# IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 19]

• IASbaba
• April 12, 2021
• 0

Hello Friends,

# ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily.

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.

# GEOGRAPHY [DAY 19]

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. The weather varies tremendously whereas, the climate is always constant in a region.
2. Generally the climate of temperate latitudes is far more variable than that of tropics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements about the Atmosphere:

1. In climatic processes, 99.9% of the atmosphere plays no role.
2. Water vapour is a variable gas whose amount decreases from equator towards pole.
3. Carbon dioxide is transparent to short wave but absorbs long wave radiations.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) The line above which atmospheric gases are not well-mixed is?

1. Tropopause
2. Van Allen belt
3. Turbopause
4. Exospehre

Q.4) With reference to Coriolis force, consider the following statements:

1. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.
2. It has a role in the direction of wind and also affects wind speed.
3. It is maximum at poles.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Doldrums are

1. Equatorial calms
2. Calm and light winds
3. Roaring forties
4. Variable both in position and in extent.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.6) Select the incorrect statement about Laurentian type of climate:

1. The Laurentian type of climate has cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers.
2. Eastern coast of North America and of China fall in this type of climate.
3. Laurentian climate of the North American region has uniformity in precipitation throughout the year
4. Laurentian climate of eastern China region has uniformity in precipitation throughout the year.

Q.7) With reference to British type of climate, consider the following statements:

1. This climate is experienced in Southern Chile, Southern Australia, Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand.
2. Rainfall occurs throughout the year with winter maxima.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.8) Consider the following statements about rainfall:

1. Convectional rainfall is possible above both land and sea.
2. All high mountain ranges cause orographic rainfall.
3. Frontal rainfall is absent in southern hemisphere due to very less land area present beyond 40°S latitude.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 only

Q.9) Select the incorrect statement about Harmattan Winds:

1. It is dry and dusty north-easterly trade wind.
2. It blows from the West Africa towards the Sahara desert.
3. It is seasonal wind blowing between the end of November and the middle of March
4. It is also known as the “doctor wind”, because of its invigorating dryness compared with humid tropical air.

Q.10) Which of the statements about sub-tropical high pressure belt is/are correct?

1. It lies in the area where the ascending equatorial air currents descend.
2. Both trade winds and westerlies originate from the sub-tropical high pressure belt.

Select the correct code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) With reference to Somali Jet Stream, consider the following statements:

1. It is a temporary jet stream originating near Madagascar.
2. It flows at low height and obstructs the southwest monsoon wind reaching Indian subcontinent.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding “nacreous clouds”:

1. They may contain both liquid and ice crystals.
2. These clouds enhance the breakdown of the Earth’s ozone layer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.13) Consider the following statements:

1. Photochemical smog is formed in cool humid climate.
2. Planting trees increases the albedo.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.14) This type of inversion takes place in lower planetary boundary layer where earth is cooled due to long wave radiation at night. Identify the correct answer –

1. Frontal inversion
3. Tropopause inversion

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

1. Blocking highs tend to force areas of low pressure to travel around them.
2. Horse latitude is found in the northern hemisphere only.
3. All Rossby waves are geostrophic wind.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3

Q.16) Select the incorrect statement about tropical cyclones:

1. A tropical cyclone is a non-frontal synoptic scale low-pressure system.
2. Heaviest rain is found at the eye-wall of the storm.
3. Sea-surface temperature must be 26°C spanning through at least 100m depth.
4. A weaker vertical shear makes the storm grow faster vertically into the air.

Q.17) Consider the following statements:

1. Increase in temperature and pressure will increase the rate of evaporation in the atmosphere.
2. All the moisture present in the atmosphere is due to evaporation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements about lapse rate:

1. If the environmental lapse rate is greater than the adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is then said to be stable.
2. If the environmental lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is said to be unstable.
3. Dry adiabatic lapse rate is always higher than saturated adiabatic lapse rate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.19) Consider the following statements about the characteristics prevalent during El Nino:

1. In an El Nino year, air pressure drops over large areas of the central Pacific and along the coast of South America.
2. Peruvian coast gets relatively cooler during El Nino than normal times.
3. El Nino brings drought to the western Pacific and rains to the equatorial coast of South America.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.20) Select the incorrect statements with respect to Steppes type of climate:

1. Climate is continental with extremes of temperature.
2. Steppes type of climate in the southern hemisphere is more severe.
3. The heaviest rain comes in summer in.
4. Southern hemisphere experiences more rainfall.

Q.21) India is a member of which among the following?

