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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 2]

  • IASbaba
  • March 23, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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For Previous (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner.

In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision.

Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision.

You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


POLITY [DAY 2]


Q.1) Which of the following contains the provisions related to co-operative societies?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Choose correct option:

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?

  1. Abolition of untouchability
  2. Abolition of titles
  3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
  4. Protection of interests of minorities

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.3) Which of the statements given below is/are true with reference to Article 29 of Indian Constitution?

  1. Under Article 29, all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  2. Article 29 grants protection to both linguistic and religious minorities.

Choose correct option:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. Right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language.
  2. Political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the below statements with regard to Directive Principles of State Policy and identify the incorrect one:

  1. They embody the concept of both ‘welfare state’ and ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
  2. They resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
  3. They are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
  4. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government.

Q.6) Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution allows the Parliament to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel?

  1. Article 13
  2. Article 31
  3. Article 33
  4. Article 20

Q.7) Which of the following can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void?

  1. Permanent laws enacted by both the Parliament or the state legislature.
  2. Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors.
  3. Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) Which among the following is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India?

  1. Part III
  2. Part IV
  3. Part IV A
  4. Preamble

Q.9) Which of the following Directive Principles were added to the original list by 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?

  1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
  3. To promote participation of workers in the management of Industries

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with languages recognized by the Constitution?

  1. Second Schedule
  2. Ninth Schedule
  3. Tenth Schedule
  4. Eighth Schedule

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

  1. Protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities and does not extend to any section of citizens.
  2. The right under Article 30 also includes the right of a minority to impart education to its children in its own language.

Which of the statements give above is/are true?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) The category ‘Right to Freedom’ in Fundamental Rights of our Constitution consists of:

  1. Freedom to manage religious affairs
  2. Right to form associations/union
  3. Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Consider the following statements with regard to Habeas Corpus:

  1. The Habeas Corpus writ means order of the court directing the authority to produce the detained person in the court.
  2. The Habeas Corpus writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) According to L M Singhvi, an eminent jurist and diplomat, which among the following are the life giving provisions of the Constitution, that constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of social justice?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Preamble

Q.15) In which of the following points is the Fundamental Rights are distinct from the Directive Principles?

  1. Fundamental Rights are societarian and socialistic, as they promote the welfare of the community
  2. Fundamental Rights do not require any legislation for their implementation.
  3. Fundamental Rights aim at establishing political democracy in the country.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Which of the following are Directives contained in other Parts of the Constitution but are not included in Part IV of our Constitution?

  1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services
  2. Instruction in mother tongue
  3. Development of the Hindi Language

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 2 and 3
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Consider the below statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. They denote the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.
  2. They are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and judiciary matters.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) What are the remedies to a person whose right to speech and expression (Article 19) is curtailed by the members of his community?

  1. He can move to the Supreme Court under Article 32.
  2. He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
  3. He only has ordinary legal remedy through lower courts.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Q.19) Which of the following statements are exceptions to rule of equality before law?

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during his term of office.
  2. The foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from civil proceedings but not from criminal proceedings.

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Citizens’ right to live in safe buildings and environment is a part of which of the following Fundamental Rights Articles?

  1. Article 21
  2. Article 14
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 16

Q.21) Who among the following heads the Cabinet Committee on Security?

  1. National Security Advisor
  2. Home Minister
  3. Defence Minister
  4. Prime Minister

Q.22) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is associated with –

  1. providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
  2. skill development initiative scheme of the Government of India
  3. promoting financial inclusion in the country
  4. providing financial help to the marginalized communities

Q.23) In the line of ‘One Nation – One Scheme’ theme, the Government of India had launched Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY). Which of the following are the objectives of this scheme?

  1. To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crop as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases.
  2. To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming.
  3. To ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector.

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN):

  1. It is a credit protocol infrastructure.
  2. It would democratise lending and enable small borrowers to avail funds easily.
  3. It will act as a common language for lenders and marketplaces to utilise and create innovative, financial credit products at scale.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

Channel or Strait Separates
1.     Sombrero Channel Great Nicobar and Little Nicobar islands
2.     Ten Degree Channel Andaman and Nicobar islands
3.     Duncan Passage Great Andaman and Little Andaman islands

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) Consider the following statements about Red Sanders:

  1. Red Sanders is an endemic tree of South India.
  2. They are found in Tropical Moist Deciduous forest.
  3. IUCN has put it under the category of Endangered (EN) species in the Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.27) Which of the following protected area is often referred as ‘The Amazon of East’?

  1. Khangchendzonga National Park
  2. Manas Tiger Reserve
  3. Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Namdapha National Park

Q.28) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)?

  1. It is an intergovernmental organization.
  2. It was established by the international treaty called ‘The Rome Statute’.
  3. India is not a member of PCA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘PM SVANidhi Scheme’.

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  2. It aims at facilitating collateral free working capital loans to street vendors.
  3. Only public scheduled commercial banks can provide loans under this scheme.

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Q.30) The producer support estimate (PSE), an indicator of the annual monetary value of gross transfers from consumers and taxpayers to agricultural producers, are updated and published annually by –

  1. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
  2. Food and Agriculture Organization
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Department of Economic Affairs

Q.31) The difference between two positive numbers is 160 and the ratio between them is 5:3. Find the product of the two numbers.

