IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 31]

  • IASbaba
  • April 26, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements:

  1. Groundwater hosts more water than lakes and rivers combined.
  2. Deep-sea trenches are formed at the continent margin.
  3. Eastern coast of North America has wider continental shelf than coast of Chile.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) The phenomenon of “Ekman Transport” is related with?

  1. Ocean Deposits
  2. Waves
  3. Tides
  4. Ocean Currents

Q.3) With reference to “Submarine Canyons”, consider the following statements:

  1. Submarine canyons are formed via erosion and mass wasting events.
  2. A submarine canyon can extend up to the mouth of the rivers.
  3. Due to turbidity current they are devoid of primary productivity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) With respect to the ocean deposits consider the following statements:

  1. Red clay is the most abundant of deep water deposits.
  2. Calcareous biological ooze is found above carbon compensation depth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) With reference to “Marine Heat Wave”, consider the following statements:

  1. Marine heat waves occur only in summer.
  2. Marine heat wave is unique to Pacific Ocean.
  3. The most common drivers of marine heat waves include ocean and air-sea heat flux.
  4. It always negatively affects ecosystem structure.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 3 and 4

Q.6) Consider the following statements about abyssal plains:

  1. Abyssal plains are flat featureless plains.
  2. Fine to coarse grain sediments are deposited on the abyssal plains.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Select the incorrect statement with respect to thermoclines:

  1. It is a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers.
  2. The boundary usually begins around 100 – 400 m below the sea surface and extends few meters downward.
  3. It is a zone of steep temperature gradient.
  4. Thermoclines are least developed in the upwelling zones.

Q.8) Consider the following statements about waves:

  1. Surface waves, are formed due to the friction between surface water and wind.
  2. Waves can be created by the gravitational pull of the sun and moon.
  3. The breaking of water of surface waves can happen anywhere on the surface of the seawater.
  4. Seiche waves are a type of standing waves.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.9) Select the incorrect statement from below given options:

  1. Oyashio current is a warm ocean current.
  2. Anadyr current is a cold ocean current.
  3. Alaska current is a warm ocean current.
  4. California current is cold water current.

Q.10) Consider the following statements about coral reefs:

  1. Coral reefs help in shoreline protection.
  2. Coral reefs are also found in the upwelling zones.
  3. Coral reefs are largely absent on the eastern coast of India.

Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.11) Which of the following lakes given below is/are manmade?

  1. Bhojtal
  2. Gobind Sagar
  3. Bhimtal Lake

Select the correct option:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Consider the following statements about artesian basins:

  1. An artesian basin is a low-lying region where groundwater is cramped under pressure.
  2. The Great Artesian Basin is the largest and deepest artesian basin in the world which is located within Brazil.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) Consider the following statements about glaciers:

  1. Siachen is the second longest glacier outside of the Polar Regions and largest in the Himalayas-Karakoram region.
  2. Glacial retreat may form glacial lakes.
  3. Global warming induced by the climate change is increasing the number of the glaciers.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Which of the following statements about ocean salinity is incorrect?

  1. The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity than other oceanic waters at same latitude.
  2. The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation.
  3. Arabian Sea shows lower salinity than Bay of Bengal.
  4. Equatorial waters have less salinity than tropical waters.

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

  1. Lake Titicaca is the highest navigable lake in the world.
  2. Gaet’ale Pond located in Ethiopia is the saltiest water body on Earth.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) With reference to “tides” consider the following statements:

  1. Zenith tide is formed where the tidal force of moon is maximum.
  2. Solar bulges are 46% the size of lunar bulges.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.17) Consider the following statements about “water mass”:

  1. It makes up to 90% ocean waters.
  2. It is more distinct below pycnocline.
  3. Water mass is more developed in zones of upwelling.
  4. They are not confined to one ocean.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

  1. Ansupa is the largest fresh water lake in Odisha.
  2. Vellayani Lake is a freshwater lake located in Tamil Nadu.

Select the correct statement(s):

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?



