IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 50– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Administrative Tribunal’ (CAT):
- Appeals against CAT orders could only be filed in the Supreme Court.
- It has control over All-India Services, Central Civil Services, Civilian Defence Employees and members of the Armed Forces
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for the adjudication of disputes and complaints relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with Union affairs or other authorities under the control of the Government.
In India, the Central Administrative Tribunal has 17 benches and 21 circuit benches. In addition to Central Government Ministries and Departments, the Government of India has notified 214 organisations under Section 14 (2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, bringing them under the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal.
The CAT has initial jurisdiction over recruiting and other service problems involving public servants. It has control over all-India services, Central civil services, civil jobs under the Centre, and civilian defence employees. It does not, however, cover members of the armed forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and Parliament’s secretarial staff.
Originally, appeals against CAT orders could only be filed in the Supreme Court, not the lower courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court determined this restriction on the high courts power to be unconstitutional, saying that judicial review is a fundamental feature of the Constitution. It stipulated that appeals against CAT orders would be heard by the division bench of the relevant high court.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for the adjudication of disputes and complaints relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with Union affairs or other authorities under the control of the Government.
In India, the Central Administrative Tribunal has 17 benches and 21 circuit benches. In addition to Central Government Ministries and Departments, the Government of India has notified 214 organisations under Section 14 (2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, bringing them under the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal.
The CAT has initial jurisdiction over recruiting and other service problems involving public servants. It has control over all-India services, Central civil services, civil jobs under the Centre, and civilian defence employees. It does not, however, cover members of the armed forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and Parliament’s secretarial staff.
Originally, appeals against CAT orders could only be filed in the Supreme Court, not the lower courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court determined this restriction on the high courts power to be unconstitutional, saying that judicial review is a fundamental feature of the Constitution. It stipulated that appeals against CAT orders would be heard by the division bench of the relevant high court.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Information Commissioners of the Central Information Commission?
- The total number of Information Commissioners cannot surpass ten.
- He/ She may resign by writing to the Chief Information Commissioner.
- He/ She should not be a Member of the Parliament or hold any other office of profit.
- He/ She is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the committee headed by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Central Information Commission shall be composed of the Chief Information Commissioner and as many Central Information Commissioners as may be judged necessary, not to exceed ten.
The President will appoint the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners based on a committee’s proposal.
- The Prime Minister, who will serve as the committee’s Chairperson;
- the Lok Sabha’s Leader of Opposition;
- The Prime Minister will nominate a Union Cabinet Minister.
The Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may not be a Member of Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory, as the case may be, or hold any other profit-making office, be affiliated with any political party, or engage in any business or profession.
The Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may resign from his position at any time by writing to the President under his hand.
The Central Government may prescribe the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners, as well as the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Central Information Commission shall be composed of the Chief Information Commissioner and as many Central Information Commissioners as may be judged necessary, not to exceed ten.
The President will appoint the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners based on a committee’s proposal.
- The Prime Minister, who will serve as the committee’s Chairperson;
- the Lok Sabha’s Leader of Opposition;
- The Prime Minister will nominate a Union Cabinet Minister.
The Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may not be a Member of Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory, as the case may be, or hold any other profit-making office, be affiliated with any political party, or engage in any business or profession.
The Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may resign from his position at any time by writing to the President under his hand.
The Central Government may prescribe the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners, as well as the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
With reference to Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body recognized under the Competition Act, 1985.
- It regulates the hoarding of essential commodities under the aegis of Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
In March 2009, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) was formally created under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Act.
The Act outlaws anti-competitive agreements, enterprise abuse of dominant position, and mergers and acquisitions (acquisition, control, and M&A) that have or are likely to have a significant adverse effect on competition in India. The Commission’s objectives are listed below.
- To avoid practices from having an adverse effect on competition.
- To encourage and sustain competition in markets.
- To protect the interests of consumers and
- To guarantee freedom of trade
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs is in charge of enforcing the Competition Act of 2002, which aims to prevent anticompetitive conduct, promote and sustain market competition, and safeguard consumer interests through a commission established under the Act. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has an attached office.
The Essential Commodities Act regulates hoarding in general.
