recognition and protection of the NHRI.
‘A’ status accreditation also grants participation in the work and decision-making of the GANHRI.
This status is given to those NHRIs, which, after a rigorous process of review every five years, are found fully compliant with the UN mandated Paris Principles.
Adopted in 1993 by the United Nations General Assembly, the Paris Principles require NHRIs to protect human rights, including by receiving, investigating and resolving complaints, mediating conflicts and monitoring activities; and promote human rights, through education, outreach, the media, publications, training and capacity building, as well as advising and assisting the government.
Reference –
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Q.13) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up on the recommendation of:
Correct
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962 -1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Incorrect
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962 -1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Q.14) Consider the following statements about Universal Periodic Review (UPR)
- It is established by the Geneva-based UN Human Rights Council (HRC)
- It is a process in which human rights record of each of the UN’s member countries is peer-reviewed every four or five years
- The recommendations accepted at the UPR in HRC are binding in nature
Select the correct statements
Correct
The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a process established by the Geneva-based UN Human Rights Council (HRC), under which the human rights record of each of the UN’s 193 member countries is peer-reviewed every four or five years.
The UN created the HRC in 2006 after several member countries complained that its predecessor, the Human Rights Commission, was vulnerable to bullying by powerful countries (such as the US) which prevented, obfuscated or filibustered the review of their friends and allies (such as Israel).
Under the HRC’s UPR, every country has the opportunity to make recommendations on every other country’s human rights record. The first UPR took place in 2008, the second in 2012, and the third is ongoing.
The recommendations are not binding, but they carry the moral imprimatur of the international community behind them.
Incorrect
The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a process established by the Geneva-based UN Human Rights Council (HRC), under which the human rights record of each of the UN’s 193 member countries is peer-reviewed every four or five years.
The UN created the HRC in 2006 after several member countries complained that its predecessor, the Human Rights Commission, was vulnerable to bullying by powerful countries (such as the US) which prevented, obfuscated or filibustered the review of their friends and allies (such as Israel).
Under the HRC’s UPR, every country has the opportunity to make recommendations on every other country’s human rights record. The first UPR took place in 2008, the second in 2012, and the third is ongoing.
The recommendations are not binding, but they carry the moral imprimatur of the international community behind them.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Q.15) Which of the following statements regarding this scheme are correct with regard to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna (PMMVY)?
- The scheme aims at increasing the respect of mothers working as a housewife.
- The scheme will create awareness and encourage students in schools to organize prayers for their mothers to acknowledge her contribution in their lives.
Select the code from following:
Correct
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
- PMMVY is implemented by the Ministry of Women & Child Development in collaboration with State Governments.
- PMMVY, previously Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY), is a maternity benefit program run by the government of India.
- It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for first two live births.
- It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage-loss during childbirth and childcare and to provide conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices.
- In 2013, the scheme was brought under the National Food Security Act, 2013 to implement the provision of cash maternity benefit of ₹6,000 stated in the Act.
- However, the cash incentive was reduced from Rs 6,000 to Rs 5,000, to be given in three instalments.
- The Benefits will be provided through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Refer –
Incorrect
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
- PMMVY is implemented by the Ministry of Women & Child Development in collaboration with State Governments.
- PMMVY, previously Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY), is a maternity benefit program run by the government of India.
- It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for first two live births.
- It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage-loss during childbirth and childcare and to provide conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices.
- In 2013, the scheme was brought under the National Food Security Act, 2013 to implement the provision of cash maternity benefit of ₹6,000 stated in the Act.
- However, the cash incentive was reduced from Rs 6,000 to Rs 5,000, to be given in three instalments.
- The Benefits will be provided through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Refer –
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Q.16) Consider the following statements with regard to POSHAN Abhiyaan:
- It is India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers.
- Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal ministry.
- Under POSHAN Abhiyaan, September 2018 was celebrated as the Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
POSHAN Abhiyaan is India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers by leveraging technology, a targeted approach and convergence.
The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the concerned ministry.
Do you know?
- POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched on 8th March 2018 by the Prime Minister.
