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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 24 – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to the Green Climate Fund (GCF)?
- It was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
- It is being managed by the World Bank.
- It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010. It is not managed by the World Bank. The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea. It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010. It is not managed by the World Bank. The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea. It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
With reference to the Cartagena Protocol, consider the following statements:
- It was adopted as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity at the Rio Summit, 1992.
- It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
- It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory.
- It is a legally binding protocol even altering the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect As a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, it was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003. It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology. It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory. Although it is a legally binding protocol, the agreement does not alter the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization (WTO) or other existing international agreements. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect As a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, it was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003. It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology. It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory. Although it is a legally binding protocol, the agreement does not alter the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization (WTO) or other existing international agreements. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Animal Board of India was constituted under which of the following Acts?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Animal Board of India-
- The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1960 to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals and to amend the laws relating to the prevention of cruelty to animals. As per the provisions of the law the government of India formed the Animal Welfare Board of India.
- The act makes a provision under heading ‘Saving as respects manner of killing prescribed by religion’ Nothing contained in this Act shall render it an offence to kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of any community.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Animal Board of India-
- The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1960 to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals and to amend the laws relating to the prevention of cruelty to animals. As per the provisions of the law the government of India formed the Animal Welfare Board of India.
- The act makes a provision under heading ‘Saving as respects manner of killing prescribed by religion’ Nothing contained in this Act shall render it an offence to kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of any community.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)?
- It is constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- It serves as apex body to approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
- Ministry of Environment and Forest (MoEF) can alter the boundaries of national parks without the approval of the NBWL.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It is constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It serves as apex body to approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. No alteration of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It is constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It serves as apex body to approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. No alteration of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature:
- WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization.
- It publishes ‘The living planet report’ every three years.
- It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961. It publishes ‘The living planet report’ every two years. It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961. It publishes ‘The living planet report’ every two years. It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements about Man and Biosphere Programme:
- It was launched by IUCN and WWF.
- It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
- Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct It was launched by UNESCO. It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments. Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct It was launched by UNESCO. It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments. Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
- Animals listed in schedule 1 and parts II of schedule 2 have absolute protection.
- Animals listed in schedule 4 are called ‘vermin’ which can be hunted.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Animals listed in schedule 1 and parts II of schedule 2 have absolute protection. Animals listed in schedule 5 are called ‘vermin’ which can be hunted. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Animals listed in schedule 1 and parts II of schedule 2 have absolute protection. Animals listed in schedule 5 are called ‘vermin’ which can be hunted. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
EnviStats India report publishes data on various environmental factors as a means to raise awareness about environmental issues. It is released annually by
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Development of environmental statistics plays crucial role in sustainable development. To achieve 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, the ambit of environment statistics needs to cover all components of environment issues, from extent to quality, adaptation and mitigation measures to governance and regulation, so as to enable formulation of appropriate policies.
- The National Statistical Office (NSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has addressed this requirement in EnviStats-India report. The report highlights the data on various environmental factors as a means to raise awareness and help focus on the pivotality of environmental concerns.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Development of environmental statistics plays crucial role in sustainable development. To achieve 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, the ambit of environment statistics needs to cover all components of environment issues, from extent to quality, adaptation and mitigation measures to governance and regulation, so as to enable formulation of appropriate policies.
- The National Statistical Office (NSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has addressed this requirement in EnviStats-India report. The report highlights the data on various environmental factors as a means to raise awareness and help focus on the pivotality of environmental concerns.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
With reference to Earth Summit, consider the following statements:
- It is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro.
- Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro. Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit. Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the newer Agenda 2030. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro. Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit. Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the newer Agenda 2030. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
With reference to ‘National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI)’, consider the following statements:
- It is a pioneer laboratory in the field of environmental science and engineering.
- It falls under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It is presided by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is a pioneer laboratory in the field of environmental science and engineering. NEERI falls under the Ministry of Science and Technology (India) of central government. It is headed by the Prime Minister as the President and the Minister of Science and Technology as the Vice-President. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is a pioneer laboratory in the field of environmental science and engineering. NEERI falls under the Ministry of Science and Technology (India) of central government. It is headed by the Prime Minister as the President and the Minister of Science and Technology as the Vice-President. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following are the powers of the Central Government under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
- It can set the standards for the emissions of pollutants from any source.