The Commission is also mandated to provide an opinion on competition matters in response to a referral from a governmental entity formed under any law, as well as to engage in competition advocacy, public awareness, and training. The Central Government appoints a Chairperson and six members to the CCI.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
In March 2009, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) was formally created under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Act.
The Act outlaws anti-competitive agreements, enterprise abuse of dominant position, and mergers and acquisitions (acquisition, control, and M&A) that have or are likely to have a significant adverse effect on competition in India. The Commission’s objectives are listed below.
- To avoid practices from having an adverse effect on competition.
- To encourage and sustain competition in markets.
- To protect the interests of consumers and
- To guarantee freedom of trade
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs is in charge of enforcing the Competition Act of 2002, which aims to prevent anticompetitive conduct, promote and sustain market competition, and safeguard consumer interests through a commission established under the Act. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has an attached office.
The Essential Commodities Act regulates hoarding in general.
The Commission is also mandated to provide an opinion on competition matters in response to a referral from a governmental entity formed under any law, as well as to engage in competition advocacy, public awareness, and training. The Central Government appoints a Chairperson and six members to the CCI.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (Amendment) Act, 2015:
- The Act establishes a District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in all districts where mining occurs to care for people and areas harmed by mining.
- It eliminates discretion in granting mineral concessions.
- All mineral licences must be granted with the prior permission of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (Amendment) Act, 2015 modifies some provisions of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. The following are the key provisions of the Amendment Act:
- The Amendment eliminates discretion in granting mineral concessions. They separate state governments give all mining concessions. They will continue to do so, but all mineral concessions will be granted through auctions alone, bringing greater openness and removing discretion. This also indicates that the mining sector will contribute more to the government. The tenure of mining concessions has been extended from 30 years to 50 years.
- Following that, all Mining Leases would be auctioned off (rather being renewed as in the previous arrangement).
- Section 9 (B) of the Amendment Act requires the establishment of a District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in all districts where mining occurs to care for people and areas harmed by mining.
- The central government will establish the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) for regional and comprehensive mine exploration. Licensees and leaseholders must pay the DMF one-third of the royalty specified by the national government, and the NMET two percent of the royalty.
- All offences under the Act will now carry a maximum penalty of 5 years in prison or a fine of Rs. 5.00 lakhs per hectare. State governments are also permitted to establish Special Courts to expedite the prosecution of offences under the Act.
- Section 20 A empowers the Central Government to set timelines for different activities and provide binding directives to states.
- Section 11 (B) directs the Central Government to develop specific rules for atomic minerals.
- Except for Atomic Minerals Amendment to Section 5(1), prior permission of the Central Government shall not be necessary for the grant of mineral concession.
- Concessions gained through auctions must be easily transferable in order to stimulate private investment and FDI (Section 12 (A)).
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (Amendment) Act, 2015 modifies some provisions of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. The following are the key provisions of the Amendment Act:
- The Amendment eliminates discretion in granting mineral concessions. They separate state governments give all mining concessions. They will continue to do so, but all mineral concessions will be granted through auctions alone, bringing greater openness and removing discretion. This also indicates that the mining sector will contribute more to the government. The tenure of mining concessions has been extended from 30 years to 50 years.
- Following that, all Mining Leases would be auctioned off (rather being renewed as in the previous arrangement).
- Section 9 (B) of the Amendment Act requires the establishment of a District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in all districts where mining occurs to care for people and areas harmed by mining.
- The central government will establish the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) for regional and comprehensive mine exploration. Licensees and leaseholders must pay the DMF one-third of the royalty specified by the national government, and the NMET two percent of the royalty.
- All offences under the Act will now carry a maximum penalty of 5 years in prison or a fine of Rs. 5.00 lakhs per hectare. State governments are also permitted to establish Special Courts to expedite the prosecution of offences under the Act.
- Section 20 A empowers the Central Government to set timelines for different activities and provide binding directives to states.
- Section 11 (B) directs the Central Government to develop specific rules for atomic minerals.
- Except for Atomic Minerals Amendment to Section 5(1), prior permission of the Central Government shall not be necessary for the grant of mineral concession.
- Concessions gained through auctions must be easily transferable in order to stimulate private investment and FDI (Section 12 (A)).