- September 2018 was celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah under POSHAN Abhiyaan.
- The Abhiyaan targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
- The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.
Refer –
Incorrect
POSHAN Abhiyaan is India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers by leveraging technology, a targeted approach and convergence.
The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the concerned ministry.
Do you know?
- POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched on 8th March 2018 by the Prime Minister.
- September 2018 was celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah under POSHAN Abhiyaan.
- The Abhiyaan targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
- The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.
Refer –
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Q.17) Consider the following statements with reference to the special provisions given to certain classes
- The constitution does not specify the castes and tribes which are to be called the Scheduled castes (SCs) or Scheduled tribes (STs).
- The expression Other Backward Classes (OBCs) was inserted and defined in the constitution through Sixty-ninth Amendment Act, 1991.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the scheduled castes (SCs) or the scheduled tribes (STs). It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs.
Similarly, the Constitution has neither specified the Backward Classes (BCs) nor used a single uniform expression to characterise the BCs. The expression ‘BCs’ means such backward classes of citizens other than the SCs and the STs as may be specified by the Central Government. Thus the expression ‘BCs’ in this context means the ‘Other Backward Classes’ (OBCs) as the SCs and STs are also backward classes of citizens.
Sixty-ninth amendment act inserted Article 239AA which confers a special status to Delhi among UTs where it was a provided with a legislative assembly to make laws on state subjects.
Do you know?
- Unlike in the case of SCs, STs and OBCs, the Constitution has clearly defined the persons who belong to the Anglo-Indian community.
Incorrect
The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the scheduled castes (SCs) or the scheduled tribes (STs). It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs.
Similarly, the Constitution has neither specified the Backward Classes (BCs) nor used a single uniform expression to characterise the BCs. The expression ‘BCs’ means such backward classes of citizens other than the SCs and the STs as may be specified by the Central Government. Thus the expression ‘BCs’ in this context means the ‘Other Backward Classes’ (OBCs) as the SCs and STs are also backward classes of citizens.
Sixty-ninth amendment act inserted Article 239AA which confers a special status to Delhi among UTs where it was a provided with a legislative assembly to make laws on state subjects.
Do you know?
- Unlike in the case of SCs, STs and OBCs, the Constitution has clearly defined the persons who belong to the Anglo-Indian community.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Q.18) Consider the following regarding ‘Central Adoption Resource Authority’ (CARA)
- It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
- It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Central Adoption Resource Authority
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
- It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
- CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
- CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
Incorrect
Central Adoption Resource Authority
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
- It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
- CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
- CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Q.19) Article 142 is news often. The Article is associated with –
Correct
Article 142 deals with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court.
As per it ‘the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice…’
Do you know?
- The article is often in news for judicial activism or overreach.
- Article 142(2) enables the Supreme Court to investigate and punish any person for its contempt.
Refer –
Incorrect
Article 142 deals with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court.
As per it ‘the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice…’
Do you know?
- The article is often in news for judicial activism or overreach.
- Article 142(2) enables the Supreme Court to investigate and punish any person for its contempt.
Refer –
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Q.20) Consider the following about Compensation Scheme for Women Victims/Survivors of Sexual Assault/Other Crimes-2018
- It is scheme announced by the Centre in 2013 after the December 16, 2012 gangrape and murder case in Delhi to support the initiatives on women’s safety across the country.
- The scheme is for compensating women victims of sexual assault and acid attack.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Compensation Scheme for Women Victims/Survivors of Sexual Assault/Other Crimes-2018
- It is scheme, proposed by the National Legal Services Authority, for compensating victims of sexual assault and acid attack.
- Supreme Court has now extended the scheme to make it applicable to child victims of such assaults.
About the scheme:
- As per NALSA’s scheme, victim of gangrape in any part of the country would now get a minimum compensation of Rs 5 lakh and up to a maximum of Rs 10 lakh.
- Similarly, in case of rape and unnatural sexual assault, the victim would get a minimum of Rs 4 lakh and maximum of Rs 7 lakh as compensation.
