IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 6]

  • IASbaba
  • March 27, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



NOTE: The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to organic farming 

  1. Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) is the system of certification of organic products in India.
  2. Organic farming denotes no use of fertilizers at all.
  3. India has largest number of organic farmers in the world which accounts for 30 percent of all farmers in the world.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) What are the mechanisms of adaptations of Halophytic (plants which grow on soils with high concentration of salts?)

  1. Vivipary mode of seed germination is found in halophytes.
  2. In halophytic plants, leaves are usually thin or without leaves.
  3. Roots called pneumatophores with pneumathodes to get sufficient aeration are present.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.3) Consider the following pairs:

Terms Meaning
1.     Population Includes all the populations occupying a given area.
2.     Community Organisms of the same species that are in proximity to one another.
3.     Biome Large regional or sub continental ecosystem characterized by similarity in climate and vegetation.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.4) Consider the following pairs:

Terms Meaning
1.     Amensalism One species benefits, while the other species (the host) is neither harmed nor inhibited.
2.     Commensalism Interaction is favourable to both species.
3.     Competition Beneficial to one species and harmful to the other species.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. None of the above

Q.5) Which of the following statements are correct about the invasive species?

  1. An invasive species is a non-native organism that causes ecological harm after being introduced to a new environment.
  2. Invasive species can cause extinction of endogenic species.
  3. Invasive species are always a predator which reduces population of local species.

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.6) Nitrogen fixation on the earth is facilitated by various processes like –

  1. By microorganisms
  2. Artificially using industrial processes
  3. By Atmospheric processes like thunder and lighting

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to Ecological Succession?

  1. Primary succession is relatively faster as compared to secondary succession.
  2. Succession would occur faster in area existing on the bank of the large continent because of existence of more humidity in the soil.
  3. Ecological succession leads to the establishment of a relatively stable climax community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.8) Consider the following statements about the ecotone:

  1. It defines a unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem.
  2. Mangrove forests can be considered as an example of ecotone.
  3. Ecotone will have larger population densities than the communities on either side.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) Consider the following statements with respect to Adaptations:

  1. Aestivation takes place during times of heat and dryness only by terrestrial animals.
  2. Hibernation is the type of winter sleep characterized by lower body temperature, slower breathing, and lower metabolic rate.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements about Phytoplankton

  1. They contribute more than half of the oxygen in the environment.
  2. They reduce global warming by absorbing human-induced carbon dioxide
  3. They are not found in freshwater systems.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.11) Consider the following statements and identify the incorrect statement with respect to the food chain:

  1. Detritus food chain releases energy into the ecosystem whereas grazing food chain utilizes energy from the ecosystem.
  2. Detritus food chain helps in fixing inorganic nutrients.
  3. Detritus food chain is usually smaller compared to the grazing food chain.
  4. Energy for the grazing food chain is obtained directly from the sunlight.

Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to mangrove ecosystem in India:

  1. Gujarat has the highest percentage of area under total mangrove cover among the state and UTs.
  2. The mangrove cover in India is 5% of the country’s total geographical area.
  3. India State of Forest Report, 2019 reports a decrease of 54 sq. km in mangrove cover from the previous assessment.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Q.13) Which of the following statement best reflects the meaning of ecology?

  1. Structural and functional unit of biosphere interacting and exchanging materials between them.
  2. The sum total of living, non-living components; influences and events, surrounding an organism
  3. Large areas of the Earth’s surface within which organisms have been evolving over long periods of time.
  4. Study of the relationship of the living organisms with each other and with their environment.

Q.14) With reference to the marine organisms, consider the following statements:

  1. Kelp forests are underwater forests that thrive well in cold, nutrient rich waters.
  2. Kelp forests are always coastal and require shallow, relatively clear water.
  3. They represent the highest rates of primary production of any natural ecosystem on Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.15) Consider the following statements about the energy pyramid:

  1. Energy pyramid can be both upward and downward.
  2. Under pyramid of biomass individuals in each trophic level are counted instead of being weighted.
  3. Pyramid of number will always be upright.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q.16) Which of the following can be possible cause of the coral bleaching?

