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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 49] 

Q.1) Which of the statements given below with reference to Panchayats and state governments is/are true? 

1. The state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the panchayati raj system. 
2. Neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depends on the will of the state government. 

Select correct code: 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q.2) Who among the below given Viceroy of India issued a resolution of Local Self-government and is hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government? 

1. Lord Hastings 
2. Lord Ripon 
3. Lord Lytton 
4. Lord Mayo 

Q.3) Consider the following statements with reference to elections to the municipalities: 

1. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission. 
2. The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities. 

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q.4) Consider the following statements about Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) and identify the incorrect one – 

1. The President of India appoints the CEC and ECs 
2. CEC shall be appointed for a term of 6 years or till he attain an age of 65 years. 
3. ECs are appointed by the President and the President need to consult Chief Election Commissioner in this regard. 
4. Election Commissioners will only be removed on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner. 

Q.5) Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: 

1. He is appointed by the President of India. 
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court. 
3. He can be removed by impeachment process by the Parliament. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. All of the above 

Q.6) Consider the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India: 

1. CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal for a period of six years. 
2. CAG can only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 
3. CAG is not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. All of the above 

Q.7) Consider the following statements about Finance Commission and identify the incorrect one – 

1. Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body. 
2. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. 
3. It is required to make recommendations to the Parliament on the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds. 
4. The Constitution envisages the Finance Commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India. 

Q.8) The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 added 

1. Part-IX to the Constitution of India 
2. Articles 243 to 243ZG 
3. 11th Schedule to the Constitution 

Select the appropriate code: 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. All of the above 

Q.9) Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC? 

1. Classification of services 
2. Promotion 
3. Training 
4. Disciplinary matters 
5. Talent hunting 

Choose the appropriate code: 

1. 2, 4 and 5 
2. 1, 3 and 4 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1 and 4 only 

Q.10) Which of the following are Constitutional bodies? 

1. UPSC 
2. Finance Commission 
3. CAG 
4. CIC 

Choose the appropriate code: 

1. 1, 2 and 3 only 
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.11) The functions of the UPSC can be extended by: 

1. President 
2. Prime Minister 
3. Ministry of Personnel 
4. Parliament 

Q.12) Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct? 

1. He is responsible only to the Parliament. 
2. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. 
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments. 

Choose the appropriate code: 

1. 2 and 3 only 
2. 1 and 3 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.13) The qualifications and manner in which the Chairman and members of the Finance Commission should be selected is determined by: 

1. President 
2. Parliament 
3. President in consultation with Supreme Court 
4. Union cabinet 

Q.14) With reference to the National commission for backward classes, consider the following statements: 

1. It is a constitutional body. 
2. It was established as a result of a Supreme Court judgment. 

Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only  
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) With reference to the Advocate general, consider the following statements: 

1. He is appointed by governor but removed by President. 
2. The remuneration of the advocate general is fixed by the Constitution 
3. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2, and 3 

Q.16) Which of the following is/are true regarding linguistic Minorities? 

1. Commissioner for linguistic Minorities is appointed by President of India 
2. Linguistic Minorities are determined on a state-wise basis 
3. At the Central level, the Commissioner for linguistic Minorities falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs 

Choose the correct option: 

1. 1 and 2 only  
2. 1 and 3 only 
3. All of the above 
4. None of the above 

Q.17) Which of these is/ are constitutional posts? 

1. Special officer for linguistic minorities 
2. Advocate general 
3. Solicitor general 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 1 and 3 only 
3. 2 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.18) With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the following statements: 

1. they can be removed for misbehavior. 
2. they can be removed only by the President. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q.19) Which of the statements given below is/are true about State Public Service Commission (SPSC) and the Governor? 

1. The chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor but removed only by the President 
2. The SPSC presents a report on its performance to the governor every year 
3. The governor places this report before both the Houses of the state legislature 

Select the correct answer from the code: 

1. 2 and 3 only 
2. 1 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.20) The functions of the National Commission for SCs include: 

1. Investigation and monitoring of all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the SCs and evaluating their working. 
2. It also discharges similar (above) functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs) 
3. The commission presents an annual report to the Parliament upon their working. 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 

1. 2 and 3 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 1 and 2 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.21) Which of the following statements with reference to Global Gender Gap report is correct:

1. It is published by World Economic forum.
2. India’s rank has consistently improved.

Select the correct code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) Consider the following statements with reference to National Policy on Electronics, 2019:

1. Its objective is to produce 1 trillion mobile handset in India by 2022.
2. It envisions to create a sovereign patent fund for the promotion, development and acquisition of Intellectual Property (IPs) in Electronic System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM) sector.
3. It was launched by NITI Aayog.
4. This was the first time a Policy has been launched especially for electronics sector.

Which of the above given statement is /are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Q.23) Consider the following statement about HSN Code recently in news:

1. It is a 14 digit uniform code that classifies more than 5000 products.
2. It was developed by WTO for promotion of harmonized trade.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct from the given option?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

Q.24) Which of the following statements are correct about Flexible Inflation Targeting adopted by India for controlling inflation?

1. It was adopted by Monetary Policy Committee of RBI in 2016.
2. Under it the primary target of RBI is to keep retail CPI at 4%.
3. If RBI failed to keep inflation within tolerance limit for 3 consecutive quarters, it is answerable to Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the given code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.25) Which of the following releases Wind pattern and Ventilation Index forecasts?

1. Ministry of Earth sciences
2. Ministry of Environment forest and climate change.
3. TERI
4. Niti Aayog

Q.26) Bandavgarh Tiger reserve is located in –

1. Odisha
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Karnatka

Q.27) Consider the following statements with reference to BIMSTEC group.

1. It was established by Bangkok declaration of 1997 to promote rapid economic development
2. Bangladesh, China and Maldives are its member countries.
3. Its headquarter is located in Kathmandu, Nepal

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Q.28) Consider the following statement about National Policy on rare diseases 2021

1. It categorises rare diseases under three categories based on treatment needs.
2. Under the Policy, ICMR will maintain a list of rare diseases.
3. the assistance of Rs 15 lakh will be provided to patients suffering from rare diseases that require a one-time curative treatment

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Q.29) Which of the following country is going to launch world’s first climate change rules?

1. Britain
2. Chile
3. France
4. New Zealand

Q.30) Which of the following has launched “Sankalp se Siddhi” – Village & Digital Connect Drive.?

1. TRIFED
2. FSSAI
3. Ministry of Electronics and IT
4. Ministry of Coal

Q.31) Answer the question on the basis of the statements given below.

Question: Ram sold a card and makes 20% profit out of it, how much profit he actually earned?

Statements

1. Difference between cost price of card and selling price of card is Rs 40
2. Selling price of card is 120% of cost price of card

Choose the correct code

1. 1 alone is sufficient while 2 alone is not sufficient
2. 2 alone is sufficient while 1 alone is not sufficient
3. Either 1 or 2 is sufficient
4. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient

Q.32) A shopkeeper fixes the marked price of an item 35% above its cost price. The percentage of discount allowed to gain 8% is

1. 18%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 28%

Q.33) If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, the profit percentage is

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 30%

Q.34) An item costing rupees 300 being sold at 10 % gain. If the selling price is reduced by 15 % what will be the gain or loss percent?

1. 6.5% gain
2. 6.5% loss
3. 5% loss
4. 5% gain

Q.35) A shopkeeper sells 4 pencils per rupee and loses 10%. If he sells 3 pencils per rupee, then the profit made by him must be?

1. 20%
2. 28%
3. 30%
4. 35%

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

All the Best! 

IASbaba