  1. 96000
  2. 144000
  3. 48000
  4. 72000

Q.32) A two digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. The number is

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 42
  4. 64

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

No conflict since the 1940s has been bloodier, yet few have been more completely ignored. Estimates of the death toll in Congo between 1998 and 2003 range from roughly 1m to more than 5m—no one counted the corpses. Taking the midpoint, the cost in lives was higher than that in Syria, Iraq, Vietnam or Korea. Yet scarcely any outsider has a clue what the fighting was about or who was killing whom. Which is a tragedy, because the great war at the heart of Africa might be about to start again.

To understand the original war, consider this outrageously oversimplified analogy. Imagine a giant house whose timbers are rotten. That was the Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko, the kleptocratic tyrant who ruled from 1965 to 1997. Next, imagine a cannonball that brings the house crashing down. That cannonball was fired from Rwanda, Congo’s tiny, turbulent neighbour. Now imagine that every local gang of armed criminals comes rushing in to steal the family jewels, and the looting turns violent. Finally, imagine that you are a young, unarmed woman who lives alone in the shattered house. It is not a pleasant thought, is it?

Mobutu and his underlings looted the Congolese state until it could barely stand. When a shock struck, it collapsed. The shock was the Rwandan genocide of 1994. The perpetrators of that abomination, defeated at home, fled into Congo. Rwanda invaded Congo to eliminate them. Meeting almost no resistance, since no one wanted to die for Mobutu, the highly disciplined Rwandans overthrew him and replaced him with their local ally, Laurent Kabila. Then Kabila switched sides and armed the genocidaires, so Rwanda tried to overthrow him, too. Angola and Zimbabwe saved him. The war degenerated into a bloody tussle for plunder. Eight foreign countries became embroiled, along with dozens of local militias. Congo’s mineral wealth fuelled the mayhem, as men with guns grabbed diamond, gold and coltan mines. Warlords stoked ethnic divisions, urging young men to take up arms to defend their tribe—and rob the one next door—because the state could not protect anyone. Rape spread like a forest fire.

 

Q.33) In the passage ‘’giant house whose timbers are rotten’’ refers to

  1. Congo between 1998 and 2003 where death toll raised from 1m to more than 5 m.
  2. Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko.
  3. Congolese state under Laurent Kabila.
  4. None of the above.

Q.34) According to the passage the cost in lives was higher in which of the following country?

  1. Syria
  2. Iraq
  3. Vietnam
  4. Congo

Q.35) According to the author, why did Rwanda invade Congo?

  1. To take revenge against the perpetrators of Rwandan genocide.
  2. To replace Laurent Kabila as the new head of Congo.
  3. To loot Congo’s mineral wealth.
  4. To impose their sovereignty over Congo.

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Micro Analysis Matrix

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N)
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S 3 2 6 8 19

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

  • Information meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.
  • Analysis meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.
  • Anxiety meter < 3
    • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.
  • Risk meter < 8
    • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.
  • Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021 


SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Aditi 59
2 Sidarth 58
3 Hashil Ibrahim 57
4 Jai 56.4
5 Shivangi 56.02
6 shivani jhill 56
7 puja rani 55.33
7 prashant singh 55.33
8 Gopal Roy 54.6
8 Sofiamalik 54.6
9 khhgf 54
9 Deepika gupta 54
10 Vikrant 53
11 Ravi kumar Singh 52
11 Taranpreet kaur 52
11 MANIKANT KUMAR 52
12 Swathi 51
13 Mansi 50.67
13 Tarunkumar M N 50.67
14 Suchandra Saha 50
14 Bhagwan Prasad Mishra 50
15 Cherry 49.68
16 Kanak 49.36
16 Shraddha Patel 49.36
16 Kunika Dabas 49.36
17 YB 49.33
17 Sachin Agrawal 49.33
17 NITIK KUMAR 49.33
17 SATYAM RAJPUT 49.33
18 Mushtaq Ahmed 48.7
18 Anvee Mishra 48.7
18 UJJWAL 48.7
18 Aiswarya V Nair 48.7
19 ANUP KUMAR 48
19 Omkar S. 48
19 Shubham 48
19 Pallabi Bharali 48
19 Nikhil K 48
19 RAVI CHANDRA 48
20 Smaranika 47.36
20 CHRISTHU RAJ J 47.36
21 Neha tyagi 47
21 Neha Tyagi 47
22 Dauntless 46.7
22 Ali Akbar Zaidi 46.7
23 Prabhat sharma 46.3
23 Tejas Kulkarni 46.3
23 Sandeep 46.3
24 Divyansha Choudhary 46
24 sandeep 46
24 Akshata Ramesh Javral 46
25 Abhishek Verma 45.36
25 Abhishek 45.36
25 Prajwal V K 45.36
25 Sourabh patel 45.36
26 Gaurav Sharma 45.33
27 abhishek 45
27 Deepti 45
28 Himatejakumar 44.7
28 Kriti raj 44.7
28 Varsha 44.7
28 Mamta 44.7
28 Mayuri sahu 44.67
28 Ankita Yadav 44.67
28 Sourabh Jha 44.67
28 Dholu giliya 44.66
29 Swati 44.5
29 ARYAHI DEB 44.5
29 Samay kumar 44.5
29 Siddhant Vats 44.4
30 arvind dwarakanath 44.04
30 Shreenivas 44.04

 


All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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