IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Act for the Good Government of India’:
- The entire machinery of administration was bureaucratic, totally unconcerned about public opinion in India.
- There was no separation of functions, and all the authority for the governance of India, civil and military, executive and legislative, was vested in the Secretary of State.
- The administration of the country was unitary and rigidly centralized.
- The Council of India established under this act had Indian representatives as nominees.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British Government, the Government of India Act, 1858.
The entire machinery of administration was bureaucratic, totally
unconcerned about public opinion in India.There was no separation of functions, and all the authority for the
governance of India, civil and military, executive and legislative, was
vested in the Governor-General in Council who was responsible to the
Secretary of State.The control of the Secretary of State over the Indian administration
was absolute.The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The Provincial Governments were mere agents of the Government of India and had to function under the superintendence, direction and control of the Governor-General in all matters relating to the government of the Province.
By this Act, the powers of the Crown were to be
exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a Council of fifteen
members (known as the Council of India).The Council was composed
exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the
Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East
India Co.Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British Government, the Government of India Act, 1858.
The entire machinery of administration was bureaucratic, totally
unconcerned about public opinion in India.There was no separation of functions, and all the authority for the
governance of India, civil and military, executive and legislative, was
vested in the Governor-General in Council who was responsible to the
Secretary of State.The control of the Secretary of State over the Indian administration
was absolute.The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The Provincial Governments were mere agents of the Government of India and had to function under the superintendence, direction and control of the Governor-General in all matters relating to the government of the Province.
By this Act, the powers of the Crown were to be
exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a Council of fifteen
members (known as the Council of India).The Council was composed
exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the
Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East
India Co. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following Acts is notable for its object, explained by the Secretary of State for India:
“…to widen the basis and expand the functions of the Government of India, and to give further opportunities to the non-official and native elements in Indian society to take part in the work of the Government.”
Correct
Solution (d)
These were the words of the Secretary, John Wodehouse.
Two major improvements were introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1892:
(a) The non official members of the Indian Legislative Council were henceforth to be nominated by the Bengal Chamber of Commerce and the Provincial Legislative Councils, while the non-official members of the Provincial Councils were to be nominated by certain local bodies such as universities, district boards, municipalities.
(b) The Councils were to have the power of discussing the annual statement of revenue and expenditure, i.e. the Budget and of addressing questions to the Executive.
Thus this act introduced representatives from India.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
These were the words of the Secretary, John Wodehouse.
Two major improvements were introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1892:
(a) The non official members of the Indian Legislative Council were henceforth to be nominated by the Bengal Chamber of Commerce and the Provincial Legislative Councils, while the non-official members of the Provincial Councils were to be nominated by certain local bodies such as universities, district boards, municipalities.
(b) The Councils were to have the power of discussing the annual statement of revenue and expenditure, i.e. the Budget and of addressing questions to the Executive.
Thus this act introduced representatives from India.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act 1909:
- Created executive councils in the provinces of Bombay, Madras and West-Bengal.
- Introduced the office of a ‘Vice-President’ at both the centre and the provinces.
- Established representative form of government in its true sense.
- System of communal representation was introduced for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect It created executive councils in the provinces of Bombay, Madras and West-Bengal. It also introduced the office of a ‘Vice-President’ at both at the centre and the provinces. The Indians were not happy with the rules and regulations that spelt out the details especially the introduction of separate electorates on the basis of religion which they viewed as divisive. Other aspects of the Act that disappointed the Indian nationalists was limited franchise and unreasonable qualifications required to stand for elections.
This act did not establish representative form of govt.
It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by
accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.The principle of communal representation was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and
Europeans, by GOI Act 1919.Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect It created executive councils in the provinces of Bombay, Madras and West-Bengal. It also introduced the office of a ‘Vice-President’ at both at the centre and the provinces. The Indians were not happy with the rules and regulations that spelt out the details especially the introduction of separate electorates on the basis of religion which they viewed as divisive. Other aspects of the Act that disappointed the Indian nationalists was limited franchise and unreasonable qualifications required to stand for elections.
This act did not establish representative form of govt.
It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by
accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.The principle of communal representation was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and
Europeans, by GOI Act 1919. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
With reference to Montague – Chelmsford reforms which of the following statements are correct?
- The Council of India was abolished and the structure of government was de-centralised.