- The scheme also says that victim of acid attacks, in case of disfigurement of face, would get a minimum compensation of Rs 7 lakh, while the upper limit would be Rs 8 lakh.
- In acid attack cases, if the injury was more than 50 per cent, a minimum compensation of Rs 5 lakh would be given, while the maximum would be Rs 8 lakh.
Refer –
- https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/scheme-to-compensate-victims-of-sexual-assaults-should-include-children-sc/article24514956.ece
- https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-bats-for-minor-rape-survivors/article24874534.ece
- https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/just-recompense/article26935867.ece
Incorrect
Compensation Scheme for Women Victims/Survivors of Sexual Assault/Other Crimes-2018
- It is scheme, proposed by the National Legal Services Authority, for compensating victims of sexual assault and acid attack.
- Supreme Court has now extended the scheme to make it applicable to child victims of such assaults.
About the scheme:
- As per NALSA’s scheme, victim of gangrape in any part of the country would now get a minimum compensation of Rs 5 lakh and up to a maximum of Rs 10 lakh.
- Similarly, in case of rape and unnatural sexual assault, the victim would get a minimum of Rs 4 lakh and maximum of Rs 7 lakh as compensation.
- The scheme also says that victim of acid attacks, in case of disfigurement of face, would get a minimum compensation of Rs 7 lakh, while the upper limit would be Rs 8 lakh.
- In acid attack cases, if the injury was more than 50 per cent, a minimum compensation of Rs 5 lakh would be given, while the maximum would be Rs 8 lakh.
Refer –
- https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/scheme-to-compensate-victims-of-sexual-assaults-should-include-children-sc/article24514956.ece
- https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-bats-for-minor-rape-survivors/article24874534.ece
- https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/just-recompense/article26935867.ece
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Q.21) Which of the following is not an ‘Asian rhino-range country’?
Correct
Asian rhino-range countries – India, Bhutan, Indonesia, Malaysia and Nepal
Incorrect
Asian rhino-range countries – India, Bhutan, Indonesia, Malaysia and Nepal
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Q.22) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Tribes State
- Kattunayakan – Odisha
- Soliga – Karnataka
- Kolam – Maharashtra
Select the correct code:
Correct
Kattunayakar are a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Soliga, also spelled Sholaga and Shōlaga, is an ethnic group of India. Its members inhabit the Biligiriranga Hills and associated ranges in southern Karnataka, mostly in the Chamarajanagar and Erode districts of Tamil Nadu.
Kolam are a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Incorrect
Kattunayakar are a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Soliga, also spelled Sholaga and Shōlaga, is an ethnic group of India. Its members inhabit the Biligiriranga Hills and associated ranges in southern Karnataka, mostly in the Chamarajanagar and Erode districts of Tamil Nadu.
Kolam are a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Q.23) Global Electric Vehicle Outlook is published by
Correct
Global Electric Vehicle Outlook is published by the International Energy Agency.
Incorrect
Global Electric Vehicle Outlook is published by the International Energy Agency.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP)’
- It aims at completion of the on-going projects already approved under FMP Flood Management Programme (FMP)
- It caters to Hydro-meteorological observations and Flood Forecasting on common rivers with the neighbouring countries
Select the correct statements
Correct
Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP)
About
- The FMBAP Scheme will be implemented throughout the country for effective flood management, erosion control and anti-sea erosion.
- The proposal will benefit towns, villages, industrial establishments, communication links, agricultural fields, infrastructure etc. from floods and erosion in the country.
- The catchment area treatment works will help in reduction of sediment load into rivers.
- The funding pattern for FM Component for works in general category States will continue to be 50% (Centre) : 50% (State) and for projects of North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the funding pattern will continue to be 70% (Centre) : 30% (State).
- RMBA component being specific to activities in border areas with neighbouring countries and in accordance with bilateral mechanisms, the projects / works will continue to be funded as 100% grant-in-aid / central assistance.
Features
- The Scheme “FMBAP” has been framed by merging the components of two continuing XII Plan schemes titled “Flood Management Programme (FMP)” and “River Management Activities and Works related to Border Areas (RMBA)”.
