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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 34]

  • IASbaba
  • April 29, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


ECONOMICS [DAY 34] 


Q.1) Which of the following is not a Money Market instrument?

  1. Treasury Bills
  2. Repurchase Agreements
  3. Certificate of Deposit
  4. Shares of a Company

Q.2) Which of the following is incorrect with reference to capital market?

  1. It is wider than the securities market and embraces all forms of lending and borrowing.
  2. Capital market tries to create a balance between investors and capital seekers.
  3. There are two types of instruments that are traded in the capital market that is Bonds and Stocks.
  4. It is a market, where business enterprises and governments can raise short-term funds.

Q.3) Consider the following statements in regard to Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) and FDI regulations in India:

  1. It is an inter-ministerial body, responsible for processing of FDI proposals and making recommendations for Government approval.
  2. It is an important approval body and it considers FDI below Rs 5000 crore.
  3. For FDI above Rs 5000 crore, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs is the approval authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements with reference to Initial Public Offering (IPO)

  1. IPO is the process through which the shares are sold to the public for the first time
  2. Once the shares are purchased by the general public they can be sold in the Stock Exchanges

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the below statements about debt markets in India:

  1. A bond is a debt instrument with which an entity raises money from investors.
  2. The issuer of a green bond publicly states that capital is being raised to fund ‘green’ projects.
  3. Government and non-government securities and bonds are regulated by SEBI.

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs)

  1. A foreign company can access Indian securities market for raising funds through issue of Indian Depository Receipts
  2. It is a derivative instrument with the shares of the issuing company as the underlying asset

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) India follows which of the following Exchange Rate Regimes (ERR)

  1. Pegged ERR
  2. Free floating ERR
  3. Managed floating ERR
  4. None of the above

Q.8) Under the flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined

  1. By the Central Bank
  2. By the World Trade Organisation
  3. Predominantly by market mechanism
  4. As a weighted index of a group of currencies

Q.9) Managed currency is said to be

  1. the currency, where the exchange rate of which can be managed easily.
  2. the currency that can have its exchange rate affected by the intervention of a central bank or the government.
  3. the currency, where the intrinsic value of which can be managed by increasing or decreasing its supply.
  4. quota of currency to be managed by the Central Bank at times of deflation.

Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Direct Investment

  1. FDI inflows are more stable and less volatile in nature, in contrast to the Foreign Portfolio Investments which are highly volatile in nature.
  2. FDI is preferable over debt financing as it does not create interest obligations.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) What is the term used in the foreign exchange market which denotes the currency in which the highest faith is shown and is needed by every economy?

  1. Hard currency
  2. Hot currency
  3. Soft currency
  4. Cheap currency

Q.12) Consider the following statements about Fixed-Exchange-Rate Regime:

  1. Fixed currency regime is a method of regulating exchange rates of world currencies brought by the IMF.
  2. Under a pure fixed-exchange-rate regime authorities do not intervene in the market for foreign exchange and there is minimal need for international reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) The term “Graded Surveillance Measure” was recently in news. It was related to which among the following?

  1. Share market
  2. Government budget
  3. Twin balance sheet problem
  4. Education sector

Q.14) Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

  1. SDR
  2. ADR
  3. GDR
  4. Both ADR and SDR

Q.15) Equity market instruments help in financing a firm. Which of these is/are equity market instruments?

  1. Bonds
  2. Shares
  3. Debentures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Alternative Investment Fund or AIF does not include –

  1. Venture capital funds
  2. Infrastructure funds
  3. Mutual Funds
  4. Debt funds

Q.17) With reference to SENSEX in India, consider the statements:

  1. Sensex uses weighted average method for price movement calculation
  2. Sensex is a figure indicating the relative prices of shares on the Mumbai (Bombay) Stock Exchange

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Which of the following is not the type of securities release by companies in Primary Market securities?

  1. Initial public offer
  2. Rights issue
  3. Offer to public
  4. Repurchase Agreements

Q.19) Consider the following with reference to Angel investors and Venture capitalists:

  1. Both venture capitalist and angel investor firms are usually a group of financial specialists or organizations, who usually resource into high-potential organizations in return for a fair stake.
  2. Both angels and venture capitalist firms cater to innovative startup businesses.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) The weighted average of bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies is defined by the “term” –

  1. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER)
  2. Purchasing power parity (PPP)
  3. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER)
  4. Managed-Exchange-Rate System

Q.21) The Digital Payments Index is constructed by which of the following?

  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
  2. Payment Council of India
  3. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  4. Digital Economy & Digital Payment Division of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

Q.22) The Desert Knight-21 is a bilateral exercise between India and which of the following country?