- Provincial budgets were separated from the Central budget and it authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
- Apart from Dyarchy, bicameralism and direct elections in the country were introduced.
Choose from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
The Montague Chelmsford reforms were also known as the Government of India Act 1919
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Council of India was abolished by the GoI act 1935. By the GoI act 1919, the central and provincial
legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of
subjects.However, the structure of government continued to be
centralised and unitaryIt separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. Dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’ was introduced. The provincial subjects were divided into two parts transferred and
reserved.It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the
countryAdditional Info:
- It required that the three of the six members of the Viceroy’s executive
Council (other than the commander-in-chief) were to be Indian. - It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of
property, tax or education - It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and
transferred to him some of the functions which were earlier performed by the
Secretary of State for India. - It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
- It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into
and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Montague Chelmsford reforms were also known as the Government of India Act 1919
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Council of India was abolished by the GoI act 1935. By the GoI act 1919, the central and provincial
legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of
subjects.However, the structure of government continued to be
centralised and unitaryIt separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. Dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’ was introduced. The provincial subjects were divided into two parts transferred and
reserved.It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the
countryAdditional Info:
- It required that the three of the six members of the Viceroy’s executive
Council (other than the commander-in-chief) were to be Indian. - It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of
property, tax or education - It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and
transferred to him some of the functions which were earlier performed by the
Secretary of State for India. - It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
- It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into
and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act 1935:
- It was a result of discussions and deliberations of three round table conferences held during 1930-1932.
- Except for the National Liberal Federation most political parties in India took a positive view of the Act.
- Governor enjoyed critical emergency powers.
- This Act extended the provisions of separate electorate to depressed class.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect To consider the proposals of the Simon commission, the British Government convened three round table conferences. Except for the National Liberal Federation, most political parties in India took a negative view of the Act. Governor enjoyed critical emergency powers. Separate electorates were provided for Muslims, Sikhs and others, but not to Depressed Classes. Additional Info:
On the basis of three round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Consitutional Reforms’ was prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British Parliament.
The recommendations of this committee were incorporated (with certain changes) in the next Government of Inida Act of 1935.
The Indian National Congress called it a ‘slave constitution that attempted to strengthen and perpetuate the economic bondage of India’.
Some of the key features of the Act were:
- The creation of a ‘Federation of India’ that consisted of two levels: a central executive and parliament, and below it, provinces and princely states.
- It discarded the ‘dyarchy’ system at the provincial level and allowed for the emergence of popularly elected provincial legislatures. Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defence and foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor General.
- A federal court was established.
- The franchise was expanded to 14% of the population from 3%.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect To consider the proposals of the Simon commission, the British Government convened three round table conferences. Except for the National Liberal Federation, most political parties in India took a negative view of the Act. Governor enjoyed critical emergency powers. Separate electorates were provided for Muslims, Sikhs and others, but not to Depressed Classes. Additional Info:
On the basis of three round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Consitutional Reforms’ was prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British Parliament.
The recommendations of this committee were incorporated (with certain changes) in the next Government of Inida Act of 1935.
The Indian National Congress called it a ‘slave constitution that attempted to strengthen and perpetuate the economic bondage of India’.
Some of the key features of the Act were:
- The creation of a ‘Federation of India’ that consisted of two levels: a central executive and parliament, and below it, provinces and princely states.
- It discarded the ‘dyarchy’ system at the provincial level and allowed for the emergence of popularly elected provincial legislatures. Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defence and foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor General.
- A federal court was established.
- The franchise was expanded to 14% of the population from 3%.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The interim government 1946-47 functioned according to the Government of India Act of 1919.
- The interim cabinet had representatives from the Muslim league.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A federal scheme had been visualised under the Government of India Act of 1935, but this component was never implemented due to the opposition from India’s princely states. As a result, the interim government functioned according to the older Government of India Act of 1919.
The interim Govt. had members from Congress and AIML Some of the important portfolios by AIM were:
Commerce: Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar
Finance: Liaquat Ali Khan
Health: Ghazanfar Ali Khan
Law: Jogendra Nath Mandal
Posts and Air: Abdur Rab Nishtar
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A federal scheme had been visualised under the Government of India Act of 1935, but this component was never implemented due to the opposition from India’s princely states. As a result, the interim government functioned according to the older Government of India Act of 1919.