  1. Increased sedimentation in the ocean water
  2. Increased level of carbon dioxide in the ocean water
  3. Overfishing

Choose correct code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.17) Consider the following statements with respect to Phosphorus cycle in an ecosystem:

  1. Phosphorus cycle is part of the gaseous cycle.
  2. The largest reservoir of the phosphorus in the biosphere is the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Which of the following are the effects of Eutrophication?

  1. Shifting in various species component as well as habitat of an ecosystem.
  2. The decrease in water transparency and turbidity.
  3. Decreased biomass of algae.
  4. Growth of coral reefs.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.19) In an Aquatic ecosystem arrange the following in terms of decreasing productivity (Highest first to lowest last)

  1. Estuaries
  2. Open ocean
  3. Continental shelf
  4. Lakes and streams

Which of the following option is correctly arranged?

  1. 1, 3, 2, 4
  2. 2, 1, 3, 4
  3. 1, 4, 3, 2
  4. 4, 1, 2, 3

Q.20) consider the following statements with respect to the movements of pollutants in the organisms.

  1. In Bio-magnification there is a decrease in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
  2. Bio-magnification refers to an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) Consider the following pairs:

Mangrove sites States
1.     Coringa, East Godavari, Krishna Andhra Pradesh
2.     Achra-Ratnagirii, Vaitarna Gujarat
3.     Bhitarkanika and Subernarekha Odisha
4.     Pichavaram and Pulicat Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 4 only

Q.22) Consider the following pairs:

Sea Port Country
1.     Sabang Myanmar
2.     Duqm Iran
3.     Changi Malaysia

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the these

Q.23) Which of the following is the Cleanest capital city as per the Swachh Survekshan 2020?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Panaji
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Gandhinagar

Q.24) Which of the following is/are the advantages/benefits of constituting an independent Fiscal Council?

  1. Boost accuracy of fiscal projections and helps countries stick to fiscal rules better
  2. Discourage populist shift of Government Expenditure
  3. Helps to raise the level of debate in Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) The Abraham Accords is a normalization agreement between which of the following countries?

  1. USA and Afghanistan
  2. UAE and Israel
  3. Israel and Palestine
  4. Syria and USA

Q.26) With reference to Kalinga school of Temple Architecture, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a sub-style of Vesara temple architecture.
  2. In this style, a temple is made in two parts, a tower called ‘jagmohan’ and a hall called ‘deul’.
  3. Lingaraj Temple of Bhubaneshwar is an example of this style.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.27) Kerala State government’s unique programme, ‘Namath Basai’, is related to which of the following?

  1. Rehabilitation of flood affected
  2. Social security for unorganized sector
  3. Water conservation
  4. Tribal education

Q.28) With reference to National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. DigiDoctor and Health Facility Registry (HFR) are some of the key building blocks of the NDHM.
  2. National Health Authority will design, build, roll-out and implement the NDHM.
  3. Components like Health ID and Digi-Doctor are owned and operated by private players.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.29) With reference to ‘Boreal Summer Intra Seasonal Oscillation (BSISO)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting waves along coasts, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. BSISO is the transfer of heat from western Pacific Ocean to Indian Ocean during the monsoon period.
  2. The active phase of BSISO enhances surface waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.30) Which of the following WHO region is yet to be certified as free of wild poliovirus?

  1. Eastern Mediterranean
  2. South-East Asia Region
  3. African Region
  4. Western Pacific Region

Q.31) First bunch of bananas has 1/4 times the bananas in the second bunch and again as many bananas as in the second bunch. If the second bunch has 3 bananas less than the first bunch, what is the number of bananas in the first bunch?

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 20

Q.32) Rahul goes to a party with his friends.16 persons shake hands with one another in a party. In total how many shake hands took place?

  1. 124
  2. 120
  3. 165
  4. 170

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.


Passage 1

Vivekananda realizes that mankind is passing through a crisis. The tremendous emphasis on the scientific and mechanical ways of life is fast reducing man to the status of a machine. Moral and religious values are being undermined. The fundamental principles of civilization are being ignored. Conflicts of ideals, manners and habits are pervading the atmosphere. Disregard for everything old is the fashion of the day. Vivekananda seeks the solutions of all these social and global evils through education. With this end in view, he feels the dire need of awakening man to his spiritual self-wherein, he thinks, lies the very purpose of education.