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
With respect to the Director of CBI, consider the following statements:
- The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Act of 2003 defines the mechanism for his/her selection.
- He/she is appointed by the Central Government based on the recommendations of a three-member committee.
- He/she has been given security tenure of five-years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
About CBI- It is the Central Government’s primary investigative agency. It is critical in the prevention of corruption and the maintenance of administrative integrity.
- It was established in 1963 by a Ministry of Home Affairs resolution. It was afterwards transferred to the Ministry of Personnel, and it now has the status of an affiliated office.
- It is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Director, CBI
- He is an Inspector General of Police in the Delhi Special Police Establishment.
- Prior to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act of 2013, the CBI director was appointed under the DSPE Act. The Lokpal Act now regulates the CBI director’s appointment.
- The Central Government will appoint the Director of the CBI based on the recommendations of a three-member committee comprised of:
- Prime Minister as Chairperson
- Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
- Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him.
He has been given security of two-year tenure in CBI under the CVC Act, 2003
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
About CBI- It is the Central Government’s primary investigative agency. It is critical in the prevention of corruption and the maintenance of administrative integrity.
- It was established in 1963 by a Ministry of Home Affairs resolution. It was afterwards transferred to the Ministry of Personnel, and it now has the status of an affiliated office.
- It is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Director, CBI
- He is an Inspector General of Police in the Delhi Special Police Establishment.
- Prior to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act of 2013, the CBI director was appointed under the DSPE Act. The Lokpal Act now regulates the CBI director’s appointment.
- The Central Government will appoint the Director of the CBI based on the recommendations of a three-member committee comprised of:
- Prime Minister as Chairperson
- Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
- Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him.
He has been given security of two-year tenure in CBI under the CVC Act, 2003
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
With respect to Consumer Protection Act 2019, consider the following statements:
- According to the Act, consumers must register a complaint only in the location where the product was purchased.
- It includes mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) technique for parties to reach an early and simple settlement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The 2019 Consumer Protection Act aims to offer prompt and effective administration and resolution of consumer issues. It is intended to replace the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
The following are key characteristics of the new Act:
Consumer rights: The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 defined a total of six consumer rights, which are as follows: (Right to Safety, Right to be Informed, Right to Choose, Right to be Heard, Right to Seek redressal, Right to Consumer Education).
In addition to current consumer rights, the new Act includes the following new consumer rights:
- The right to know about several characteristics of a product or service, such as its quality, quantity, potency, purity, price, and standard.
- The ability to file a complaint from any location. Consumers can now make a complaint with the District Consumer Commission or the State Consumer Commission from anywhere, including their home, office, or even on a weekend getaway, under this new entitlement. Previously, consumers could only file a case in the location where the product was purchased or where the vendor of the product had his registered office.
- Right to seek compensation under product liability. The Act proposes product liability rules under which a manufacturer or service provider must compensate a consumer if their goods or services cause injury or loss to the consumer as a result of a manufacturing defect or inadequate service.
- The definition of “consumer” has been expanded under the New Act. A consumer is described as someone who buys products or receives a service in exchange for money. It excludes anyone who obtains a product for resale or a product or service for commercial purposes. It includes transactions conducted both offline and online, including teleshopping, multi-level marketing, and direct selling.
- E-commerce now falls under the purview of the law and will be subject to all of the same rules that apply to direct selling.
- The Act requires the formation of a central regulator, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), to address consumer rights issues, unfair trade practises, deceptive ads, and to levy fines for selling faulty and counterfeit goods.
- District, state, and national Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions (CDRCs) will be established.
- The Act includes an Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) system. Referral to Consumer Forum Mediation whenever there is a possibility of early resolution and the parties agree to it. There is no way to challenge the mediation deal.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The 2019 Consumer Protection Act aims to offer prompt and effective administration and resolution of consumer issues. It is intended to replace the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
The following are key characteristics of the new Act:
Consumer rights: The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 defined a total of six consumer rights, which are as follows: (Right to Safety, Right to be Informed, Right to Choose, Right to be Heard, Right to Seek redressal, Right to Consumer Education).