The interim Govt. had members from Congress and AIML Some of the important portfolios by AIM were:
Commerce: Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar
Finance: Liaquat Ali Khan
Health: Ghazanfar Ali Khan
Law: Jogendra Nath Mandal
Posts and Air: Abdur Rab Nishtar
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
With regards to Union of India and its territories consider the following statements:
- The territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is guaranteed by the Constitution.
- Laws made for admission or establishment of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states can be passed by a simple majority.
- Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country can be done by executive action.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct As per Article 3 of the Constitution, it authorises the Parliament to form new
states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Constitution as per Article 4 declares that laws made for
admission or establishment of new states and formation of new states and alteration of areas are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.Such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
The Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a
boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment.It can be done by executive action as it does not
involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct As per Article 3 of the Constitution, it authorises the Parliament to form new
states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Constitution as per Article 4 declares that laws made for
admission or establishment of new states and formation of new states and alteration of areas are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.Such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
The Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a
boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment.It can be done by executive action as it does not
involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements with regards to OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) card holder:
- OCI card holder can open special bank accounts in India just like NRIs and make investments.
- OCI card holder cannot vote, hold a government job or purchase agricultural or farm land.
- OCI cards provide lifetime multiple entry visa to India.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
People who go and live abroad from India can be categorised in three broad categories-NRIs, PIOs and OCIs. While NRIs (Non-Resident Indians) is essentially a term for Indians that live in another country, PIOs and OCIs are people who want to stay connected and involved with India more closely.
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct An OCI cards holder can open special bank accounts in India just like NRIs and make investments. OCI holders can also buy non-farm property and exercise ownership rights.
An OCI card allows you to apply for a driver’s license, PAN card or open a bank account in India.
You get same economic, financial and educational benefits like NRIs and you can also adopt children.
An OCI card holder cannot vote, hold a government job or purchase agricultural or farm land. The person can also not run for public office or travel to restricted areas without permission.
OCI cards give you lifetime multiple entry visa to India. You never have to register with the Foreigners Regional Registration Officers FRRO no matter how long your stay is.
If you remain an OCI for 5 years, you can attain Indian citizenship and then live in India for a period of one year including short breaks.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
People who go and live abroad from India can be categorised in three broad categories-NRIs, PIOs and OCIs. While NRIs (Non-Resident Indians) is essentially a term for Indians that live in another country, PIOs and OCIs are people who want to stay connected and involved with India more closely.
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct An OCI cards holder can open special bank accounts in India just like NRIs and make investments. OCI holders can also buy non-farm property and exercise ownership rights.
An OCI card allows you to apply for a driver’s license, PAN card or open a bank account in India.
You get same economic, financial and educational benefits like NRIs and you can also adopt children.
An OCI card holder cannot vote, hold a government job or purchase agricultural or farm land. The person can also not run for public office or travel to restricted areas without permission.
OCI cards give you lifetime multiple entry visa to India. You never have to register with the Foreigners Regional Registration Officers FRRO no matter how long your stay is.
If you remain an OCI for 5 years, you can attain Indian citizenship and then live in India for a period of one year including short breaks.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding National Register of Citizens (NRC) and National Population Register (NPR):
- NRC includes only Indian citizens whereas NPR includes any person who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Note: Incorrect options have been asked.
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”. NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months.
This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens.
The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR. Only Assam will not be included, given the recently completed NRC in that state.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Note: Incorrect options have been asked.
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”. NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months.
This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens.
The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR. Only Assam will not be included, given the recently completed NRC in that state.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
- The provisions under preamble are justiciable.
- Since the time of adoption, it has been amended two times.
- It is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
- The words Socialist, Secular and Republic were added by 42nd amendment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Two things should be noted regarding Preamble: It is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
Since the time of adoption, it has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added three new words: Socialist, Secular and Integrity. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Two things should be noted regarding Preamble: It is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
Since the time of adoption, it has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added three new words: Socialist, Secular and Integrity. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following statements is correct regarding regulation of citizenship in India?
Correct
Solution (d)
Citizenship in India:
Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) deals with the Citizenship of India.
Article 5 speaks about citizenship of India at the commencement of the Constitution (Nov 26, 1949).