1. Indian Ocean Rim Association
2. Indian Ocean Commission
3. Indian Ocean Naval Symposium

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Consider the following statements:

1. Any registered political party can have 40 star campaigners.
2. Expenditure incurred on campaigning by such notified star campaigners is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate in all circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) Sometimes seen in news, the Apophis is

1. An exoplanet in goldilocks zone
2. An asteroid which may hit Earth
3. A newly discovered black hole closer to Earth than any other
4. A new star cluster in our Milky Way galaxy

Q.24) With reference to INS Vagir, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Kalvari-class diesel electric attack submarine.
2. It is developed under the Project 75I of Indian Navy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

 Tiger Reserve State/UT 1.     Manas Assam 2.     Dampha Tripura 3.     Pilibhit Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) With respect to Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) which of the following statement is NOT correct?

1. India has a Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN spanning goods, services and investment.
2. Bangkok Declaration is the founding document of ASEAN.
3. India’s trade deficit with ASEAN has been narrowing in the last decade.
4. India became a Strategic Partner of ASEAN in 2012.

Q.27) With reference to Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an international partnership between the USA, Canada, Japan, China, and India.
2. It is being installed at Hanle, Ladakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) The Water Risk Filter 2020 report is released by which of the following?

1. World Economic Forum (WEF)
2. World Health Organisation (WHO)
3. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
4. NITI Aayog of India

Q.29) The World’s first nuclear energy partnership centre, Global Centre for Nuclear Energy Partnership (GCNEP) is located in which of the following?

1. Kazakhstan
2. France
3. Australia
4. India

Q.30) Consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s largest cultivator of bamboo.
2. India has the world’s largest fields of bamboo.
3. The eight North-eastern States grow more than 60 percent of India’s bamboo.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.31) Fresh grapes contain 80% of water and dry grapes contain 20% of water. If the weight of dry grapes were 250 kg. What was its total weight when it was fresh?

1. 1,000 kg
2. 1,100 kg
3. 1,200 kg
4. 1,150 kg

Q.32) Weights of two friends Ram and Shyam are in the ratio 4:5. If Ram’s weight is increased by 10% and total weight of Ram and Shyam become 82.8 kg, with an increase of 15%. By what percent did the weight of Shyam has to be increased?

1. 10%
2. 19%
3. 21%
4. 25%

Q.33) On a test consisting of 80 questions, Anusha answered 90% of the first 40 questions correctly. What percent of the other 40 questions does she need answer correctly for her grade on the entire exam to be 80%?

1. 50%
2. 60%
3. 70%
4. 80%

Q.34) In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then find the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects.

1. 40%
2. 42%
3. 44%
4. 46%

Directions for the following 1(one) question:

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows the passage. Your answer to the question must be based on the passage only.

North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars (Amorpha juglandins) look like easy meals for birds, but they have a trick up their sleeves—they produce whistles that sound like bird alarm calls, scaring potential predators away.  At first, scientists suspected birds were simply startled by the loud noise.  But a new study suggests a more sophisticated mechanism:  the caterpillar’s whistle appears to mimic a bird alarm call, sending avian predators scrambling for cover. When pecked by a bird, the caterpillars whistle by compressing their bodies like an accordion and forcing air out through specialized holes in their sides.  The whistles are impressively loud – they have been measured at over 80 dB from 5 cm away from the caterpillar -considering they are made by a two-inch long insect.

Q.35) What is the most logical and appropriate summary of the passage?

1. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars will whistle periodically to ward off predator birds – they have a specialized vocal tract that helps them whistle.
2. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars can whistle very loudly; the loudness of their whistles is shocking as they are very small insects.
3. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of acoustic deception, produce whistles that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.
4. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of deception and camouflage, produce whistles that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

### Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

#### RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

 RANK NAME SCORE 1 Taranpreet kaur 60 2 Deepika gupta 58 3 Ravi Kumar singh 50 3 Sankar S 50 4 S RAHEEM BASHA 48 5 Shubam Singhla 47.333 6 Montey 46.66 6 SHRUTHI 46.66 7 Jayashankar 46 8 Ravi Chandra 45 9 Mansi 44 9 SaiKiran b 44 10 Abhimanyu 43.36 11 Vanshika 42 12 Tarunkumar M N 41.336 13 Naveen 40 13 Gauri 40 13 Siri 40 14 Apeksha Agrawal 38.7 15 prabhat sharma 36.7 16 Harsh Vardhan 36 17 Sangamesh 35 18 Vinay 34 19 Ranjula Singh 33.4 19 s.mishra 33.33 20 ayaan pathan 33 21 TINKU MITTAL 32.67 22 Sherlock 32 23 Pallavi P 28 23 Vinay Tripathi 28 24 SURYA S 27.67 25 himant 26 26 Pratyush Sharma 25 27 Shravanya G 24.06 28 Sadhana 23.38 29 Priyanshi Goel 22.66 30 xyz 22 30 priyanka meena 22 30 Sushil 22

All the Best!

IASbaba