In addition to current consumer rights, the new Act includes the following new consumer rights:
- The right to know about several characteristics of a product or service, such as its quality, quantity, potency, purity, price, and standard.
- The ability to file a complaint from any location. Consumers can now make a complaint with the District Consumer Commission or the State Consumer Commission from anywhere, including their home, office, or even on a weekend getaway, under this new entitlement. Previously, consumers could only file a case in the location where the product was purchased or where the vendor of the product had his registered office.
- Right to seek compensation under product liability. The Act proposes product liability rules under which a manufacturer or service provider must compensate a consumer if their goods or services cause injury or loss to the consumer as a result of a manufacturing defect or inadequate service.
- The definition of “consumer” has been expanded under the New Act. A consumer is described as someone who buys products or receives a service in exchange for money. It excludes anyone who obtains a product for resale or a product or service for commercial purposes. It includes transactions conducted both offline and online, including teleshopping, multi-level marketing, and direct selling.
- E-commerce now falls under the purview of the law and will be subject to all of the same rules that apply to direct selling.
- The Act requires the formation of a central regulator, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), to address consumer rights issues, unfair trade practises, deceptive ads, and to levy fines for selling faulty and counterfeit goods.
- District, state, and national Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions (CDRCs) will be established.
- The Act includes an Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) system. Referral to Consumer Forum Mediation whenever there is a possibility of early resolution and the parties agree to it. There is no way to challenge the mediation deal.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following authorities oversees and organizes elections for the Board of Co-Operative Societies?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
In 2011, the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act granted cooperative societies constitutional standing and protection. In this context, it made the following three constitutional amendments:
- It established the right to establish cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19).
- It incorporated a new State Policy Directive Principle on the Promotion of Cooperative Societies (Article 43-B).
- It created a new Part IX-B of the Constitution, titled “Cooperative Societies” (Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Election of members to a Cooperative Society’s board of directors: A board election must be held prior to the end of the board’s term to ensure that newly elected members take office immediately after the term of the outgoing board members expires.
The preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to a co-operative society shall be under the supervision, guidance, and control of such body as the state legislature may provide.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
In 2011, the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act granted cooperative societies constitutional standing and protection. In this context, it made the following three constitutional amendments:
- It established the right to establish cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19).
- It incorporated a new State Policy Directive Principle on the Promotion of Cooperative Societies (Article 43-B).
- It created a new Part IX-B of the Constitution, titled “Cooperative Societies” (Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Election of members to a Cooperative Society’s board of directors: A board election must be held prior to the end of the board’s term to ensure that newly elected members take office immediately after the term of the outgoing board members expires.
The preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to a co-operative society shall be under the supervision, guidance, and control of such body as the state legislature may provide.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
With reference to Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, which of the following would be prescribed by the Central Government?
- The State Chief Information Commissioner’s tenure of office.
- The salaries and benefits paid to Information Commissioners
- Person to be appointed as Chief Information Commissioner.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
- The Right to Information Act of 2005 mandates the establishment of a State Information Commission in addition to the Central Information Commission.
- The Central and State Information Commissions are powerful independent bodies that investigate complaints and make decisions on appeals.
- They hear complaints and appeals about the Central Government, State Governments, and Union Territories’ offices, financial institutions, and public sector undertakings, among other things.
The recently implemented Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 requires the Central Government to prescribe the following:
- Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners’ periods of office, salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service
- The State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners are in charge of information.
The President/Governor will continue to select people to the above positions based on the recommendations of a committee that comprises the following members:
- Prime Minister/Chief Minister as Chairperson
- Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha/State Assembly
- Union/State Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM/CM
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
- The Right to Information Act of 2005 mandates the establishment of a State Information Commission in addition to the Central Information Commission.
- The Central and State Information Commissions are powerful independent bodies that investigate complaints and make decisions on appeals.
- They hear complaints and appeals about the Central Government, State Governments, and Union Territories’ offices, financial institutions, and public sector undertakings, among other things.
The recently implemented Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 requires the Central Government to prescribe the following:
- Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners’ periods of office, salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service
- The State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners are in charge of information.
