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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 37]

  • IASbaba
  • May 3, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


POLITY [DAY 37] 


Q.1) Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government.
  2. The Indian federal system is based on the ‘American model’.
  3. The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1 and 3

Q.2) Which among the following trends in the working of Indian political system reflects its federal spirit?

  1. Territorial disputes between states
  2. Disputes between states over sharing of river water
  3. The emergence of regional parties and their coming to power in some states
  4. The creation of new states to fulfill the regional aspirations

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.3) Which of the statements given below is/are not true with regard to Constitution of India?

  1. Constitution of India divides all powers – legislative, executive, judicial and financial – between the Centre and the states.
  2. Constitution does not contain elaborate provisions to regulate the various dimensions of the relations between the Centre and the states.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements and identify the correct ones:

  1. Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between the Centre and the states with respect to both the territory and the subjects of legislation.
  2. The Seventh Schedule contains three Legislative Lists which enumerate subjects of administration, viz., Union, State and Concurrent Legislative Lists.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the following statements:

  1. In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the state law
  2. If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state
  3. It means, only in the above case [statement (2)], Parliament cannot override over the state law

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 only
  4. None of the above

Q.6) The objectives (or the functions) of the zonal councils does not include which of the following:

  1. To help in arresting the growth of acute state-consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic trends
  2. To help in removing the after-effects of separation in some cases so that the process of reorganisation, integration and economic advancement may synchronise
  3. To secure some kind of political equilibrium between different regions of the country
  4. None of the above

Q.7) Which schedule deals with the provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection?

  1. Seventh schedule
  2. Tenth schedule
  3. Eighth schedule
  4. Ninth schedule

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

  1. The power to declare a scheduled area is vested in President
  2. The power to alternate the boundary of schedule area is vested in Governor
  3. The alternation in boundaries of schedule areas is done by legislation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the above

Q.9) With regard to Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements

  1. The Governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts
  2. Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of both elected and nominated members

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Constitution has provided for certain provisions with regard to inter-state comity or harmony. Identify the correct ones from the below:

  1. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse.
  2. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
  3. Coordination through inter-state councils.
  4. Establishment of zonal councils.

Choose the correct codes from below options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

  1. The governor of concerned state with scheduled areas and scheduled tribes is empowered to increase or decrease the area of scheduled areas.
  2. The governor of state with scheduled areas has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president.
  3. Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Which of the following provisions is/are provided in the Constitution to secure cooperation and coordination between the Centre and the states?

  1. President can establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states.
  2. Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. Which of the following is/are part of provisions provided by the Constitution with regard to it?

  1. Constitution provides for setting up of Inter-State Water Disputes tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.
  2. Constitution provides for the establishment of River Boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies established by an Act of the Parliament. The act divided the country into five zones and provided a zonal council for each zone. Each Zonal Council consists of which of the following members?

  1. Home minister of Central government
  2. Home ministers of all the States in the zone
  3. Chief ministers of all the States in the zone
  4. Administrator of each union territory in the zone

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.15) Consider the following statements about Indian federal system

  1. The Indian federal system is based on the British model
  2. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states but they have right to secede from the federation

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above

Q.16) Constitution has defined the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the states. Which of the below statement is not true in regard to it?

  1. A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state.
  2. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
  3. Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
  4. Neither parliament nor state legislature can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’.

Q.17)  Consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament of India is empowered to make laws with every matter that is enumerated in the State List in the national interest.
  2. To do this, a resolution by Lok Sabha is required supported by two thirds of the members present and voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements about Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme

  1. It provides for financial assistance to only patients, living below poverty line who are suffering from major life threatening diseases
  2. The RAN Fund could also be subscribed by individuals in India or abroad with the approval of FCRA

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above

Q.19) Consider the following statements about ‘Cities Innovation Exchange’:

  1. This platform is released by NITI Aayog for assessment of cities.
  2. This platform will lead to comparison of different cities based on the innovation among people.