Article 11 gave powers to the Parliament of India to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
Thus Citizenship Act 1955 was enacted by the Parliament. It is an act to provide for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship and the same acts speaks about citizenship of India after the commencement of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Citizenship in India:
Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) deals with the Citizenship of India.
Article 5 speaks about citizenship of India at the commencement of the Constitution (Nov 26, 1949).
Article 11 gave powers to the Parliament of India to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
Thus Citizenship Act 1955 was enacted by the Parliament. It is an act to provide for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship and the same acts speaks about citizenship of India after the commencement of the Constitution.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution reveal the secular character of Indian State?
- Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
- No religious instructions to be provided in any State maintained educational institution.
- Rights of all minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Equality of opportunity for all Citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16). No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28). All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice (Article 30).Additional Info:
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it doesn’t uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State.
The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State -:
- The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
- The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
- Equality of opportunity for all Citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
- All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice (Article 30).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Equality of opportunity for all Citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16). No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28). All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice (Article 30).Additional Info:
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it doesn’t uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State.
The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State -:
- The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
- The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
- Equality of opportunity for all Citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
- All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice (Article 30).
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
What is the importance of the ‘Regulating Act of 1773’ in the Indian colonial administrative setup?
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the Princely States in India.
- It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of India’ and vested in him major executive powers.
- It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Bombay presidency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
It laid the foundations of central administration in India
It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
It provided for establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774, comprising of one chief judge and three other judges. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
It laid the foundations of central administration in India
It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
It provided for establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774, comprising of one chief judge and three other judges. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of following are the features of a Parliamentary Government?
- Political Homogeneity
- Nominal and Real Executives
- Collective Responsibility
- Majority Party Rule
- Single Membership
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Hint: Use elimination method and eliminate option 5
Features of Parliamentary Government
Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government,
the ministers are bound by consensus.Nominal and Real Executives: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.
-Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President.
Collective Responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
– The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President;
other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister.– However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government.
Double Membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The
Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.Leadership of the Prime Minister: The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader of council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the
functioning of the government.Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime
minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.Secrecy: The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the
President.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Hint: Use elimination method and eliminate option 5
Features of Parliamentary Government
Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government,
the ministers are bound by consensus.Nominal and Real Executives: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.
-Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President.
Collective Responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
– The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President;
other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister.– However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government.
Double Membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The
Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.Leadership of the Prime Minister: The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader of council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the
functioning of the government.Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime
minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.Secrecy: The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the
President. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
With reference to the division of Legislative Powers between Centre and State into three lists consider the following statements:
- Matters which permit diversity of interest are enumerated in the State List.
- State List prevails over Concurrent List in case of a conflict between them.
- Parliament cannot override a state law in concurrent sphere that has received the assent of the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect State List comprises 61 items or entries over which the State Legislature shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of regional and local importance and the matters which permit diversity of interest such as public order and police, local government, public health and sanitation, agriculture, forests, fisheries, state taxes and duties etc, are included in this list.
The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Concurrent List prevails over State List in case of a conflict between them.
As per A-254(2), Parliament is competent, by a subsequent legislation to override such state law in concurrent sphere that has received Presidential assent. Additional Info:
Union, State and Concurrent Lists
- -List I or the Union list includes 100 subjects over which the Union shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of national importance and the matters which require uniformity of legislation nationwide like defense, foreign affairs, banking, insurance, currency and coinage etc. are included in this list
- -List II or the State List comprises 61 items or entries over which the State Legislature shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of regional and local importance and the matters
which permit diversity of interest such as public order and police, local government, public health and sanitation, agriculture, forests, fisheries, state taxes and duties etc. are included in this list.
- -List III or the Concurrent List gives concurrent powers to the Union and the State Legislatures over 52 items. The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential such as criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage, contracts, torts, trusts, welfare of labour, economic and social planning and education etc. are enumerated in this list.
- -The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of overlapping between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which should prevail. Where there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is the former that should prevail.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect State List comprises 61 items or entries over which the State Legislature shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of regional and local importance and the matters which permit diversity of interest such as public order and police, local government, public health and sanitation, agriculture, forests, fisheries, state taxes and duties etc, are included in this list.
The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Concurrent List prevails over State List in case of a conflict between them.