The President/Governor will continue to select people to the above positions based on the recommendations of a committee that comprises the following members:
- Prime Minister/Chief Minister as Chairperson
- Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha/State Assembly
- Union/State Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM/CM
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following statements about the Finance Industry Development Council is correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Finance Industry Development Council (FIDC) is a Reserve Bank of India-registered Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) and Representative Body of Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs). FIDC, which serves as a voluntary Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO), has a Code of Conduct for its members and has made every attempt to bridge the communication gap between the regulator and the regulated.
- FIDC was established in 2004 and is the most well-known face of NBFCs, particularly those involved in asset and loan financing.
- Small, medium, and large NBFCs are represented on the FIDC Managing Committee. The Managing Committee meets at least once every quarter in the major cities of Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, and other locations that are rotated. It ’s headquarter is in Mumbai.
Key activities it undertakes:
- For many years, the Finance Minister has invited me to participate in pre-budget discussions.
- Invited by the Governor/Deputy Governor and other senior RBI officials to discuss policy and oversight issues.
- Invited by the RBI to speak to senior state government officials and state police officers.
- Invited to the P.M. by the Economic Advisory Council to explore strategies to increase credit offtake in retail lending.
- Invited by all relevant Expert Committees / Task Forces established by the Government of India / Reserve Bank of India
- Parliamentary Standing Committees on Finance, Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, and Taxation invited me to speak.
- Legislative enactments/amendments under the SARFAESI Act.
- Invited to speak at the most prestigious national and international conferences and conventions
- Print and electronic media invited me to be a spokesperson and participate in a panel discussion on various topics.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Finance Industry Development Council (FIDC) is a Reserve Bank of India-registered Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) and Representative Body of Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs). FIDC, which serves as a voluntary Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO), has a Code of Conduct for its members and has made every attempt to bridge the communication gap between the regulator and the regulated.
- FIDC was established in 2004 and is the most well-known face of NBFCs, particularly those involved in asset and loan financing.
- Small, medium, and large NBFCs are represented on the FIDC Managing Committee. The Managing Committee meets at least once every quarter in the major cities of Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, and other locations that are rotated. It ’s headquarter is in Mumbai.
Key activities it undertakes:
- For many years, the Finance Minister has invited me to participate in pre-budget discussions.
- Invited by the Governor/Deputy Governor and other senior RBI officials to discuss policy and oversight issues.
- Invited by the RBI to speak to senior state government officials and state police officers.
- Invited to the P.M. by the Economic Advisory Council to explore strategies to increase credit offtake in retail lending.
- Invited by all relevant Expert Committees / Task Forces established by the Government of India / Reserve Bank of India
- Parliamentary Standing Committees on Finance, Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, and Taxation invited me to speak.
- Legislative enactments/amendments under the SARFAESI Act.
- Invited to speak at the most prestigious national and international conferences and conventions
- Print and electronic media invited me to be a spokesperson and participate in a panel discussion on various topics.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
- The “+F” logo indicates organically produced products.
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is in charge of it.
- The Chairperson holds the position of Secretary to the Indian Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was founded under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated different acts and regulations that dealt with food-related issues in various Ministries and Departments previously.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established to establish science-based standards for food articles and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import to assure the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
The Administrative Ministry for FSSAI implementation is the Government of India’s Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Government of India has already nominated the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). The Chairperson holds the position of Secretary to the Indian Government.
FSSAI’s Repurpose Spent Cooking Oil initiative enables the conversion of used cooking oil into biodiesel, preventing the diversion of used cooking oil into the food chain, which is a health danger.
In October 2016, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) implemented the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2016 to fortify staples such as Wheat Flour and Rice (with Iron, Vitamin B12, and Folic Acid), Milk and Edible Oil (with Vitamins A and D), and Double Fortified Salt (with Iodine and Iron) in order to combat India’s high rate of micronutrient malnutrition. To distinguish fortified foods, the ‘+F’ logo has been notified.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was founded under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated different acts and regulations that dealt with food-related issues in various Ministries and Departments previously.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established to establish science-based standards for food articles and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import to assure the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
The Administrative Ministry for FSSAI implementation is the Government of India’s Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Government of India has already nominated the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). The Chairperson holds the position of Secretary to the Indian Government.
