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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 44]

  • IASbaba
  • May 11, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


GEOGRAPHY [DAY 44] 


Q.1) Which of the following affects the natural population growth of a place?

  1. Crude Birth Rate
  2. Crude Death Rate
  3. Immigration
  4. Emigration

Choose the correct option:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) With reference to “Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC)”, consider the following statements:

  1. It was conducted for the first time along with the first synchronous census in India of 1881.
  2. SECC 2011 has three census components which were conducted by three separate authorities but under the overall coordination of Ministry of Home Affairs.
  3. The Census under Census Act, 1948 provides a tool to identify beneficiaries of state support while the SECC is portrait of the Indian population.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and3

Q.3) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Population Density

 

Description
1.     Arithmetic Density

 

Total number of people per unit land
2.     Physiological Density

 

 

Ratio of the number of farmers to the amount of arable land
3.     Agricultural Density In a region, number of people supported by a unit area of arable land

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. Khasi language is part of Sino-Tibetan Languages family.
  2. Female Labour Force Participation Rate of rural area is higher than that of urban.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) According to the recently released report ‘International Migration 2020 Highlights’, by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA), which country hosts the largest Indian Diaspora?

  1. United States of America
  2. Saudi Arabia
  3. United Arab Emirates
  4. Canada

Q.6) “It refers to outward expansion of an urban centre towards its periphery. Here, the core of the city shifts to the fringe areas or hinterland. This term was coined by Edward Soja. It leads to the development of the ‘city outside a city’.” Which of the following best describes the above city?

  1. Flex Cities
  2. Exopolis
  3. Cosmopolis
  4. World City

Q.7) With reference to settlements, consider the following statements:

  1. Type of settlement implies the degree of dispersion or nucleation of the dwellings.
  2. Pattern of settlement refers to the geometrical shapes formed by the arrangements of dwellings.
  3. Bihar has the highest number of villages according to Census of India 2011.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) With reference to census conducted in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The reference date of census is taken as 1st March for every state.
  2. The population count is taken as on sunrise of 1st March

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.9) With reference to “international poverty line”, consider the following statements:

  1. The international poverty line has been set at $1.50 per day.
  2. As per the latest estimates, more than 15% percent of the world’s population lives at or below the poverty line.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the first-ever Periodic Labor Force Survey (PLFS) community which has the highest Unemployment Rate is Christians.
  2. Under disguised unemployment marginal productivity of labour is zero.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.11) Which of the following statements given below is/are correct?

  1. India covers 2.4% of land, but is home to more than 17% of world population.
  2. In recent years, India’s population growth rate has become negative.

Select the correct statements:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Consider the following demographic attributes of India:

  1. India’s total fertility rate is well above replacement rate.
  2. Fertility rate of Indians has consistently declined since independence.
  3. Fertility rate in urban India is well below replacement rate.

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None

Q.13) Match the following pairs:

Pair I

  1. Most densely populated state of India.
  2. Worst performing state of India in terms of female literacy.
  3. Worst performing state of India in terms of female sex ratio.
  4. Least urbanized state of India.

Pair II

  1. Haryana
  2. West Bengal
  3. Bihar
  4. Rajasthan
  5. Arunachal Pradesh
  6. Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct code from given options:

  1. 1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-F
  2. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-E
  3. 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-F
  4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F

Q.14) Consider the following statements about internal migration in India:

  1. More than 2/3rd of internal migrants are females.
  2. Bihar is the largest source of inter-state migrants in India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Select the incorrect statement from below given options:

  1. Migration in India is signified by only change in place of residence.
  2. Migration always involves a change in residence.

Choose from below given options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) Which of the following can cause burgeoning of slums?

  1. Uncontrolled migration.
  2. Rapid growth of urban population.
  3. High land values in urban areas.

Select the correct code from below given options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.17) Arrange the following racial groups in chronological order on the basis of their entry into the Indian subcontinent:

  1. Proto-Australoids
  2. Nordics
  3. Mediterraneans
  4. Mongoloid

Select the correct code from below given options:

  1. 1-4-3-2
  2. 1-3-4-2
  3. 2-1-3-4
  4. 2-3-1-4

Q.18) Consider the following statements about urban sprawl:

  1. It refers to the migration of a population from populated towns and cities to adjoining low density suburban areas.
  2. Urban sprawl can lead to environmental problems.
  3. It can result from increased affluence, attractive land and housing prices.
  4. Urban sprawl is a planning problem.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.19) Identify major industrial regions of India from below given options:

  1. Chotanagpur Industrial Region
  2. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Industrial Region
  3. Ambala-Amritsar Industrial Region
  4. Kollam-Trivandrum Industrial Region

Select the correct code from below given options:

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.20) Select the incorrect statements about major religious groups in India from below given options:

  1. Child sex ratio is highest among Hindu religious group in India.
  2. Literacy rate is highest among Christian religious group in India.
  3. Female work participation rate is highest among Buddhist religious group in India.
  4. All of the above statements are incorrect.