Form the following options, choose the correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Consider the following statements about recent launched schemes –

  1. National Urban Digital Mission (NUDM) will create a shared digital infrastructure for urban India.
  2. India Urban Data Exchange has been developed by NITI Aayog.

Choose the correct answer form the given option below –

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) With reference to National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) Project, consider the following statements:

  1. NeVA enables automation of entire law making process.
  2. NeVA aims to bring all the legislatures of the country together in one platform.
  3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs as a nodal ministry provides 100 percent funding for the NeVA project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) The DIWALI Alliance between India and Netherlands aims to find solutions for which of the following?

  1. Smart Urban Landscape
  2. Water related challenges
  3. Climate Adoption and Mitigation
  4. Sustainable Waste Management

Q.23) The Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO) will be an array of antennas strategically designed and set up in which of the following countries?

  1. China
  2. South Africa
  3. United Kingdom
  4. Australia
  5. United State of America

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 3 and 5 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3, 4 and 5
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.24) Which of the following city of India has been recently awarded as one of the ‘Tree Cities of the World’?

  1. Chandigarh
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Guwahati
  4. Bengaluru

Q.25) With reference to UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC), consider the following statements:

  1. It was created by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in 1948 post adoption of Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
  2. It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UNGA.
  3. Members of the Council serve for three years and are not eligible for immediate re-electi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) The Kyoto Convention was concluded under the aegis of which of the following organisation?

  1. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
  3. World Trade Organization (WTO)
  4. World Customs Organization (WCO)

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding SAKSHAM (Shramik Shakti Manch) Portal:

  1. It is a job portal for mapping the skills of Shramiks with regard to requirements of MSMEs.
  2. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
  3. The portal is not an all India portal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding Tholpavakoothu:

  1. It is a form of rod puppetry.
  2. It is practiced in the state of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Recently seen in news, the Jezero Crater is on which of the following celestial body?

  1. Moon
  2. Saturn
  3. Mars
  4. Mercury

Q.30) The “Skill training on Gender Sensitisation and Prevention of Sexual Harassment (POSH) at the workplace” Project is launched by which of the following Ministry?

  1. Ministry of Women and Child Development
  2. Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  4. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Q.31) The average age of three boys is 15 years and their ages are in proportion 3:5:7. What is the age in years of the youngest boy?

  1. 15 years
  2. 18 years
  3. 14 years
  4. 9 years

Q.32) The average of 15 numbers is 15. If the average of first five numbers is 14 and that of other 9 numbers is 16, then find the middle number.

  1. 9
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 14

Q.33) In an island, there are four men for every three women and five children for every three men. How many women are there in the island if it has 1000 children?

  1. 450
  2. 600
  3. 750
  4. 900

Q.34) When a student weighing 45 kg left a class, the average weight of the remaining 59 students increased by 200g. What is the average weight of the remaining 59 students?

  1. 57 kg
  2. 58 kg
  3. 59 kg
  4. 62 kg

Q.35) Study the problem statement given and answer the questions that follow.

A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother.

How is B related to D?

  1. Grand daughter
  2. Grand son
  3. Wife
  4. Can’t be determined

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 57.34
2 Mansi 56
3 shilpa 54
4 Santosh Kumar 52
5 Shubam Singhla 50
5 Montey 50
6 Ravi Kumar singh 51.34
6 Mahima K 51.33
7 SHRUTHI 50
8 Sankar S 49.34
9 Vinay 48
10 shubham varma 47.36
11 Manigandan 46.67
12 RAHUL JAYKAR 44
13 Shruthika 42
14 Amisha 41.36
15 Sadhana 40.7
15 Tarunkumar M N 40.67
16 Akash Anil 40.4
17 Swati Jindal 40
18 Rakshitha 39
19 Ayaan pathan 38.8
19 Prabhat sharma 38.7
20 Vinay Tripathi 37.33
21 Sachin 37
21 Sherlock 37
22 Rani singh 36.7
23 Yateen Deepak 36
24 Priyanshi Goel 35.33
25 s.mishra 34

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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