- It can lay down the procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances.
- It can compel a state government to take prior approval for directing any forest land for non-forest purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It can set the standards for the emissions of pollutants from any source. It can lay down the procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1981 compel a state government to take prior approval for directing any forest land for non-forest purposes. Notes:
Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the power of the Central Government includes:
- Planning and execution of programmes to prevent, control and abate environmental pollution on an all-India basis.
- Making rules in respect of all matters pertaining to environmental protection as well as to pollution.
- Setting standards for the emission of pollutants from any source.
- Laying down the standards for environmental quality.
- Laying down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous.
- Assessing manufacturing processes, materials and substances which could cause environmental pollution.
- Restricting areas in which industries or other establishments are to be set up.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It can set the standards for the emissions of pollutants from any source. It can lay down the procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1981 compel a state government to take prior approval for directing any forest land for non-forest purposes. Notes:
Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the power of the Central Government includes:
- Planning and execution of programmes to prevent, control and abate environmental pollution on an all-India basis.
- Making rules in respect of all matters pertaining to environmental protection as well as to pollution.
- Setting standards for the emission of pollutants from any source.
- Laying down the standards for environmental quality.
- Laying down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous.
- Assessing manufacturing processes, materials and substances which could cause environmental pollution.
- Restricting areas in which industries or other establishments are to be set up.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following are the objectives of National Forest Policy 1988?
- Protect, improve, and enhance the production of minor forest produce with regard to the generation of employment for the tribals.
- Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Protect, improve, and enhance the production of minor forest produce with regard to the generation of employment for the tribals. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts. Notes:
National Forest Policy, 1988-The basic objectives that should govern the National Forest Policy are:
- Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the country.
- Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represent the remarkable biological diversity and genetic resources of the country.
- Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce and small timber of the rural and tribal populations.
- Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs. And thus increasing tribal employment.
- Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood.
- Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the interest of soil and water conservation, for mitigating floods and droughts and for the retardation of siltation of reservoirs. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
- Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation and social forestry programmes, especially on all denuded, degraded and unproductive lands.
- Creating a massive people’s movement with the involvement of women, for achieving these objectives and to minimise pressure on existing forests.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Protect, improve, and enhance the production of minor forest produce with regard to the generation of employment for the tribals. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts. Notes:
National Forest Policy, 1988-The basic objectives that should govern the National Forest Policy are:
- Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the country.
- Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represent the remarkable biological diversity and genetic resources of the country.
- Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce and small timber of the rural and tribal populations.
- Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs. And thus increasing tribal employment.
- Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood.
- Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the interest of soil and water conservation, for mitigating floods and droughts and for the retardation of siltation of reservoirs. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
- Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation and social forestry programmes, especially on all denuded, degraded and unproductive lands.
- Creating a massive people’s movement with the involvement of women, for achieving these objectives and to minimise pressure on existing forests.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘World Water Council’:
- It is an inter-governmental organization under the aegis of United Nations.
- The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The World Water Council is a non-profit international multi-stakeholder platform. It was established in 1996. The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The World Water Council is a non-profit international multi-stakeholder platform. It was established in 1996. The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following substances/gases are controlled under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer?
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
- Methyl Bromide
- Nitrous Oxide
- Carbon tetrachloride
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is regulated. Methyl Bromide is regulated. Nitrous Oxide is not regulated. Carbon tetrachloride is regulated. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is regulated. Methyl Bromide is regulated. Nitrous Oxide is not regulated. Carbon tetrachloride is regulated. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
With reference to the ‘UNDP Sea Turtle Project’ in India, consider the following statements:
- It aims to conserve the Olive Ridley Turtles only.
- It is being implemented by the Animal Welfare Board of India.