  1. France
  2. Australia
  3. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
  4. Saudi Arabia

Q.23) With reference to Arctic Council, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration.
  2. It addresses issues faced by indigenous people of the Arctic.
  3. India is not a member of the Arctic Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) The Tirthan wildlife sanctuary is located in which of the following States?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Maharashtra

Q.25) The National Science Technology and Innovation Policy (STIP) is released by which of the following institutions?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Department of Science and Technology (DST)
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.26) The “Not Many, But One”, a translated book of poems of which of the following social reformers?

  1. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. Sree Narayana Guru
  3. Keshab Chandra Sen
  4. Atmaram Pandurang

Q.27) The Climate Adaptation Summit (CAS) 2021 was held recently. In this context consider the following statements:

  1. The summit aims to accelerate, innovate, and scale up the world’s efforts in adapting to the effects of climate change.
  2. It was hosted online by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) Recently formed G Kishan Reddy Committee is related to which of the following?

  1. Personal Data Protection regime
  2. Digital Lending platforms
  3. Protect culture of a region
  4. Review of three Farm Acts

Q.29) The ‘Great Reset Initiative’ in the post Covid world was recently launched by which of the following organisation?

  1. World Economic Forum’s (WEF)
  2. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
  3. World Bank (WB)
  4. World Health Organization (WHO)

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):

  1. It is a statutory body.
  2. It is an apex body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Read the following 2 (two) passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

The dominant modern belief is that the soundest foundation of peace would be universal prosperity. One may look in vain for historical evidence that the rich have regularly been more peaceful than the poor, but then it can be argued that they have never felt secure against the poor; that their aggressiveness stemmed from fear; and that the situation would be quite different if everybody were rich.

Q.31) It can be inferred from the above passage

  1. That a lot of aggression in the world stems from the desire of the haves to defend themselves against the have-nots.
  2. Universal prosperity as a fool-proof measure of peace can no longer be accepted.
  3. Both a and b
  4. Neither a nor b

Passage 2

The effect produced on the mind by travelling depends entirely on the mind of the traveller and on the way he conducts himself. The chief idea of one very common type of traveller is to see as many objects of interest as he possibly can. If he can say after returning home that he has seen such and such temple, castle, picture gallery, or museum, he is perfectly satisfied. Far different is the effect of travels upon those who leave their country with a mind prepared by culture to feel intelligent admiration for all the beauties of nature and art to be found in foreign lands. When they visit a new place, instead of hurrying from temple to museum to picture gallery, they allow the spirit of the place to sink into their minds, and only visit such monuments as the time they have at their disposal allows them to contemplate without irreverent haste.

Q.32) It can be inferred from the above passage that

  1. the writer prefers the second type of traveller
  2. the first type of traveller is the lay traveller who does not understand the worth of any place he travels to
  3. the objective of the second type of traveller is not to see much, but to see well
  4. All of the above

Q.33) From a container of milk, 5 litres of milk is replaced with 5 litres of water. This process is repeated. Thus in two attempts, the ratio of milk and water became 81:19. The initial amount of milk in the container was

  1. 50 litres
  2. 45 litres
  3. 40 litres
  4. 25 litres

Q.34) A mixture of 12 kg of wheat flour costing Rs 16 per kg and 4 kg of corn flour costing Rs 2 per kg is sold at Rs 16 per kg. What is the profit made in selling 40 kg of the mixture?

  1. Rs 140
  2. Rs 280
  3. Rs 300
  4. Rs 420

Q.35) Sudarma went to buy three types of stationery products, each of them were priced at Rs 5, Rs 2, and Rs 1 respectively. He purchased all three types of products in more than one quantity and gave Rs 20 to the shopkeeper. Since the shopkeeper had no change with him; he gave Sudarma three more products of price Rs 1 each. Find out the number of products with Sudarma at the end of the transaction.

  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 11
  4. 10

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 58
2 Shubam Singhla 54
3 Jyot 52
4 Mansi 50
4 Mahima Kohli 50
5 Sankar S 49.34
6 ESTER FATUM 48.68
7 Ravi Kumar singh 48.34
8 shilpa 48
9 Vinay 47.66
10 Sushil 47.33
11 Shubham varma 46.7
12 Naveen 46.4
13 Tarunkumar M N 46
13 Santosh Kumar 46
14 Ritika Dalal 44.67
14 CSK 44.68
15 Ranisingh 44
16 TINKU MITTAL 42
15 s.mishra 42
16 Shruthika 42
17 Montey 40
17 Sherlock 40
18 Preeti Sinha 39.32
19 ayaan pathan 38.4
20 Priyanshi Goel 37.33
20 SHRUTHI 37.34
21 Amisha 36.7
22 Rakshitha 35.3
23 Shruti warang 35
24 NARAGANI KALYAN 34.66
24 Jayashankar 34.66
25 Sadhana 33.38
26 Sanket verma 32
26 Rajesh naidu 32
27 Manigandan 30
28 Prabhat sharma 29.36
29 Pratik 28.72
30 Aryan Raj 26.67

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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