As per A-254(2), Parliament is competent, by a subsequent legislation to override such state law in concurrent sphere that has received Presidential assent. Additional Info:
Union, State and Concurrent Lists
- -List I or the Union list includes 100 subjects over which the Union shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of national importance and the matters which require uniformity of legislation nationwide like defense, foreign affairs, banking, insurance, currency and coinage etc. are included in this list
- -List II or the State List comprises 61 items or entries over which the State Legislature shall have exclusive power of legislation. The matters of regional and local importance and the matters
which permit diversity of interest such as public order and police, local government, public health and sanitation, agriculture, forests, fisheries, state taxes and duties etc. are included in this list.
- -List III or the Concurrent List gives concurrent powers to the Union and the State Legislatures over 52 items. The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential such as criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage, contracts, torts, trusts, welfare of labour, economic and social planning and education etc. are enumerated in this list.
- -The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of overlapping between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which should prevail. Where there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is the former that should prevail.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
With reference to the State Reorganization Commission 1953, which of the following
statements is/are correct?- On recommendation of this commission initially Indian Union was made of sixteen states.
- Special safeguards were recommended for linguistic minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. Special safeguards were recommended for linguistic minorities Additional Info:
States Re-organisation Commission was setup in 1953 under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the whole question of creation of states. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru.
It submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis
of re-organisation of states.It rejected the theory of ‘one language– one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units.
It identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of re-organisation of states:
- Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
Linguistic and cultural homogeneity. - Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
- Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the
nation as a whole. - The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. Special safeguards were recommended for linguistic minorities
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. Special safeguards were recommended for linguistic minorities Additional Info:
States Re-organisation Commission was setup in 1953 under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the whole question of creation of states. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru.
It submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis
of re-organisation of states.It rejected the theory of ‘one language– one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units.
It identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of re-organisation of states:
- Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
Linguistic and cultural homogeneity. - Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
- Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the
nation as a whole. - The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. Special safeguards were recommended for linguistic minorities
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following features represent the Federal structure of Indian Polity?
- Single Citizenship.
- Integrated Judiciary.
- Bicameralism.
- Written Constitution.
- Supremacy of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Hint: Use elimination method and eliminate 1 and 2.
Single Citizenship and integrated judiciary are unitary and not federal features of the Indian Constitution.
Additional Info:
A Federal government, is one in which powers are divided between the National government and the Regional governments by the constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently.
Features:
Bicameralism: A bicameral system is considered essential in a federation because it is in the upper house alone that the units can be given equal representation. The Constitution of India also provides for a bicameral Legislature at the Centre consisting of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.Written Constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document containing 395 Articles and 12 schedules, and therefore, fulfils this basic requirement of a federal government.
Supremacy of Constitution: India’s Constitution is supreme and not the hand-made of either the Centre or of the States. If for any reason any organ of the State dares to violate any provision of the Constitution, the court of laws are there to ensure that dignity of the Constitution is upheld at all costs.Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the
Supreme Court for two purposes:One, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
Division of powers between Centre and State: In a federation, there should be clear
division of powers so that the units and the centre are required to enact and legislate
within their sphere of activity and none of them violates its limits and tries to encroach
upon the functions of others. This requisite is evident in the Indian Constitution in Schedule 7.Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.
Rigidity of Constitution: The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Hint: Use elimination method and eliminate 1 and 2.
Single Citizenship and integrated judiciary are unitary and not federal features of the Indian Constitution.
Additional Info:
A Federal government, is one in which powers are divided between the National government and the Regional governments by the constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently.
Features:
Bicameralism: A bicameral system is considered essential in a federation because it is in the upper house alone that the units can be given equal representation. The Constitution of India also provides for a bicameral Legislature at the Centre consisting of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.Written Constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document containing 395 Articles and 12 schedules, and therefore, fulfils this basic requirement of a federal government.
Supremacy of Constitution: India’s Constitution is supreme and not the hand-made of either the Centre or of the States. If for any reason any organ of the State dares to violate any provision of the Constitution, the court of laws are there to ensure that dignity of the Constitution is upheld at all costs.Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the
Supreme Court for two purposes:One, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
Division of powers between Centre and State: In a federation, there should be clear
division of powers so that the units and the centre are required to enact and legislate
within their sphere of activity and none of them violates its limits and tries to encroach
upon the functions of others. This requisite is evident in the Indian Constitution in Schedule 7.Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.