- The project is implemented across all the coastal states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The following species of marine are being covered under this project – green, hawksbill, loggerhead, leatherback, and olive ridley. It is being implemented by the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun. The project is for 10 coastal states in India especially Odisha where it has contributed towards the preparation of a map of breeding sites of Sea Turtles; identification of breeding places and habitats along the coastline, and migratory routes taken by Sea Turtles. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The following species of marine are being covered under this project – green, hawksbill, loggerhead, leatherback, and olive ridley. It is being implemented by the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun. The project is for 10 coastal states in India especially Odisha where it has contributed towards the preparation of a map of breeding sites of Sea Turtles; identification of breeding places and habitats along the coastline, and migratory routes taken by Sea Turtles. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
The Global Environment Facility serves as a ‘financial mechanism’ to which of the following environmental conventions?
- United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
- Minamata Convention on Mercury
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The GEF servesas ‘financial mechanism’ to five conventions, which are-
- UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
- UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- Minamata Convention on Mercury.
The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol, supports the implementation of the Protocol in Countries with Economies in Transition.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The GEF servesas ‘financial mechanism’ to five conventions, which are-
- UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
- UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- Minamata Convention on Mercury.
The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol, supports the implementation of the Protocol in Countries with Economies in Transition.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
With reference to REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+), consider the following statements:
- It is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions.
- India has prepared its National REDD+ Strategy in compliance with the decisions made on REDD+ by UNFCCC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions. India has prepared its National REDD+ Strategy in compliance with the decisions made on REDD+ by UNFCCC. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions. India has prepared its National REDD+ Strategy in compliance with the decisions made on REDD+ by UNFCCC. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bonn Convention:
- It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species.
- It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes. It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes. It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Global Eco-regions?
- Global Eco-regions is a science-based global ranking of the Earth’s most biologically outstanding terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.
- It is developed by WWF scientists, in collaboration with regional experts around the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Global Eco-regions is a science-based global ranking of the Earth’s most biologically outstanding terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats. It is developed by WWF scientists, in collaboration with regional experts around the world. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Global Eco-regions is a science-based global ranking of the Earth’s most biologically outstanding terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats. It is developed by WWF scientists, in collaboration with regional experts around the world. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Vienna convention entered in force after Montreal protocol.
- It has been ratified by all United Nations Member states.
- India has ratified Vienna Convention but not Montreal protocol to protect MSMEs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Vienna convention entered in force before Montreal protocol. Vienna Convention was agreed upon at the 1985 Vienna Conference and entered into force in 1988 (Montreal in 1989).
It has been ratified by all United Nations Member states, as well as European Union. India became Party to the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol in 1991-92. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Vienna convention entered in force before Montreal protocol. Vienna Convention was agreed upon at the 1985 Vienna Conference and entered into force in 1988 (Montreal in 1989).
It has been ratified by all United Nations Member states, as well as European Union. India became Party to the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol in 1991-92. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Double Asteroid Redirection Test’
- It is aimed at testing a method of planetary defense against near-Earth objects (NEOs)
- It is launched by NASA in collaboration with European Space Agency (ESA)
Select the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) is a NASA space mission aimed at testing a method of planetary defense against near-Earth objects (NEOs). In September 2022, a space probe is set to deliberately crash into the minor-planet moon Dimorphos of the double asteroid Didymos to assess the future potential of a spacecraft impact to deflect an asteroid on a collision course with Earth through a transference of momentum. DART is a joint project between NASA and the Johns Hopkins Applied Physics Laboratory (APL) Correct – DART Mission was launched
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) is a NASA space mission aimed at testing a method of planetary defense against near-Earth objects (NEOs). In September 2022, a space probe is set to deliberately crash into the minor-planet moon Dimorphos of the double asteroid Didymos to assess the future potential of a spacecraft impact to deflect an asteroid on a collision course with Earth through a transference of momentum. DART is a joint project between NASA and the Johns Hopkins Applied Physics Laboratory (APL) Correct – DART Mission was launched
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
‘Namda’ a craft seen in news belongs to
Correct
Solution (c)
Namda is a rug made of sheep wool through felting technique instead of normal weaving process .A pilot project to revive and promote traditional ‘Namda’ craft in Jammu and Kashmir was launched. The objective of these projects is to boost and preserve the traditional Namda craft of Kashmir and upskill the local weavers and artisans of the UT to enhance their productivity through RPL assessment and certification.
