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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 4]

  • IASbaba
  • March 25, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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For Previous (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner.

In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision.

Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision.

You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


HISTORY [DAY 4]


Q.1) The book ‘Stripurushtulna’ is written by:

  1. Pandit Ramabai
  2. Tarabai Shinde
  3. Savitribai Phule
  4. Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Q.2) Consider the following statements about “western intellectual during British India”:

  1. Charles Wilkins published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785
  2. William Jones established Archaeological Survey of India in 1861.
  3. Alexander Cunningham translated 50 books in a monumental volume titled ‘Sacred Book of East’.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding women education in British India:

  1. First women’s university of India – SNDT University, was opened by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
  2. Wood’s Dispatch did not talk about Women’s education.
  3. First school exclusively for women was established by a British MP Drinkwater Bethune in 1849.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. Theosophical Society was originally established in Adyar, in Madras by Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Henry Olcott.
  2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke and Nathaniel Halhed were co-founders of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, and started a journal called Asiatic Researches.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) With reference to “All India Conference of Indian Christians”, consider the following statements:

  1. This organization opposed view of Indian National Congress and favoured for British Rule.
  2. AICIC was in favour of two nation theory and Nation based on religion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.6) Consider following statements regarding social reforms related to Women during British India –

  1. Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in Madras Presidency.
  2. Arya Samaj led by Dayanand Saraswati did not support widow remarriage.
  3. Petition to Hindu Remarriage Act was countered by Radhakant Deb and Dharma Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.7) Consider the following statements about Caste reform movements during British India:

  1. The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by Haridas Thakur who worked among the leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social status.
  2. Shri Narayana Guru said – No Caste, No Religion, No God for Mankind.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Consider the following statements about Temple entry movement:

  1. Vaikom Satyagraha was led by Mannathu Padmanabhan.
  2. Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 by S. Ramanathan.
  3. Through Mahad Satyagraha, Ambedkar wanted to assert rights to enter Temple by lower caste.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of these

Q.9) Select the correct statements from the following:

  1. Brahmo Samaj formed in 1830, did not believe in Upanishads.
  2. The main aim of Veda Samaj, which was established in 1864 at Bombay, was to oppose social reform movement.

Choose from the below given options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 not 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements about religious reform —

  1. Sayyid Ahmed Khan focused on modern education and established Anglo-oriental college in Aligarh.
  2. Khalsa College was established by leaders of Singh Sabha Movement.
  3. Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was reform movement of Judaism.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.11) From the below, identify the incorrect statement about Sanyasi Rebellion:

  1. It took place around Murshidabad and Baikunthupur forests of Jalpaiguri.
  2. Among the Hindus Sannyasis the akharaa of Dashanami Sampradaya were major participants.
  3. Neel Darpan of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee reminds us about this rebellion.
  4. The raids on companies factories were organised under leadership of ‘Kena Sarkar’ and ‘Dirji Narayan’.

Q.12) Consider the following statements about “Ramosi Uprising”:

  1. It was led by Vasudeo Balwant Phadke.
  2. It was a non-violent protest against British businessmen and British Government.
  3. The protestors got control of the Pune city for a few days in 1879.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Which of the following is cause of Revolt of Sawantwadi?

  1. Rise in land tax by British
  2. Prohibition of local custom by British
  3. Eviction of natives from their place
  4. Eviction of rulers of Sawantwadi

Q.14) Consider the following statements about Frontier uprising of Tribes:

  1. To suppress Ahom revolt, East India Company took brutal approach of repression.
  2. Initial cause of Khasi uprising was to defend Khasi Kingdom from attack of British.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.15) With reference to “Wahabi Movement in India”, consider the following statements:

  1. This movement was to reform Islam from Western influence.
  2. A Zehad was declared against the Sikh kingdom of Punjab.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.16) Consider following statements regarding Khonds Uprising –

  1. Main reason of uprising was the attempt of government to suppress human sacrifice.
  2. Movement ended by disappearance of Chakra Bishoi, the main leader of Khonds Uprising.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) Consider the following statements about legislations for Social reform during British India:

  1. Mastermind behind Widow Marriage Act, 1956 was Raja Ram Mohun Roy.
  2. Sharda Act defined male child as below 18 year of age and Female child as below 14 year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements about 1857-59 revolt:

  1. General Service Enlistment Act passed by Lord Canning, was one of the cause of sepoy revolt.
  2. Zamindars supported the revolt by providing funds.
  3. Sepoy wanted an independent democratic country after the revolt.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.19) The term ‘corrupt Udasi mahants’ is often associated with which of the following?

  1. Moplah rebellion
  2. Parsis reform movement
  3. Akali movement
  4. Ahmadiya movement

Q.20) Which of the following were the outcomes of socio-religious reform movements?

  1. Child marriage was forbidden by many sections of society.
  2. The press and literature improved and mass awareness arose.
  3. Complete prohibition of practices like polygamy, caste exploitation and gender inequality.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.21) ‘Mitakshara’ is associated with

  1. Yajnawalkya
  2. Poetics
  3. Grammar
  4. Drama

Q.22) Which of the following country launched Innovation Challenge Fund in India which aims to support scientists to tackle the most acute global challenges like Covid-19?