- The aim of the Scheme is to assist the State Governments to provide reasonable degree of protection against floods in critical areas by adopting optimum combination of structural and non-structural measures and enhancing capabilities of State/Central Government officials in related fields.
- The works under the scheme will protect valuable land from erosion and flooding and help in maintaining peace along the border.
- The Scheme aims at completion of the on-going projects already approved under FMP.
- Further, the scheme also caters to Hydro-meteorological observations and Flood Forecasting on common rivers with the neighbouring countries.
- The Scheme also includes survey and investigations, preparation of DPR etc. of water resources projects on the common rivers with neighbouring countries like Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project, Sapta Kosi-Sun Kosi Projects in Nepal which would benefit both countries.
Incorrect
Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP)
About
- The FMBAP Scheme will be implemented throughout the country for effective flood management, erosion control and anti-sea erosion.
- The proposal will benefit towns, villages, industrial establishments, communication links, agricultural fields, infrastructure etc. from floods and erosion in the country.
- The catchment area treatment works will help in reduction of sediment load into rivers.
- The funding pattern for FM Component for works in general category States will continue to be 50% (Centre) : 50% (State) and for projects of North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the funding pattern will continue to be 70% (Centre) : 30% (State).
- RMBA component being specific to activities in border areas with neighbouring countries and in accordance with bilateral mechanisms, the projects / works will continue to be funded as 100% grant-in-aid / central assistance.
Features
- The Scheme “FMBAP” has been framed by merging the components of two continuing XII Plan schemes titled “Flood Management Programme (FMP)” and “River Management Activities and Works related to Border Areas (RMBA)”.
- The aim of the Scheme is to assist the State Governments to provide reasonable degree of protection against floods in critical areas by adopting optimum combination of structural and non-structural measures and enhancing capabilities of State/Central Government officials in related fields.
- The works under the scheme will protect valuable land from erosion and flooding and help in maintaining peace along the border.
- The Scheme aims at completion of the on-going projects already approved under FMP.
- Further, the scheme also caters to Hydro-meteorological observations and Flood Forecasting on common rivers with the neighbouring countries.
- The Scheme also includes survey and investigations, preparation of DPR etc. of water resources projects on the common rivers with neighbouring countries like Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project, Sapta Kosi-Sun Kosi Projects in Nepal which would benefit both countries.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Q.25) White Label ATMs can source cash from
- Cooperative banks
- Regional rural banks
- Reserve Bank of India
Select the correct code:
Correct
White Label ATM – Update
- In a step to boost activities of white label automated (WLA) teller machine operators, the RBI has allowed such entities to buy wholesale cash, above a threshold of 1 lakh pieces of any denomination, directly from the RBI and currency chests against full payment.
- WLAs are also allowed to source cash from scheduled banks, including cooperative banks and regional rural banks
Incorrect
White Label ATM – Update
- In a step to boost activities of white label automated (WLA) teller machine operators, the RBI has allowed such entities to buy wholesale cash, above a threshold of 1 lakh pieces of any denomination, directly from the RBI and currency chests against full payment.
- WLAs are also allowed to source cash from scheduled banks, including cooperative banks and regional rural banks
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Q.26) The term ‘Biological Diversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ)’ is related to
Correct
The first session of the Intergovernmental Conference (IGC) on an international legally binding instrument (ILBI) under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) considered a document prepared by the IGC President, which aimed at leading to substantive discussions based on the elements of a package agreed in 2011 on:
- marine genetic resources (MGRs), including questions on benefit-sharing; environmental impact assessments (EIAs); area-based management tools (ABMTs), including marine protected areas (MPAs); and capacity building and marine technology transfer (CB&TT)
The second session of the Intergovernmental Conference (IGC) on an international legally binding instrument under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) is scheduled in April 2019.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/second-session-of-the-intergovernmental-conference-on-bbnj/
Incorrect
The first session of the Intergovernmental Conference (IGC) on an international legally binding instrument (ILBI) under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) considered a document prepared by the IGC President, which aimed at leading to substantive discussions based on the elements of a package agreed in 2011 on:
- marine genetic resources (MGRs), including questions on benefit-sharing; environmental impact assessments (EIAs); area-based management tools (ABMTs), including marine protected areas (MPAs); and capacity building and marine technology transfer (CB&TT)
The second session of the Intergovernmental Conference (IGC) on an international legally binding instrument under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) is scheduled in April 2019.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/second-session-of-the-intergovernmental-conference-on-bbnj/
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Q.27) The Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN) promote the accelerated transfer of environmentally sound technologies for low carbon and climate resilient development at the request of developing countries. CCTN is hosted by:
Correct
The CTCN promotes the accelerated transfer of environmentally sound technologies for low carbon and climate resilient development at the request of developing countries. We provide technology solutions, capacity building and advice on policy, legal and regulatory frameworks tailored to the needs of individual countries.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment) hosts the CTCN in collaboration with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the support of a consortium of partners that are engaged in some 1,500 activities related to climate technologies in over 150 countries.