Context – A project to revive ‘Namda’ craft was launched.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Namda is a rug made of sheep wool through felting technique instead of normal weaving process .A pilot project to revive and promote traditional ‘Namda’ craft in Jammu and Kashmir was launched. The objective of these projects is to boost and preserve the traditional Namda craft of Kashmir and upskill the local weavers and artisans of the UT to enhance their productivity through RPL assessment and certification.
Context – A project to revive ‘Namda’ craft was launched.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
With reference to ‘Coal Gasification’, consider the following statements
- Coal gasification is a process in which coal is partially oxidized with air, oxygen, steam or carbon dioxide
- Coal gasification does not leave any by-product and is eco-friendly
- The syngas technology allows conversion of non-mineable coal/lignite into combustible gases
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Select the appropriate answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Gasification of coal is a process in which coal is partially oxidated by air, oxygen, steam or carbon dioxide under controlled conditions to produce a fuel gas. The by-products coal gasification slag and fly ash are formed in the gasifier reaction vessel and differ clearly from bottom ash and fly ash from pulverized coal-fired boilers. The process emits a lot of greenhouse gases. The syngas technology allows conversion of non-mineable coal/lignite into combustible gases through in situ gasification of the material. Context – A blueprint for the ‘National Coal Gasification Mission’ was prepared
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Gasification of coal is a process in which coal is partially oxidated by air, oxygen, steam or carbon dioxide under controlled conditions to produce a fuel gas. The by-products coal gasification slag and fly ash are formed in the gasifier reaction vessel and differ clearly from bottom ash and fly ash from pulverized coal-fired boilers. The process emits a lot of greenhouse gases. The syngas technology allows conversion of non-mineable coal/lignite into combustible gases through in situ gasification of the material. Context – A blueprint for the ‘National Coal Gasification Mission’ was prepared
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Global Hunger Index’:
- It is a peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by Food and Agriculture Organization and Welthungerhilfe.
- GHI determines hunger on a 100-point scale, where 0 is the worst possible score and 100 is the best.
- Europe and Central Asia has the lowest 2021 GHI score of any region
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The GHI is a peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and country levels. Based on the values of the four indicators, the GHI determines hunger on a 100-point scale, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Europe and Central Asia has the lowest 2021 GHI score of any region. Context – The index was in news
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The GHI is a peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and country levels. Based on the values of the four indicators, the GHI determines hunger on a 100-point scale, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Europe and Central Asia has the lowest 2021 GHI score of any region. Context – The index was in news
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the President every year
- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. However, Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. Context – Padma awards were presented by The President
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. However, Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. Context – Padma awards were presented by The President
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 14 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5m * 6m * 8m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?
Correct
Solution(b)
Volume of cylindrical overhead tank = πr2h = 22/7 * 22 * 14 = 176 m3
Volume of underground tank = (5.5 * 6 * 8) m3 = 264m3
Portion of underground tank still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely
= Volume of underground tank – volume of overhead tank/ volume of underground tank
= 264-176/264 = 88/264 = 1/3
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Volume of cylindrical overhead tank = πr2h = 22/7 * 22 * 14 = 176 m3
Volume of underground tank = (5.5 * 6 * 8) m3 = 264m3
Portion of underground tank still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely
= Volume of underground tank – volume of overhead tank/ volume of underground tank
= 264-176/264 = 88/264 = 1/3
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A village having a population of 4800 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20m * 15m * 6m. The water of the tank will last for
Correct
Solution (a)
Volume of tank = 20 * 15 * 6 m3 = 20 * 15 * 6 * 1000 litres
Therefore, the water will last for = 20 * 15 * 6 * 1000/ ( 4800 * 150)
= 2.5 days
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Volume of tank = 20 * 15 * 6 m3 = 20 * 15 * 6 * 1000 litres
Therefore, the water will last for = 20 * 15 * 6 * 1000/ ( 4800 * 150)
= 2.5 days
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Twelve equal squares are placed to fit in a rectangle of diagonal 10 cm. There are three rows containing four squares each. No gaps are left between adjacent squares. What is the area of each square?