Rigidity of Constitution: The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following provisions of the Act:
- It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors to act on the advice of their respective Council of Ministers in all matters.
- It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary of State for India.
- It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his functions to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs.
Which of the following Acts have the above said provisions?
Correct
Solution (d)
Indian Independence Act of 1947 has the provisions mentioned above.
Additional Info:
Indian Independence Act, 1947:
- It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15,1947.
- It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of
India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth. - It abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who
was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet. - It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any
constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament,
including the Independence act itself. - It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of both the dominions to legislate for their respective territories till the new constitutions were drafted and enforced.
- No Act of the British Parliament passed after August 15, 1947 was to extend to either of
the new dominions unless it was extended thereto by a law of the legislature of the
dominion. - It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.
- It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15,1947.
- It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of Pakistan or to remain independent.
- It provided for the governance of each of the dominions and the provinces by the Government of India Act of 1935, till the new Constitutions were framed.
- It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors to act on the advice of the respective Council of Ministers in all matters.
- It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary of State for India.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Indian Independence Act of 1947 has the provisions mentioned above.
Additional Info:
Indian Independence Act, 1947:
- It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15,1947.
- It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of
India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth. - It abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who
was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet. - It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any
constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament,
including the Independence act itself. - It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of both the dominions to legislate for their respective territories till the new constitutions were drafted and enforced.
- No Act of the British Parliament passed after August 15, 1947 was to extend to either of
the new dominions unless it was extended thereto by a law of the legislature of the
dominion. - It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.
- It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15,1947.
- It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of Pakistan or to remain independent.
- It provided for the governance of each of the dominions and the provinces by the Government of India Act of 1935, till the new Constitutions were framed.
- It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors to act on the advice of the respective Council of Ministers in all matters.
- It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary of State for India.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Constitution of India?
- It specifies how the government will be constituted.
- It lays down limits on the powers of the government.
- It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action.
- It generates a degree of trust and coordination among people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Constitution of India generates a degree of trust and coordination among people. It specifies how the government will be constituted.
It lays down limits on the powers of the government and It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action.
It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.
It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the
rights of the citizens are.It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of
government, to find out whether it is
good or bad.Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for
different kind of people to live together.Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Constitution of India generates a degree of trust and coordination among people. It specifies how the government will be constituted.
It lays down limits on the powers of the government and It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action.
It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.
It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the
rights of the citizens are.It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of
government, to find out whether it is
good or bad.Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for
different kind of people to live together. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements:
- If any foreign territory becomes part of India, the government specifies who among the people of territory shall be citizen of India.
- When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship is automatically terminated.
- The children of foreign diplomats posted in India can acquire Indian citizenship by birth.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the
territory shall be citizen of India according to Citizenship Act 1955.When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires
the citizenship of another country, his Indian
citizenship automatically terminates.This provision, however, does not apply during a
war in which India is engaged.The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the
territory shall be citizen of India according to Citizenship Act 1955.When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires
the citizenship of another country, his Indian
citizenship automatically terminates.This provision, however, does not apply during a
war in which India is engaged.The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
With reference to the Rudreswara Temple situated near Warangal, consider the following statements:
- It is the only temple in India to be named after its sculptor
- The construction of the temple was completed during the reign of Rudrama Devi
- It is a soapstone temple built using sandbox technique
- Italian traveller Marco Polo had visited this temple during his travel in India
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct The temple is named after the sculptor Ramappa, who built it, and is perhaps the only temple in India to be named after its craftsman An inscription in the temple says it was constructed in the year 1213 CE by Recharla Rudra—a General of Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva 1199–1262. It has been built over 40 years by sculptor Ramappa The main structure is in a reddish sandstone, but the columns round the outside have large brackets of black basalt which is rich in iron, magnesium and silica Marco Polo, during his visit to the Kakatiya empire, allegedly called the temple “the brightest star in the galaxy of temples” Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1738864
Context: This temple is in news as it received UNESCO world heritage site status and the 39th such site in India.