India is part of the consortium.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/13th-meeting-of-the-ctcn-advisory-board/
Incorrect
The CTCN promotes the accelerated transfer of environmentally sound technologies for low carbon and climate resilient development at the request of developing countries. We provide technology solutions, capacity building and advice on policy, legal and regulatory frameworks tailored to the needs of individual countries.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment) hosts the CTCN in collaboration with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the support of a consortium of partners that are engaged in some 1,500 activities related to climate technologies in over 150 countries.
India is part of the consortium.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/13th-meeting-of-the-ctcn-advisory-board/
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Q.28) The ‘Land and Poverty Conference-2019’ is news recently is related to:
Correct
The Land and Poverty conference presents the latest research and innovations in policies and good practice on land governance around the world. This conference has become one of the largest international events on land governance, attracting over 1,500 participants from governments, academics, civil society, and the private sector.
20th Annual World Bank Conference on Land and Poverty! This year’s conference theme will be: Catalyzing Innovation.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/land-and-poverty-conference-2019-catalyzing-innovation/
Incorrect
The Land and Poverty conference presents the latest research and innovations in policies and good practice on land governance around the world. This conference has become one of the largest international events on land governance, attracting over 1,500 participants from governments, academics, civil society, and the private sector.
20th Annual World Bank Conference on Land and Poverty! This year’s conference theme will be: Catalyzing Innovation.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/events/land-and-poverty-conference-2019-catalyzing-innovation/
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Q.29) ‘Global Resources Outlook 2019: Natural Resources for the Future we Want’ is related to:
Correct
The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has published the summary for policymakers (SPM) of a major global report on the status and trends of natural resource use and management, the ‘Global Resources Outlook 2019: Natural Resources for the Future we Want.’
The SPM and the underlying report will be presented at the fourth session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-4).
Note- Global Environment Outlook, Global Chemicals Outlook and Global Mercury Assessment also published by UNEP.
Incorrect
The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has published the summary for policymakers (SPM) of a major global report on the status and trends of natural resource use and management, the ‘Global Resources Outlook 2019: Natural Resources for the Future we Want.’
The SPM and the underlying report will be presented at the fourth session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-4).
Note- Global Environment Outlook, Global Chemicals Outlook and Global Mercury Assessment also published by UNEP.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Q.30) The UN General Assembly (UNGA) has proclaimed ‘X’ as UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. What is X?
Correct
The UN General Assembly (UNGA) proclaimed 2021-2030 UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. The Decade will be implemented “within existing structures and available resources,” with the aim of supporting and scaling up efforts to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems worldwide and raise awareness of the importance of successful ecosystem restoration.
Note- Decade of Action for Road Safety 2011-2020
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unga-proclaims-un-decade-on-ecosystem-restoration/
Incorrect
The UN General Assembly (UNGA) proclaimed 2021-2030 UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. The Decade will be implemented “within existing structures and available resources,” with the aim of supporting and scaling up efforts to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems worldwide and raise awareness of the importance of successful ecosystem restoration.
Note- Decade of Action for Road Safety 2011-2020
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unga-proclaims-un-decade-on-ecosystem-restoration/
