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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 12]

  • IASbaba
  • April 3, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


ENVIRONMENT [DAY 12] 


Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to comparison between Ecosystem and Biome:

  1. Biome has large geographical area while Ecosystem has small area.
  2. Ecosystem contains large number of biome within it.
  3. All the animals and organism in ecosystem may interact with each other while this is not the case with biome.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Biome:

  1. Biomes are greatly influenced by latitudes.
  2. Two biomes can be alike and can have same type of animals and vegetation.
  3. Climate determines the boundaries between biomes and abundance of plant and species found in each of them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of organisation in ecology?

  1. Ecosystem – Biome – Biosphere – Community
  2. Community – Biome – Ecosystem – Biosphere
  3. Community – Ecosystem – Biome – Biosphere
  4. Biosphere – Community – Biome – Ecosystem

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Tundra Biome

  1. There are no trees in Tundra biome.
  2. Reptiles and amphibians are almost absent there.
  3. It is considered as world’s largest land biome since it extends across North America and Eurasia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.5) Consider the following biomes and dominant flora and fauna found there:

            (Biomes) : : (Flora and Fauna)

  1. Savanah  : : Cheetah, hyena and Grasses
  2. Tundra : : Lichens and amphibians
  3. Desert : : Reptiles and cacti
  4. Taiga : : Spruce, Fir and Siberian Tiger

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Q.6) Consider the following statements about Desert Biome:

  1. Desert humidity is usually so high that not enough water vapour exists to form clouds.
  2. Animals and birds usually have long legs to keep the body away from the hot ground.
  3. Atacama desert of South America is a coastal desert.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.7) With reference to Podzols, consider the following statements:

  1. They are typical soil of coniferous or boreal biome.
  2. They are mostly used for grazing purposes.

Choose correct option from below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1and 2
  4. None of the above

Q.8) With reference to ecology, the term ‘Nekton’ means

  1. Group of animals which are swimmers
  2. Unattached organism which live at air water interface.
  3. Organism found living in the bottom of water mass.
  4. Organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants

Q.9) Which of the following statements with reference to Aquatic ecosystem is/are incorrect?

  1. Presence of large amounts of nutrients increases the water quality and increases the population of living organism in water.
  2. Fresh water ecosystem has salt content higher than 20 ppt and less than 35 ppt.
  3. Aquatic biomes are typically classified by vegetation types.

Choose the correct code from the given options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.10) ‘It is the maximum numbers of individuals of a given species that an area resource can sustain indefinitely without significantly degrading those resources’.

Identify the correct term associated with above statement:

  1. Biotic Potential
  2. Carrying capacity
  3. Logistics growth
  4. Optimum population

Q.11) With reference to Ocean Acidification, consider the below statements:

  1. As the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide by the ocean increases, the concentration of hydrogen ions in the ocean decreases.
  2. As the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide by the ocean increases, the concentration of carbonate ions decreases and the pH of the oceans decreases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Mammals of the Tundra are generally equipped with special characteristic to be protected from chilliness. Which of the following are such characteristics?

  1. Large body size
  2. Small tail
  3. Large ear

Choose appropriate option:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.13) Consider the below statements with reference to Eutrophication:

  1. Eutrophication decreases the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water bodies.
  2. The pH level of ocean increases due to Euthrophication and Acid Rain.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Consider the following statements about the “Ocean Deoxygenation”:

  1. It means that ocean is increasingly experiencing low level of Oxygen.
  2. Cooler water is one of the reasons to increase the phenomenon of Ocean Deoxygenation, as it lowers demands of Oxygen.
  3. Anoxic waters increase the process of Climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.15) Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 defines wetlands which will be regulated. Which of the following wetland will not be regulated under given rule?

  1. River channels
  2. Paddy fields
  3. Some categories of Human-made water bodies
  4. Protected Areas
  5. Areas falling within the purview of Coastal Zone Regulation

Choose the correct Statement:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2,3 , 4 and 5 only
  4. All of the above

Q.16) Following are the given pair of wetlands and their location:

Wetlands                                            :           location

  1. Sarsai Nawar Jheel :           Maharashtra
  2. Keshopur-Miani Community Reserve : Uttar Pradesh
  3. Parvati Arga Bird Sanctuary :           Uttar Pradesh
  4. Asan Conservation Reserve :           Uttarakhand

Which of the above given pairs are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 2,3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Q.17) Sonneratia alba recently seen in news is related to:

  1. Invasive Alien species
  2. Medicinal plants of Himalayas
  3. Biofuel generating exotic species
  4. Type of Mangrove tree

Q.18) Global Coral Reef R&D Accelerator Platform has been launched by:

  1. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
  2. International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI)
  3. G20
  4. UN Environment World Conservation Monitoring Centre

Q.19) Consider the following statements about Coral Reefs:

  1. They provide accurate records of Climate Change.
  2. The highest density of Coral reefs in India is on its eastern coast.
  3. Global Coral Reef Alliance (GCRA) is a non-for profit organization initiated by UNEP to conserve Coral Reefs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.20) Which of the following are said to be the effects of Eutrophication?

  1. It changes the nature of water body to marsh due to creation of detritus layer
  2. It may lead to the invasion of new species
  3. It leads to the loss of coral reefs

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.21) With reference to Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an approach that helps a country to ensure that it has diversified its supply risk across a clutch of supplying nations.
  2. Japan has mooted the SCRI as a trilateral approach to trade, with India and Australia as the key-partners.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) With reference to recently flight tested Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an unmanned scramjet vehicle.
  2. India became the fourth country to have demonstrated this technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) The National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE) for the period 2020-2025 has been prepared by which of the following?