FSSAI’s Repurpose Spent Cooking Oil initiative enables the conversion of used cooking oil into biodiesel, preventing the diversion of used cooking oil into the food chain, which is a health danger.
In October 2016, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) implemented the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2016 to fortify staples such as Wheat Flour and Rice (with Iron, Vitamin B12, and Folic Acid), Milk and Edible Oil (with Vitamins A and D), and Double Fortified Salt (with Iodine and Iron) in order to combat India’s high rate of micronutrient malnutrition. To distinguish fortified foods, the ‘+F’ logo has been notified.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
In which of the following cases can a party be recognized as a State party?
- If it gets three percent of legislative assembly seats in a general election in the State concerned.
- If it gets five percent of the valid votes cast in a general election for the State’s legislative assembly and also wins one seat in that assembly.
- If it gets six percent of the total valid votes cast in the State during a General Election to the Lok Sabha from that State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
A party is recognised as a state party in a state if one or more of the following conditions are met:
- If it obtains 6% of the legitimate votes cast in the state’s legislative assembly in a general election; and, in addition, it wins two seats in the legislature; or
- If it wins 6% of the valid votes cast in the state in a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and it also wins 1 Lok Sabha seat from the state concerned or
- If it obtains 3% of seats in the legislative assembly of the state concerned in a general election, or 3 seats in the legislature, whichever is higher; or
- If it wins one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 seats (or any portion thereof) awarded to the state in a general election in the state concerned; or
- If it receives 8% of the total valid votes cast in the state in a general election for the Lok Sabha or the state legislature.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
A party is recognised as a state party in a state if one or more of the following conditions are met:
- If it obtains 6% of the legitimate votes cast in the state’s legislative assembly in a general election; and, in addition, it wins two seats in the legislature; or
- If it wins 6% of the valid votes cast in the state in a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and it also wins 1 Lok Sabha seat from the state concerned or
- If it obtains 3% of seats in the legislative assembly of the state concerned in a general election, or 3 seats in the legislature, whichever is higher; or
- If it wins one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 seats (or any portion thereof) awarded to the state in a general election in the state concerned; or
- If it receives 8% of the total valid votes cast in the state in a general election for the Lok Sabha or the state legislature.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the National Informatics Centre:
- It provides e- Governance to Central and State governments, as well as district administrations.
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has executive authority over it.
- Manav Sampada is an initiative of NIC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The National Informatics Centre (NIC) is an executive authority under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. The National Informatics Centre (NIC) was founded in 1976 and has since established itself as a “primary builder” of e-Government and e-Governance applications at the grassroots level, as well as a champion of digital potential for long-term growth.
Central Government, State Governments, UT Administrations, Districts, and other Government organisations rely on it for network backbone and e-Government assistance.
In close collaboration with the Central and State Governments, NIC assists in the implementation of Information Technology Projects in the areas of
- Centrally sponsored schemes and Central sector schemes,
- State sector and State sponsored projects, and
- District Administration sponsored projects.
NIC strives to provide its users with the most up-to-date technologies in all areas of IT.
Some of the main initiatives of the NIC include -:
- gov.in – A platform for supportive Open Data initiative of Government of India
- Public Financial Management System – Facilitating Transparency and Accountability in the useof Public Funds
- Manav Sampada -An electronic Human Resource Management
- e-Vidhaan – To automate the functioning of legislative assembly
- Darpan – Dashboard for Analytical Review of Projects across the nation
- MyGov – Citizen Engagement Platform Virtual Place for Public to Interact with Government
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The National Informatics Centre (NIC) is an executive authority under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. The National Informatics Centre (NIC) was founded in 1976 and has since established itself as a “primary builder” of e-Government and e-Governance applications at the grassroots level, as well as a champion of digital potential for long-term growth.
Central Government, State Governments, UT Administrations, Districts, and other Government organisations rely on it for network backbone and e-Government assistance.
In close collaboration with the Central and State Governments, NIC assists in the implementation of Information Technology Projects in the areas of
- Centrally sponsored schemes and Central sector schemes,
- State sector and State sponsored projects, and
- District Administration sponsored projects.
NIC strives to provide its users with the most up-to-date technologies in all areas of IT.