1.     North Pacific Subtropical Gyre Turtle Gyre
2.     Indian Ocean Gyre Majid Gyre
3.     South Atlantic  Gyre Heyerdahl Gyre

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.20) With reference to “United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)” consider the following statements:

  1. The contiguous zone extends seaward up to 24 nautical miles from the boundary of territorial waters.
  2. Australia has the largest Exclusive Economic Zone in the world.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.21) Consider the following statements:

  1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is held on January 9 as it was on this day in 1916 Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa.
  2. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention being held every year is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) The ‘NAVARITIH’ is a certification course on which of the following?

  1. Acknowledging Traditional Skills
  2. Energy Efficient technology
  3. Artificial Intelligence
  4. Construction Technology

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of the Ecosystem Services (NCAVES) Project:

  1. Except Russia all other BRICS countries are taking part in NCAVES Project.
  2. The NCAVES Project is funded by the World Bank.
  3. It is implemented by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) The SANRAKSHAN KSHAMTA MAHOTSAV is a is a campaign organised by which of the following organisation?

  1. Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)
  2. Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
  3. Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
  4. Nature Conservation Foundation

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

Festival Celebrated in
1.     Magh Bihu Assam
2.     Makara Chaula West Bengal
3.     Poush Sankranti Odisha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) Which of the following international organisations are part of Intergovernmental Negotiations framework (IGN)?

  1. G4 nations
  2. African Union
  3. Arab League
  4. European Union

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.27) The only species of Indian turtle which is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ in IUCN Red Data List is

  1. Green sea turtle
  2. Hawksbill sea turtle
  3. Loggerhead sea turtle
  4. Leatherback sea turtle

Q.28) Consider the following parameters: 

  1. Knowledge Workers
  2. Safety and Legal Environment
  3. Social Capital
  4. Knowledge Diffusion

Which of the parameters given above are used to measure India Innovation Index?

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.29) The Global Investment Trend Monitor Report is released by which of the following organisation?

  1. World Bank
  2. World Economic Forum (WEF)
  3. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
  4. United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)

Q.30) Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

  1. Aral Sea
  2. Black Sea
  3. Lake Chad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 3

Q.31) A mixture of certain quantity of milk with 18 litre of water is worth 0.5 Rs per litre. If pure milk be worth 3.5 Rs per litre, the how much milk is there in the mixture?

  1. 6 litre
  2. 4 litre
  3. 3 litre
  4. 2 litre

Q.32) A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and there by gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is?

  1. 18%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 30%

Q.33) A shopkeeper purchased 15 kg of variety A rice at X Rs per kg and 10 kg of variety B rice at ‘X+ 5’ Rs per kg. The shopkeeper sold the whole quantity of variety A rice at 10% profit and that of variety B rice at 20% profit. The total selling price of variety A rice was Rs 30 more than that of variety B rice. Had the two varieties been mixed and sold at an overall profit of 20%, what would have been the selling price of the mixture per kg?

  1. Rs 23.5
  2. Rs 26.4
  3. Rs 27.25
  4. Rs 28.2

Q.34) A water tank can hold 50 litres of water. During the time of observation, it was 3/4 full, after which 1/2 of the water was drained away. There was an increase in water volume by 2 litres due to rain. How much water was thereafter the observation period?

  1. 75 litres
  2. 75 litres
  3. 5 litres
  4. 15 litres

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Your answer to this question should be based on passage only.

Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer Medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a State faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So, the working population should give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.

Q.35) Which one of the following if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most?

  1. The investable income of the working population, as a proportion of its total income, will grow in the future
  2. The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future
  3. India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all its positive and negative implications
  4. If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the joint family system

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.


Congratulations to all

1 Taranpreet kaur 57.34
2 Mansi 54
3 shilpa 52
4 Shubam Singhla 50
5 Ravi Kumar singh 49.68
6 Sankar S 48
7 Swati Jindal 47.36
8 Naveen 46
9 Montey 44
10 Priyanka Meena 42.8
11 CSK 42
12 Tarunkumar M N 40
13 Rakshitha 39.3
15 Santosh Kumar 38
16 Vinay 37.38
17 SHRUTHI 36.67
18 sweta 34.04
19 ayaan pathan 32
20 Sadhana 27.38
21 Manigandan 26.06
22 Sushil 24.45
23 Shruti warang 24
24 Pratyush Sharma 23.6
25 Amisha 22.06
25 SURYA 22
25 Sherlock 22

All the Best!




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