  1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  2. Department of Financial Services
  3. National Informatics Centre (NIC)
  4. National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE)

Q.24) Consider the following pairs:

Naval Exercise of Indian Navy Country involved
1.     INDRA France
2.     PASSEX USA
3.     JIMEX Japan

 Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.25) The Osaka declaration sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?

  1. Digital Economy
  2. Carbon Capture and Storage
  3. Biodiversity Conservation
  4. Sustainable Modes of Transport

Q.26) With reference to Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM), consider the following statements:

  1. GTAM will provide an exclusive platform for long-term trading of Renewable Energy.
  2. Transactions through GTAM will be bilateral in nature.
  3. Energy scheduled through GTAM contract shall be considered as deemed Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO) compliance of the buyer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.27) India has launched Green Strategic Partnership for delivering sustainable solutions with which of the following country?

  1. United Kingdom
  2. Germany
  3. France
  4. Denmark

Q.28) With reference to State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a Constitutional Fund.
  2. Majority of SDRF allocation is contributed by the Central Government.
  3. States can spend upto 50 percent of SDRF for COVID-19 relief.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.29) Which of the following regions is recently declared as Protected Special Agriculture Zone?

  1. Lower Gangetic Plain Region
  2. Cauvery Delta
  3. Krishna Godavari Basin
  4. Punjab Plain

Q.30) With reference to Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. D-SIIs shall be listed on a biennial basis.
  2. D-SIIs are identified by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
  3. D-SIIs are subjected to enhanced regulatory supervision.
  4. Distress or failure of D-SIIs would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

The Indian middle class consist of so many strata that it defies categorisation under a single term class, which would imply a considerable degree of homogeneity. Yet two paradoxical features characterise its conduct fairly uniformly; extensive practice and intensive abhorrence of corruption. In the several recent surveys of popular perceptions of corruptions, politicians of course invariably and understandably top the list, closely followed by bureaucrats, policemen, lawyers, businessmen and others. The quintessential middle class, if teachers do not figure high on this priority list, it is not for lack of trying, but for lack of opportunities. Over the years, the sense of shock over acts of corruption in the middle class has witnessed a steady decline, as its ambitions for a better material life have soared but the resources for meeting such ambitions have not kept pace. What is fascinating however is the intense yearning of this class for a clean corruption less politics and society, a yearning that has again and again surfaced with any figure public or obscure, focus on his mission of eradicating corruption. Even the repeated failure of this promise on virtually every man’s part has not subjected it to the law of diminishing returns.

 

Q.31) The intense Middle Class intensely yearns for

  1. better material resources
  2. better material resources
  3. clean honest society
  4. law of increasing returns

 

Q.32) Teachers are not high on the list of corruption because they do not have

  1. courage
  2. opportunities
  3. support
  4. ambition

Q.33) The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?

  1. 3 : 3 : 10
  2. 10 : 11 : 20
  3. 23 : 33 : 60
  4. Cannot be determined

Q.34) What is the speed of the train?

Statement I: The train crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds.

Statement II: The train crosses a platform of equal length in 36 seconds.

Statement III: Length of the train is 330 metres.

  1. Statement I and II only are sufficient
  2. Statement II and III only are sufficient
  3. Statement I and III only are sufficient
  4. Statement III and either Statements I or II are sufficient

Q.35) A person covered a distance from P to Q at a speed of 40 kmph. On the return journey, he covered three-fifths of the distance in two-third of the time he took to cover from P to Q. At what speed should he travel to complete the remaining journey from Q to P, in the remaining time?

  1. 45 km/hr
  2. 48 km/hr
  3. 54 km/hr
  4. 61 km/hr

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 60
2 Mansi 57.37
3 Deepika gupta 56
3 Santosh Kumar 56
4 shilpa 54
5 Manasa Shankar Bhat 51.4
6 YB 50
7 Ravi Chandra 48
8 selva kumar 47.38
9 Tarunkumar M N 46.67
10 saikiran b 46
11 shilpa c baby 44
11 Akshat Pathak 44
11 Priyanshi Goel 44
12 Ravi Kumar singh 43.8
13 Sankar S 43.33
14 s.mishra 42.66
15 Apeksha 42
15 Blue moon 42
15 Pallabi Bharali 42
15 ATG 42
15 mayan 42
15 Vanshika 42
16 SHUBHAM KUMAR 41.33
16 Ritika Gupta 41.33
17 Sarwar Hasib 40.67
18 TINKU MITTAL 40
18 Panga mounika 40
18 Richa singh 40
18 Federer 40
19 Nadiya 39.72
20 Anisha 38.68
21 GEETHA 38
22 bhawana goyal 37.33
23 Ayaan Pathan 35.33
23 Sarath 35.33
23 mayan 35.33
23 Vipin Srivastava 35.3
24 kanika 34.7
24 Jeff Tao 34.7
25 Pallavi P 34.67
25 Preeti sinha 34.64
26 Sravan 33.8
27 Aurora 33.4
27 Mahima Kohli 33.33
28 Omkar Vichare 33
29 Sadhana 32.72
29 SHIVANGI KAUSHISH 32.7
30 Vinay Tripathi 32.66

 

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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