Correct
Solution (d)
Diagonal of rectangle = 10 cm
√(l2 + b2) = 10 = √( 62 + 82 ) = 10
Then value of l and b are 6 and 8
Area of rectangle = 6 * 8 = 48 cm2
Area of square be a2
12 * a2 = 48
Therefore a2 = 4 sq. cm
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Diagonal of rectangle = 10 cm
√(l2 + b2) = 10 = √( 62 + 82 ) = 10
Then value of l and b are 6 and 8
Area of rectangle = 6 * 8 = 48 cm2
Area of square be a2
12 * a2 = 48
Therefore a2 = 4 sq. cm
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A gardener changed the area of his rectangular garden by increasing it’s length by 25% and decreasing it’s width by 20%. The area of the new garden
Correct
Solution (d)
Let initial dimensions be ‘l’ and ‘b’.
Final length is 1.25l
Final breadth is 0.8b
Therefore, final area = 1.25 * 0.8
= 1 lb
Therefore, area is exactly the same as the old area.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Let initial dimensions be ‘l’ and ‘b’.
Final length is 1.25l
Final breadth is 0.8b
Therefore, final area = 1.25 * 0.8
= 1 lb
Therefore, area is exactly the same as the old area.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
When a language seems especially telegraphic (that is, requiring less to be actually said to put a sentence together), it is usually because enough adults learnt it at a certain stage in its history that, given the difficulty of learning a new language after childhood, it became a kind of stripped-down schoolroom version of itself. Because all languages are, to some extent, busier than they need to be, this streamlining leaves the language thoroughly complex and nuanced, just lighter on the bric-a-brac that so many languages pant under. For example, Indonesian, one of the most economical languages in the world, is a first language to only one in four of its speakers; the language has been used for many centuries as a lingua franca in a vast region, imposed on speakers of several hundred languages. This means that while other languages can be like overgrown lawns, Indonesian’s grammar has been regularly mowed, such that especially the colloquial forms are tidier.
Q.30) Which one of the following best summarizes the passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Option a – When a language has been used for many centuries as the lingua franca in a vast region, it becomes especially telegraphic. This is not the idea of the paragraph. The paragraph tells us that when a language is forced over a long period of time on non-native speakers who are adults, it becomes telegraphic. It does not get telegraphic simply because it is the lingua franca of a vast region.
Option b – Languages become less “busy” and more nuanced when imposed over long periods of time on new people, who learn it as adults.
This is the crux of the paragraph given.
Option c – When more adults who are non-native speakers are forced, over time, to learn a language, its colloquial forms become cryptic.
This option states the exact opposite of what the paragraph conveys. The language does not become more cryptic, i.e. obscure and hard to understand, but more telegraphic when more adults who are non-native speakers are forced, over time, to learn it.
Option d – In languages that have been spoken for centuries over vast regions, time and repetition wear words out, and what wears away is often a nugget of meaning.
This option points to ‘time’ and to ‘repetition’ as the factors which wear the words out in a language. The paragraph, on the other hand, talks of language grammar getting simplified due to non-native speakers being forced to use it over time. So this is not the right option to sum up the paragraph.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Option a – When a language has been used for many centuries as the lingua franca in a vast region, it becomes especially telegraphic. This is not the idea of the paragraph. The paragraph tells us that when a language is forced over a long period of time on non-native speakers who are adults, it becomes telegraphic. It does not get telegraphic simply because it is the lingua franca of a vast region.
Option b – Languages become less “busy” and more nuanced when imposed over long periods of time on new people, who learn it as adults.
This is the crux of the paragraph given.
Option c – When more adults who are non-native speakers are forced, over time, to learn a language, its colloquial forms become cryptic.
This option states the exact opposite of what the paragraph conveys. The language does not become more cryptic, i.e. obscure and hard to understand, but more telegraphic when more adults who are non-native speakers are forced, over time, to learn it.
Option d – In languages that have been spoken for centuries over vast regions, time and repetition wear words out, and what wears away is often a nugget of meaning.
This option points to ‘time’ and to ‘repetition’ as the factors which wear the words out in a language. The paragraph, on the other hand, talks of language grammar getting simplified due to non-native speakers being forced to use it over time. So this is not the right option to sum up the paragraph.
All the Best
IASbaba