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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 16]

  • IASbaba
  • April 8, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


HISTORY [DAY 16] 


Q.1) The following statement is related to which of the following great personalities of India.

“The Montford Reforms ….were only a method of further draining India of her wealth and of prolonging her servitude”.

  1. M. K. Gandhi
  2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Madan Mohan Malyiya

Q.2) British government organized three conferences between 1930 and 1932 as per 1930 report of Simon Commission, in order to –

  1. Chart out a long-term economic plan for India
  2. Review major trade and investment policies of the British in India
  3. Educational and Social Reforms
  4. Discuss constitutional reforms in India

Q.3) Arrange the below according to its correct chronological order

  1. Kakori Robbery
  2. Chittagong Armoury Raid
  3. Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy Case

Select correct code from the following:

  1. 1 – 3 – 2
  2. 2 – 1 – 3
  3. 3 – 1 – 2
  4. 2 – 1 – 3

Q.4) Harcourt Butler Committee or Butler Commission appointed on December 16, 1927 dealt with –

  1. secondary and intermediate education
  2. judicial reforms
  3. relations between the native states and the paramount power
  4. None of the above

Q.5) The objective of Muddiman committee of 1924 was to

  1. examine the working of diarchy established during Montague-Chelmsford reforms
  2. impose censorship on the regional newspapers
  3. investigate the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps for reform
  4. propose state interference in food trade in the event of famine

Q.6) In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi use ‘Hunger Strike’ as a tool for the first time to get his demands met?

  1. Civil Disobedience Movement
  2. Rowlatt Satyagraha
  3. Non – Cooperation movement
  4. Ahmadabad mills strike

Q.7) Indian leadership across India opposed the Indian ‘Statutory Commission’ sent to India to review the working of Indian Council’s Act 1919. The Indians opposed it because:

  1. It was sent much earlier than it was scheduled.
  2. It abolished separate electorates
  3. There was not even a single Indian member in the commission.
  4. It was set up by the British Crown

Q.8) India was offered ‘August Offer’ from the British government to get Congress support. ‘August Offer’ guaranteed

  1. A representative Constitution making body.
  2. Number of Indians in Viceroy’s executive council will increase.
  3. A war advisory council would set up
  4. Partition of India

Select the code from below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

  1. Karachi session of 1931 is famous for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Program.
  2. It was presided by Sardar Patel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Quit India Movement’?

  1. It was a peaceful non violent movement.
  2. Muslim league and Communists supported the movement.
  3. Nehru formed a parallel government and declared India independent.
  4. Mahatma Gandhi extended his support to Subash Chandra Bose’s INA and urged youth to join the army

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None of the above

Q.11) Which of the following personalities founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929?

  1. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
  2. Jai Prakash Narayan
  3. Ram Manohar Lohiya
  4. Baba Ramchander

Q.12) Which of the following literary pieces are correctly matched with their authors?

  1. The untouchables – B R Ambedkar
  2. Kudi Arasu – E V Ramaswami Naicker
  3. Ghulan Girl – Jyotiba Phule

Select the code from following:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.13) Consider the following statements about Tripuri session of Congress:

  1. Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as the President of Congress for the first time.
  2. Subhash Chandra Bose defeated Maulana Azad who was nominated by Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from Congress soon after the Tripuri session.

Which of the above statements are NOT correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding Gandhi’s ideas on government as elucidated in his book ‘Hind Swaraj’

  1. An ideal state did not need a representative government, a constitution, an army
  2. He was sure that representative democracy could not provide people with justice
  3. He believed in the decentralisation of political as well as economic power

Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding the initial response of nationalists to the 2nd World War

  1. Gandhi advocated an unconditional support to the Allied powers
  2. Bose and other Socialists wanted to take advantage of the situation and snatch freedom from Britain
  3. Nehru advocated that India should not participation until India itself was free

Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.16) The official Congress position to conditionally support the British war effort in 2nd World War was adopted at

  1. Bombay
  2. Nagpur
  3. Wardha
  4. Satara

Q.17) Which among the following events happened earliest?

  1. August Offer by the British
  2. Individual Satyagraha
  3. The arrival of Stafford Cripps to India
  4. Quit India movement

Q.18) ‘C. Rajagopalachari formula’ was related to

  1. Seeking release of Gandhi from imprisonment
  2. Seeking Japanese support to overthrow British rule
  3. Seeking solution to Muslim league’s Pakistan demand
  4. Seeking accession of princely states into Union of India

Q.19) After the provincial elections of 1937, Congress ministries in provinces took steps in defending and extending civil liberties. Which one among the following was not such a step?

  1. All the restrictions on the press were removed.
  2. Ban on the communist party revoked.
  3. Confiscated arms were returned and forfeited arms licenses were restored.
  4. Police powers were curbed.

Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding “Swaraj Party”

  1. R. Das and Motilal Nehru were the leaders of Swaraj Party.
  2. Swarajist wanted the constructive programme to be coupled with a political programme of council entry.
  3. Special Congress session in 1923 held at Delhi allowed Swarajists to contest the elections.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All the above

Q.21) With reference to Ambedkar Social Innovation & Incubation Mission (ASIIM), consider the following statements:

  1. It aims at promoting entrepreneurship among women with special preference to scheduled caste women.
  2. Under the mission, 100000 initiatives would be identified and funded up to Rs. 30 lakhs in three year as equity to translate their start-up ideas into commercial ventures.
  3. It is launched by Ministry of Science and Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) The ISA-CARES Initiative of International Solar Alliance (ISA) aims at which of the following?

