IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 13]

  • IASbaba
  • April 5, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Vice-President of India:

  1. Electoral College of Vice-President consists of elected and nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
  2. Voting for the Vice-President’s office is done through open ballot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Which of the following statements given below is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?

  1. The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by Absolute Majority.
  2. An amendment bill, like all other bills, goes to the President for his assent, but in this case, the President has no powers to send it back for reconsideration.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Constitution lays down which of the following bills to be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President?

  1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested
  2. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above

Q.4) Constitution of India provides for special provision for some states under Part XXI. Which among the following is/are intention behind them?

  1. to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states
  2. to protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states
  3. to deal with the disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states
  4. to protect the interests of linguistic minorities

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.5) Recently, some states are racing to gain special status which confers preferential treatment in the form of central assistance and tax breaks.  Which among the following are the conditions to categorize states for special status?

  1. hilly and difficult terrain
  2. low population density or sizable share of tribal population
  3. strategic location along borders with neighboring countries
  4. economic and infrastructural backwardness
  5. non-viable nature of state finances

Select the correct code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 5
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.6) Which of the provisions of the Constitution can be amended only by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority?

  1. Supreme Court and high courts
  2. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure
  3. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
  4. Union territories

Select the correct code given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

  1. It gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
  2. It curtailed the judicial review power of the High Courts.
  3. It made President bound to the advice of the cabinet.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.8) Consider the below statements about Executive:

  1. Executive enjoys the right to get the Legislature dissolved.
  2. Ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
  3. Cabinet headed by PM is the real executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of?

  1. Members of Parliament, state legislatures and legislative councils
  2. Elected and nominated members of Parliament and state legislatures
  3. Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
  4. Elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies

Q.10) The 42nd Amendment Act has added four new Directive Principles to the original list. Identify the correct ones –

  1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
  3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
  4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life


  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to qualifications for the elections of President

  1. Governor of any state can contest for President Elections.
  2. President can re-contest for the same office for any number of terms.

Choose the correct statement/s

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Vice-President of India does not get an opportunity to act as President of India under which of the below stated circumstance

  1. When Presidents Office is vacant due to his resignation or death.
  2. When sitting President is unable to discharge his functions/duties due to absence or illness.
  3. When there is any delay in conducting the election of new President.
  4. When president office is vacant due to his removal.

Q.13) Consider the following statements with respect to election disputes of Vice-President

  1. All disputes in connection with election of Vice-President are inquired into and decided by Supreme Court after consultation with President of India.
  2. The acts carried out by Vice-President till the date of declaration are not validated, if his election to the post of Vice-President is declared as void.

Choose the correct statement/s

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to Prime Minister?

  1. Chief Justice of India
  2. President
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Attorney General of India

Q.15) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise President?

  1. Article 74
  2. Article 77
  3. Article 76
  4. Article 78

Q.16) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Amendment procedure under Article 368?

  1. Amendment bill can be initiated in each house of Parliament and state Legislative Assemblies.
  2. It can be introduced by a minister and not by a private member.
  3. If a bill is not passed by Rajya Sabha then a Joint meeting is called.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 only
  4. None of the above

Q.17) Which of the following qualifications are required to contest for Presidential Elections in India?

  1. A person should be a citizen of India by Birth
  2. The person should have completed 35 years of age
  3. The person should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha
  4. He should not hold any office of profit

Select the code from following:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.18) Which of the following Veto Power is not enjoyed by the President of India?

  1. Absolute Veto
  2. Qualified Veto
  3. Suspensive Veto
  4. Pocket Veto

Q.19) Which of the following changes to the constitution are outside the scope of Article 368?

  1. Establishment of new state
  2. Representation of states in Parliament
  3. Changes in elections to Parliament
  4. Changes in scheduled areas under Fifth Schedule

Select the correct answer using code below

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.20) Which of the following constitutional amendments made elementary education a fundamental right?

  1. 84th
  2. 91st
  3. 93rd
  4. 86th

Q.21) The Xoo infection cause huge yield losses to the cultivation of which of the following?