  1. Japan
  2. USA
  3. United Kingdom (UK)
  4. Netherlands

Q.23) Consider the following pairs:

Festival Celebrated in
1.     Nuakhai Juhar Odisha
2.     Pulikkali Tamil Nadu
3.     Thumbimahotsavam Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) The National GIS (Geographic Information System)-enabled Land Bank system is launched by which of the following?

  1. Ministry of Rural Development
  2. Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q.25) ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ was founded by

  1. Rabindranath Tagore
  2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Swami Vivekananda
  4. Abindranath Tagore

Q.26) Nation-wide plantation drive Harit Bharat Sankalp was recently undertaken by which of the following?

  1. Indian Railways
  2. National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  3. Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
  4. Indian Institute of Forest Management

Q.27) India’s first International Women’s Trade Centre will be setup in which of the following State/UT?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Kerala
  3. Goa
  4. Delhi

Q.28) With reference to TRIFOOD Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme Minor Forest Produce tertiary processing units will be set up.
  2. It is implemented by TRIFED, Ministry of Tribal Affairs in association with Ministry of Food Processing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Nationally Determined Contributions- Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC- TIA) project that aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport engages which of the following countries?

  1. India
  2. China
  3. Russia
  4. Japan
  5. Vietnam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 5 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 5 only

Q.30) Recently the longest river ropeway in India was constructed on which of the following rivers?

  1. Indus
  2. Narmada
  3. Brahmaputra
  4. Sutlej

Q.31) Consider the following quantities.

Quantity A: The number of multiples of 9 between 200 and X+200

Quantity B: The number of multiples of 5 between 100 and X+100

Where X is a positive integer

Then

  1. Quantity A is greater.
  2. Quantity B is greater.
  3. Quantities A and B are equal
  4. It is impossible to determine which quantity is greater.

Q.32) In a store there are 345 L mustard oil, 120 L olive oil and 225 L coconut oil. What will be the capacity of the largest container to measure the above three types of oil?

  1. 10 L
  2. 12 L
  3. 15 L
  4. 18 L

Q.33) How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 25

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

Most human beings are awake during the day and sleep all night. Owls live the opposite way. Owls are nocturnal. This means that they sleep all day and stay awake at night. Because owls are nocturnal, this means they must eat at night. But finding food in the dark is difficult. To help them, they have special eyes and ears.

Owls have very large eyes. These eyes absorb more light than normal. Since there is little light during the night, it is helpful to be able to absorb more of it. This helps owls find food in the dark.

Owls also have very good hearing. Even when owls are in the trees, they can hear small animals moving in the grass below. This helps owls catch their prey even when it is very dark. Like owls, mice are also nocturnal animals. Mice have an excellent sense of smell. This helps them find food in the dark.

Being nocturnal helps mice to hide from the many different animals that want to eat them. Most of the birds, snakes, and lizards that like to eat mice sleep at night—except, of course, owls!

 

Q.34) Based on the information in paragraph 2, it can be understood that an animal with small eyes:

  1. must be diurnal
  2. has trouble seeing in the dark
  3. can see very well at night
  4. is likely to be eaten by an owl

 

Q.35) According to the passage, owls can find food in the dark using their sense of

  1. Sight
  2. Sound
  3. Smell

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Micro Analysis Matrix

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N)
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S 3 2 6 8 19

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

  • Information meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.
  • Analysis meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.
  • Anxiety meter < 3
    • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.
  • Risk meter < 8
    • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.
  • Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021 

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Soumen Bera 60
2 Taranpreet kaur 54.68
3 Tarunkumar M N 53.334
4 Apeksha Agrawal 52
4 Ankita Kumawat 52
5 Ravi Kumar singh 51.4
6 Ragani shukla 50.36
7 Santosh Kumar 50
8 Manasa Shankar Bhat 49.36
9 Akshata Ramesh Javral 48.88
10 RAVI CHANDRA

Gaurav Awasthi

48
11 NITIK KUMAR 47.33
12 ADITI 46.7
12 Sandip 46.7
12 YB 46.67
13 bishal barman 45
14 Rani singh 44
14 SURYA S 44
14 Uttej 44
15 Cherry 43.36
16 Deepika gupta 42.68
16 Puja rani 42.68
17 Smaranika 42
17 Dhruv Sharma 42
17 MANIKANT KUMAR 42
18 Pratibha 41.38
19 Vishnu Vardhan 41.33
20 Vj 40.55
21 Vrinda Singh 40
21 VIVEK KUMAR SINGH 40
22 Harsh Vardhan 39
22 Sachin 39
23 ayaan pathan 38.7
24 Geethu 38
24 Akshat Pathak 38
25 preeti sinha 37.81
26 aryahi deb 37.34
27 Jai 37
28 prashant 36.63
29 Mansi 36
29 PEEYUSH GAUR 36
30 Kanak 35.38
30 MESSI 10 35.38
30 Prasad 35.38

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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