Incorrect
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct The temple is named after the sculptor Ramappa, who built it, and is perhaps the only temple in India to be named after its craftsman An inscription in the temple says it was constructed in the year 1213 CE by Recharla Rudra—a General of Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva 1199–1262. It has been built over 40 years by sculptor Ramappa The main structure is in a reddish sandstone, but the columns round the outside have large brackets of black basalt which is rich in iron, magnesium and silica Marco Polo, during his visit to the Kakatiya empire, allegedly called the temple “the brightest star in the galaxy of temples” Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1738864
Context: This temple is in news as it received UNESCO world heritage site status and the 39th such site in India.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements
- Phosphate rock deposits can be sedimentary but not igneous
- Phosphorous plays a major role in energy transfer and photosynthesis in plants
- India is entirely dependent on imports for phosphate usage
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Phosphorus rocks or phosphate rocks are unprocessed ores. Phosphate rock deposits can be sedimentary (formed from sediment deposited by water or air) or igneous (having solidified from lava or magma) Phosphorus cannot be substituted by any other mineral, as it is vital for a number of reasons in agriculture. It plays a major role in photosynthesis and energy transfer in plants. Further, it is essential for the production of seed and root formation. It promotes early plant maturity and stalks strength. Currently, India is 90% dependent on imports for this raw material. Phosphate rocks are majorly produced only from two States in India, namely Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Currently, there exists 30 lakh MT of phosphorite deposits in the country, for which important steps are being taken by the Government to ramp up its production. These deposits are available in Rajasthan, central part of peninsular India, Hirapur (Madhya Pradesh), Lalitpur (Uttar Pradesh), Mussoorie syncline, and Cuddapah basin (Andhra Pradesh) Context: Phosphorous was in news as the Minister of Chemicals and Fertilizers told the Parliament that steps were being taken to explore Indigenous Deposits of Phosphatic rock
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Phosphorus rocks or phosphate rocks are unprocessed ores. Phosphate rock deposits can be sedimentary (formed from sediment deposited by water or air) or igneous (having solidified from lava or magma) Phosphorus cannot be substituted by any other mineral, as it is vital for a number of reasons in agriculture. It plays a major role in photosynthesis and energy transfer in plants. Further, it is essential for the production of seed and root formation. It promotes early plant maturity and stalks strength. Currently, India is 90% dependent on imports for this raw material. Phosphate rocks are majorly produced only from two States in India, namely Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Currently, there exists 30 lakh MT of phosphorite deposits in the country, for which important steps are being taken by the Government to ramp up its production. These deposits are available in Rajasthan, central part of peninsular India, Hirapur (Madhya Pradesh), Lalitpur (Uttar Pradesh), Mussoorie syncline, and Cuddapah basin (Andhra Pradesh) Context: Phosphorous was in news as the Minister of Chemicals and Fertilizers told the Parliament that steps were being taken to explore Indigenous Deposits of Phosphatic rock
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
‘Fazil, Khirsapatin, Zardalu’ seen in news are
Correct
Solution(a)
Fazil, Khirsapatin , Zardalu are GI certified varities of mangoes. While Fazil and Khirsapatin are grown in West Bengal, Zardalu is grown in Bihar.
Context- A week long Indian mango promotion programme was organized in Bahrain
Incorrect
Solution(a)
Fazil, Khirsapatin , Zardalu are GI certified varities of mangoes. While Fazil and Khirsapatin are grown in West Bengal, Zardalu is grown in Bihar.
Context- A week long Indian mango promotion programme was organized in Bahrain
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘NIPUN Bharat Mission’
- The scheme aims to ensure Universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) by the time a child reaches grade 5
- It is a central sector scheme under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The scheme aims to ensure Universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) so that by 2026-27 every child achieve the desired learning competencies in reading, writing and numeracy at the end of grade 3 and not later than grade 5. It is launched under centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha Context- The Department of School Education and Literacy had launched the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy, NIPUN Bharat Mission on 5th July, 2021 with the aim to achieve the goal of universal proficiency in foundational literacy and numeracy for every child by grade 3, as envisaged by National Education Policy 2020
Incorrect
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The scheme aims to ensure Universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) so that by 2026-27 every child achieve the desired learning competencies in reading, writing and numeracy at the end of grade 3 and not later than grade 5. It is launched under centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha Context- The Department of School Education and Literacy had launched the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy, NIPUN Bharat Mission on 5th July, 2021 with the aim to achieve the goal of universal proficiency in foundational literacy and numeracy for every child by grade 3, as envisaged by National Education Policy 2020
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following Tiger Reserves are located in the central Indian range?