  1. Barley
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Cotton

Q.22) With reference to Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) survey, consider the following statements:

  1. It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
  2. It ranks Indian States for their preparedness to build a robust data protection regime.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) In which one of the following State Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

  1. Odisha
  2. West Bengal
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.24) Consider the following pairs:

Tunnel State/UT
1.     Zozila Jammu and Kashmir
2.     Atal Himachal Pradesh
3.     Nechiphu Arunachal Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) The report titled ‘Stacked Odds’ that highlights the scenario around the globe on modern slavery was released by

  1. United Nations (UN)
  2. Human Rights Watch
  3. World Economic Forum (WEF)
  4. Amnesty international

Q.26) Which of the following two Central Asian Countries share border with Caspian Sea?

  1. Kazakhstan and Tajikistan
  2. Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan
  3. Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan
  4. Tajikistan and Kyrgyz Republic

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

  1. India grows all four species of cultivated cotton.
  2. India is the largest organic cotton producer.
  3. India’s premium cotton would be known as Deccan Cotton in the world trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) The SMART flight which has been successfully tested recently is related to which of the following?

  1. First Solar powered flight of India
  2. Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicle (MIRV)
  3. The Crew Module Atmospheric Re-entry Experiment under Gaganyaan Mission
  4. Anti-Submarine Warfare

Q.29) The Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) is a quality system to ensure the safety of various industrial chemicals usage. Consider the following statements about GLP.

  1. GLP system has been evolved by Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW).
  2. National GLP Compliance Monitoring Authority (NGCMA) established by Department of Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals is the National body which grants GLP certification to test facilities (TFs) conducting safety studies.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.30) The KAPILA campaign sometimes seen in the news aims at creating awareness in the field of which of the following?

  1. Cyber threats
  2. Indentured Labour
  3. Covid19 vaccination
  4. Intellectual Property

Q.31) A & B can make paintings in 6 days; B & C can make those paintings in 10 days. If A, B & C together can finish the work in 4 days, then A & C together will do it in

Q.32) A student has to score 35% marks to get through in an exam, if he gets 40 marks and fails by 30 marks, then the maximum marks set for the examination is

  1. 150
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 350

Q.33) A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days, B and C together start the work and forced to leave after 2 days. What is the time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work?

  1. 15 days
  2. 18 days
  3. 20 days
  4. 25 days

Q.34) Manju can complete a job in 5 days. Manju is twice as fast as Ajay while Ajay is thrice as fast as Nandu. If all of them work together, in how many days would the job get completed?

  1. 3 days
  2. 5 days
  3. 9 days
  4. 12 days

Q.35) Amar does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in Baskar and they together finish the remaining work in 3 days. How long Baskar alone would take to do the whole work?

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.


Congratulations to all

1 keeFarah 60
2 Taranpreet kaur 54.7
2 Mansi 54.7
3 Santosh Kumar 54
4 Deepika gupta 52.34
5 Sankar S 52
6 Tarunkumar M N 51.334
7 Ravi Kumar singh 50.4
9 Manasa Shankar Bhat 49.14
10 YB 48.67
11 Kriti raj 48
11 shilpa 48
12 SHIVANGI 47.36
12 Nitya pathak 47.34
13 Akshat Pathak 44
13 Mahima Kohli 44
13 Ravi Chandra 44
14 Vinay Tripathi 42.67
15 Nitish kumar 41.67
16 Shubham Kumar 41.3
16 estaveni mounika 41.3
17 Anisha 40.68
18 Vipin Srivastava 40
18 DRISYA 40
18 rani singh 40
18 Mayuri sahu 40
19 Ester Fatum 39.34
19 Rajeev meena 39.33
20 Shruti kumari 38
20 sweta 38
20 Hemant Maheshwari 38
20 SP 38
21 shubham varma 37.3
21 rani singh 37.3
21 Jeff Tao 37.3
21 Apeksha Agrawal 37.3
21 Sarath 37.3
22 Pratik 36
22 Monika Yadav 36
22 A L Gayathri 36
22 Shivangi Singh 36
22 Vaishnavi Bacchu 36
22 Sushil 36
23 Ayaan pathan 35.7
24 Arjun Kashyap 35.3
24 Prashant Gautam 35.3
24 Priyanshi Goel 35.3
25 GEETHA 35
26 Pallavi P 34
26 Irfan 34
26 Manish Prasad 34
27 Ayush 33.3
28 P Sathya 32.7
28 Tanmay 32.7
28 VJ 32.7
28 Stoic 32.7
29 Ashwani 31.4
29 Dolly kumari 31.4
30 Sravan 30.72

All the Best!



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