Q.21) Consider the following statements with reference to “CAFÉ Regulations”:

  1. Source of this regulation is National Road Transport Policy, 2016.
  2. It covers emission of all greenhouse gases, also covered in Basel Norms.
  3. CAFE regulations are in power for all the engines – Diesel, Petrol as well as CNG.

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Consider the following statements:

  1. Ease of Living Index is released by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, while Municipal Performance Index is released by Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
  2. Better performance in Ease of Living index will lead to more allocation of funds from state government.
  3. Ease of Living Index has four parameter including Citizen’s perception.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.23) Consider the following statements with reference to “Red Rice”:

  1. It is rich in Iron.
  2. It is grown in laterite soils of Gujarat and some areas of Eastern Ghats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Consider the following statements about ‘Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC):

  1. It is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise established by Department of Biotechnology.
  2. One of its strategies is to enable commercialisation of discovery.
  3. It provides funding to other private organisation to bring innovation excellence.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) Tinku Mittal is a foreign national of Australia and has his roots in India. Now he wants to apply for Overseas Indian Card. Consider the following case:

  1. He was born in March 1952 in Delhi and left country in 1960.
  2. His Indian parent have fought Indian Freedom struggle and have been elected as Chief Minister of State.
  3. He has married an Indian girl, whose both parents are Indian at her birth.
  4. Meanwhile, he has accepted Citizenship in Bangladesh, as he has invested much there.

In which of the above condition, he will be able to get OCI card?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.26) Consider the following statements about ‘”The Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021″:

  1. This rule divide social media intermediary into two categories, categorising on audio-video type.
  2. The social media platform has to follow court order to remove or disable access to information.

Form the following options, choose the correct answer.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

  1. It is situated in two states.
  2. Park named on the river cut it into two equal parts: eastern and western.
  3. Recently it was awarded with title of best managed tiger reserves in the country.

Which of the following Tiger Reserve is being talked about?

  1. Periyar Tiger Reserve
  2. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
  3. Rajaji Tiger Reserve
  4. Pench Tiger Reserve

Q.28) Helinski Rule and Berlin rules sometimes seen in news are related to:

  1. To Counter-terrorism Measures
  2. To combat money laundering
  3. For use of water Resources
  4. To define post-Soviet order

Q.29) Which of the following Organisation has released Food Waste Index Report, 2021?

  1. Food and Agriculture Organisation
  2. World Food Programme
  3. Food Corporation of India
  4. United Nations Environment Programme

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme:

  1. Sovereign Gold Bonds are directly issued by Ministry of Finance.
  2. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) can also invest in this bonds.
  3. Capital gain tax will be applied after maturity of bonds.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. All of the Above

Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

Q.31) It is pointed out in the passage that opera

  1. has developed under the influence of musical theatre
  2. is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra
  3. is not a high-budget production
  4. is the most complex of all the performing arts

Passage 2

Many sociologists have argued that there is functional relationship between education and economic system. They point to the fact that mass formal education began in industrial society. They note that the expansion of the economies of industrial societies is accompanied by a corresponding expansion of their educational systems. They explain this correspondence in terms of the needs of industry for skilled and trained manpower, needs which are met by the educational system. Thus, the provision of mass elementary education in Britain in 1870 can be seen as a response to the needs of industry for a literate and numerate workforce at a time when industrial processes were becoming more complex and the demand for technical skills was steadily growing.

Q.32) The industry needs a literate work-force because

  1. its expansion needs sound learning
  2. it relies heavily on expertise
  3. it promotes a competitive spirit
  4. its operations need intricate technical knowledge

Q.33) Where should the number 17 be placed to fit into the sequence?

18, 11, 15, 14, 19, 16, 20, 20

  1. Between 14 and 19
  2. Between 18 and 11
  3. Between 19 and 16
  4. Between 15 and 14

Q.34) Find the missing number: 2, 6, 20, 42, 110, ?

  1. 126
  2. 156
  3. 176
  4. 196

Q.35) Find the missing number from the given series

5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, _

  1. 109
  2. 115
  3. 122
  4. 125

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.
RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 57.34
2 Mansi 54
3 Shubam Singhla 52
4 Santosh Kumar 50
5 Sankar S 48
6 Ravi Kumar singh 47.34
7 shubham varma 46.7
8 Naveen 46.34
9 Vinay 46
10 CSK 44
10 Shruthika 44
11 shilpa 40
12 Rakshitha 38
12 Swati Jindal 38
13 Tarunkumar M N 37.338
14 ayaan pathan 35.5
15 TINKU MITTAL 34.67
16 Sherlock 32
17 Jayashankar 30
18 Rajesh Naidu 30
19 Amisha 27.38
19 Preeti Sinha 27.31
20 Prashant Gautam 26.67
20 anukriti 26.67

All the Best! 

IASbaba

 

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