- Satpura Tiger Reserve
- Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
- Panna Tiger Reserve
- Kanha Tiger reserve
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Correct
Solution(c)
Satpura, Panna and Kanha Tiger Reserves are located in Madhya Pradesh in Central India. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in Uttar Pradesh that stretches mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts and shares the north-eastern boundary with Nepal.
Context- 14 Tiger Reserves in India received the accreditation of the Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)
Incorrect
Solution(c)
Satpura, Panna and Kanha Tiger Reserves are located in Madhya Pradesh in Central India. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in Uttar Pradesh that stretches mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts and shares the north-eastern boundary with Nepal.
Context- 14 Tiger Reserves in India received the accreditation of the Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
If the number 876*2 is completely divisible by 8, then the smallest whole number in place of * will be:
Correct
Solution(c)
For a number to be divisible by 8, the last three digits must be divisible by 8. Here, 6X2 must be divisible by 8. For X = 3, 632 is divisible by 8. Therefore, 3 is the smallest possible whole number for Y.
Incorrect
Solution(c)
For a number to be divisible by 8, the last three digits must be divisible by 8. Here, 6X2 must be divisible by 8. For X = 3, 632 is divisible by 8. Therefore, 3 is the smallest possible whole number for Y.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The difference between the place value and the face value of 6 in the numerical 726943 is
Correct
Solution(b)
Given numeral = 726943
So, place value of 6 = position of 6 in given number = thousands place = 6 * 1000 = 6000
and, face value of 6 = value of digit itself = 6 .then, place value of 6 – Face value of 6 = 6000 – 6 which is equal to 5994
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Given numeral = 726943
So, place value of 6 = position of 6 in given number = thousands place = 6 * 1000 = 6000
and, face value of 6 = value of digit itself = 6 .then, place value of 6 – Face value of 6 = 6000 – 6 which is equal to 5994
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88 is
Correct
Solution(a)
We know that largest four digit number is 9999. So, when we divide 9999 by 88, we get 55 as a remainder. So, If we subtract that remainder from the largest number, we get the number exactly divisible by 88 = 9999−55=9944
Incorrect
Solution(a)
We know that largest four digit number is 9999. So, when we divide 9999 by 88, we get 55 as a remainder. So, If we subtract that remainder from the largest number, we get the number exactly divisible by 88 = 9999−55=9944
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
On dividing a number by 56, we get 29 as remainder. On dividing the same number by 8, what will be the remainder?
Correct
Solution(b)
Let’s assume the number to be 56 + 29 = 85
85 = 56×1 + 29
When it is divided by 8, 85/8 = 8×10 + 5 we get 5 as the remainder.
So, the answer is 5.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Let’s assume the number to be 56 + 29 = 85
85 = 56×1 + 29
When it is divided by 8, 85/8 = 8×10 + 5 we get 5 as the remainder.
So, the answer is 5.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Passage
The University Grant Commission’s directive to college and University lecturers to spend a minimum of 22 hours a week in direct teaching is the product of budgetary cutbacks rather than pedagogic wisdom. It may seem odd, at first blush, that teachers should protest about teaching a mere 22 hours. However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time they need to spend doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week. In University system around the world lecturers rarely spend more than 12 to 15 hours in directing teaching activities a week. The average college lecturer in India does not have any office space. If computers are available, internet connectivity is unlikely. Libraries are poorly stocked. Now the UGC says universities must implement a complete freeze on all permanent recruitment, abolish all posts which have been vacant for more than a year, and cut staff strength by 10 per cent. And it is an order to ensure that these cutbacks do not affect the quantum of teaching that existing lecturers are being asked to work longer. Obviously, the quality of teaching and academic work in general will decline. While it is true that in some college teachers do not take their classes regularly, the UGC and the institution concerned must find a proper way to hold them accountable. An absentee teacher will continue to play truant even if the number of hours he is required to teach goes up.
Besides direct teaching, University teachers spend considerable time in/on
Correct
Solution (c)
“However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time they need to spend doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week.”
The above lines from the passage make it amply clear that option c is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
“However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time they need to spend doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week.”
The above lines from the passage make it amply clear that option c is the correct answer.
All the Best
IASbaba