Vivekananda points out that the defect of the present-day education is that it has no definite goal to pursue. A sculptor has a clear idea about what he wants to shape out of the marble block; similarly, a painter knows what he is going to paint. But a teacher, he says, has no clear idea about the goal of his teaching. Swamiji attempts to establish, through his words and deeds, that the end of all education is man-making. He prepares the scheme of this man-making education in the light of his overall philosophy of Vedanta. According to Vedanta, the essence of man lies in his soul, which he possesses in addition to his body and mind. In true with this philosophy, Swamiji defines education as ‘the manifestation of the perfection already in man.’ The aim of education is to manifest in our lives the perfection, which is the very nature of our inner self. This perfection is the realization of the infinite power which resides in everything and every-where-existence, consciousness and bliss (Satchidananda). After understanding the essential nature of this perfection, we should identify it with our inner self. For achieving this, one will have to eliminate one’s ego, ignorance and all other false identification, which stand in the way. Meditation, fortified by moral purity and passion for truth, helps man to leave behind the body, the senses, the ego and all other non-self-elements, which are perishable. He thus realizes his immortal divine self, which is of the nature of infinite existence, infinite knowledge and infinite bliss.


Q.33) According to the passage what is PERFECTION?

  1. Things are proper at top to bottom.
  2. There is no scope for undone things.
  3. It is an expression of mankind.
  4. Nature of inner-self and realization of infinite power.


Q.34) According to the paragraph what is the purpose of Education?

  1. Obtain the clear goal of teaching.
  2. To understand that the end of all education is man making
  3. Education should be free learning
  4. Education is everything.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  1. 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. Neither 1 and 2 nor 3 and 4
  4. All of above

Passage 2

A German proverb proclaims that a man is what he eats. It could equally have insisted that he is also what he does not eat. Indeed, a man is also what he wears, speaks, believes, worships, smells, the music he listens to, how he dances and the colours that entice him. This list can multiply, and multiply differently for different people. Human diversity is rich and immense.

India’s own diversity is among the richest: countless culinary habits, dress, customs and musical traditions; more than 200 different dialects and languages; religious and doctrinal diversity, the ritual-oriented Vedic practices, the teachings of Buddha, Mahavira, Zarathustra, the Torah, and Guru Nanak, the religiosity in the Puranas, Islam, Syriac-Christianity, the great varieties of animism and atheism.

Q.35) What is the author talking about in the passage?

  1. Diversity of humans as a whole as well as India’s own diversity.
  2. India’s rich diversity only.
  3. Religious and doctrinal diversity of India.
  4. The greatness of Indian traditions.

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Micro Analysis Matrix

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N)
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S 3 2 6 8 19

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

  • Information meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.
  • Analysis meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.
  • Anxiety meter < 3
    • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.
  • Risk meter < 8
    • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.
  • Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.



Congratulations to all

1 Sofiamalik 54
1 Santosh Kumar 54
2 ayasha fatima 53.33
3 Taranpreet kaur 52.02
4 Yakshi arora 51.36
5 Cycy 50.5
6 Anisha 50.02
7 Manasa Shankar Bhat 49.36
8 Bhavana 49
9 Shivangi 48.68
10 Ravi Kumar singh 48.2
11 Badal Behera 48
12 Divyanshi 46.7
12 Deepika gupta 46.68
13 Tarunkumar M N 46.002
14 Priyanshi Goel 46
15 Akshat Pathak 45.33
16 Blue moon 44.2
17 Kanak 44.04
17 Shruti kumari 44.04
18 Nikhil K 43.98
18 Smaranika 43.36
18 Yakshi arora 43.36
18 krishna sai satti 43.36
19 Pradeep 42.67
19 bhawana goyal 42.67
20 Shubham Kumar 42.44
21 Jeff Tao 42
21 YB 42
21 Mansi 42
21 Deepak Mishra 42
21 Ashutosh Kumar 42
21 Pallabi Bharali 42
22 abhishek 41.66
23 shubham varma 41.38
24 Kriti raj 40.68
25 Monika Yadav 40
25 saumya singh 40
25 Mayuri sahu 40
25 Sarwar Hasib 40
25 Vandana nagesh 40
25 Shashank Tyagi 40


All the Best!



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