  1. Attract investment in developing solar technology
  2. Promote research in storage technologies like battery
  3. Deployment of solar energy in healthcare sector
  4. Establish chain of solar parks across its member countries

Q.23) Consider the following pairs:

Region Country
1.     Oromia Ethiopia
2.     Mindanao Indonesia
3.     Oaxaca Mexico

Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Which of the following statements regarding Fishing Cat is/are correct?

  1. It is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red data book.
  2. It is a symbolic species of floodplains, deltas and coastal wetlands restricted to South Asia.
  3. It is the state animal of Andhra Pradesh.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) Consider the following statements:

  1. The MACS 6478 is new high yielding wheat variety helping farmers to double their yield.
  2. It is developed by Indian agricultural Research Institute (IARI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26) The Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme aims to connect villages with high-speed optical fibre internet in which of the following state?

  1. Assam
  2. Bihar
  3. Odisha
  4. Jharkhand

Q.27) Arrange the following Northern African countries from East to West:

  1. Algeria
  2. Egypt
  3. Morocco
  4. Libya

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
  2. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
  3. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
  4. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Q.28) With reference to RUDRAM missile of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile.
  2. It is an air-to-air missile with operational range of more than 100 km.
  3. Along with Sukhoi-30 MKI, it can be adapted for launch from other fighter jets also.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.29) With reference to World Food Programme (WFP), consider the following statements:

  1. WFP is the food-assistance branch of the United Nations.
  2. It was founded by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
  3. It is a member of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) Which of the region are most affected by the Asian Dust or yellow dust storms?

  1. Arabian peninsula
  2. Central Asia
  3. Korean Peninsula
  4. Siberia

Q.31) A certain number of people were supposed to complete a work in 24 days. The work, however, took 32 days, since 9 people were absent throughout. How many people were supposed to be working originally?

  1. 32
  2. 27
  3. 36
  4. 30

Q.32) Q is twice efficient as P and P can do a piece of work in 15 days. P started the work and after a few days, Q joined him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the starting. For how many days did they work together?

  1. 1 day
  2. 2 days
  3. 6 days
  4. 5 days

Q.33) How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 21
  2. 22
  3. 24
  4. 26

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1

It is notable that power major NTPC has joined hands with oil giant IOC to set up a series of electric vehicle (EV) charging stations in cities and along highways. There is much potential for India to emerge as a leader in small and public EVs, given high latent demand. The benefits in reducing demand for imported crude oil can be huge, apart from reducing carbon emissions and other air pollutants.

The most effective way to bring down carbon emissions and pollution from transport is to vastly expand and improve public transport — buses are just 2% of the vehicles on the road. That said, there is much scope to replace India’s giant fleet of two-wheelers with electric bikes. India has over 170 million two-wheelers, and sales data from the last six years show that 79% of on-road vehicles here are two-wheelers. It would make perfect sense to boost supply of EVs, especially two-wheelers, e-rickshaws, tempos and small cars, so as to complement and supplement public transport going forward. Estimates suggest that by meeting a rising part of the incremental demand for mobility, EVs can lead to macroeconomic benefits, and sooner rather than later. Assuming only about half a litre of petrol consumption per two-wheeler daily, or about 200 litres annually, the volumes would add up to over 30 billion litres. And the bill for which, at current prices, would amount to well over Rs 2 lakh crore.

In tandem, we need power reforms to rev up utility realisations and strengthen the grid. India also has an opportunity in supplying on-board electric batteries. Swapping services to provide charged batteries on lease would step-up diffusion of EVs. A power-electronics industry ecosystem would raise production and provide high-efficiency subsystems for EVs. India must not miss the bus on EVs.

Q.34) “There is much potential for India to emerge as a leader in small and public EVs, given high latent demand.” What can be logically deducted from the given sentence?

  1. Electric vehicles are less in developed countries as compared to India.
  2. India has not yet adopted electric vehicles fully.
  3. Indians are already demanding a huge number of electric vehicles.

Choose the correct option

  1. Only statement 3 is correct
  2. Only statement 2 is correct
  3. Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
  4. All the statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

 

Q.35) From the given information, the tone of the passage can be deduced as

  1. Sarcastic
  2. Caustic
  3. Cynical
  4. Laudatory

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 aparigraha 56
2 Taranpreet kaur 55.34
3 Tarunkumar M N 54.67
4 Deepika gupta 54
5 Mansi 52.68
5 Sankar S 52.68
6 Santosh Kumar 52
6 Nilesh 52
7 Ravi Kumar singh 51.4
7 YB 51.4
8 S RAHEEM BASHA 48
8 Monika 48
9 ANUSHRI GAUR 46.7
9 SHUBHAM KUMAR 46.7
9 Smaranika 46.7
10 VISHAL IJ GOGOI 44.7
11 shilpa 44
12 Prabhat sharma 43.36
12 sweta 43.36
13 B saikiran 42
13 Vanshika Sharma 42
14 Jeff Tao 40.02
15 Vipin Srivastava 39.3
15 Akshat Pathak 39.3
16 Sravan 38.7
17 ESTER FATUM 38
17 MONIMOY PAUL 38
18 TINKU MITTAL 37.33
19 Apeksha Agrawal 36.7
19 Shubham varma 36.7
19 Sadhana 36.7
20 ayaan pathan 36.36
21 Pooja naik 36.04
22 Sushil 35
23 Prashant Gautam 34.7
23 Shivika 34.7
24 Shruti Warang 34.4
25 CHRISTHU RAJ J 34.33
26 Mahima 34.04
27 Vaibhav Singh 33.38
28 Pallavi P 33.33
28 Kishore Raj A.S 33.33
28 Priyanshi Goel 33.33
29 Shruti kumari 33.04
30 KANCHAN 32.7

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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