Some of the main initiatives of the NIC include -:
- gov.in – A platform for supportive Open Data initiative of Government of India
- Public Financial Management System – Facilitating Transparency and Accountability in the useof Public Funds
- Manav Sampada -An electronic Human Resource Management
- e-Vidhaan – To automate the functioning of legislative assembly
- Darpan – Dashboard for Analytical Review of Projects across the nation
- MyGov – Citizen Engagement Platform Virtual Place for Public to Interact with Government
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB):
- It is headed by the secretary of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM).
- It provides advice to the government on senior management positions in Central Public Sector Enterprises.
- The Board of PESB consists four members including the Chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB), which is part of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), is a high-powered organisation that advises the government on management and top-level appointments in central government-owned businesses.
It was established with the goal of developing a strong management policy for Central Public Sector Enterprises and, in particular, advising the government on top management selections.
Specific functions assigned to the P.E.S.B include the following:
- To be in charge of personnel selection and placement in PSEs for the positions of Chairman, Managing Director, or Chairman-cum-Managing Director (Level-I), and Functional Director (Level-II), as well as any other level as the Government may specify;
- To provide advice to the government on matters relating to the nomination, confirmation, or extension of tenure, and termination of services of people at the above levels;
- To advise the government on the preferred structure for each PSE or group of PSEs at the Board level, as well as for senior management staff;
- To provide advice to the government on an acceptable performance appraisal system for both PSEs and their management employees;
- To establish a data bank with information on the performance of PSEs and their executives;
- To assist the government on the development and implementation of a code of conduct and ethics for PSE management staff;
- To advise the government on developing appropriate management training and development programmes for PSEs.
Constitution of the Board:The P.E.S.B. shall be composed of a full-time or part-time Chairperson and three full-time Members. The Chairperson and Members must have a lengthy and renowned career in management of public or private enterprises or public administration and a demonstrated record of accomplishments, preferably in people, finance, production, or marketing.
The three full-time Members of P.E.S.B shall be:
- A prominent serving or former Chief Executive Officer of a Public, Private, or Joint Sector Enterprise.
- A notable individual having prior experience in the selection of Top Management individuals.
- A notable serving or retired civil servant having experience in PSE management or in finance, industry, or economic affairs.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB), which is part of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), is a high-powered organisation that advises the government on management and top-level appointments in central government-owned businesses.
It was established with the goal of developing a strong management policy for Central Public Sector Enterprises and, in particular, advising the government on top management selections.
Specific functions assigned to the P.E.S.B include the following:
- To be in charge of personnel selection and placement in PSEs for the positions of Chairman, Managing Director, or Chairman-cum-Managing Director (Level-I), and Functional Director (Level-II), as well as any other level as the Government may specify;
- To provide advice to the government on matters relating to the nomination, confirmation, or extension of tenure, and termination of services of people at the above levels;
- To advise the government on the preferred structure for each PSE or group of PSEs at the Board level, as well as for senior management staff;
- To provide advice to the government on an acceptable performance appraisal system for both PSEs and their management employees;
- To establish a data bank with information on the performance of PSEs and their executives;
- To assist the government on the development and implementation of a code of conduct and ethics for PSE management staff;
- To advise the government on developing appropriate management training and development programmes for PSEs.
Constitution of the Board:The P.E.S.B. shall be composed of a full-time or part-time Chairperson and three full-time Members. The Chairperson and Members must have a lengthy and renowned career in management of public or private enterprises or public administration and a demonstrated record of accomplishments, preferably in people, finance, production, or marketing.
The three full-time Members of P.E.S.B shall be:
- A prominent serving or former Chief Executive Officer of a Public, Private, or Joint Sector Enterprise.
- A notable individual having prior experience in the selection of Top Management individuals.
- A notable serving or retired civil servant having experience in PSE management or in finance, industry, or economic affairs.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding All India Services:
- The Central Government is the All-India Services cadre overseeing authority.
- State Services Officers are inducted into the All India Services through Union Public Service Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Vacancies for promotion/selection to All India Services have been identified by the relevant Cadre Controlling Authorities in conjunction with the respective State Governments.
The Central Government determines the vacancies to be filled under the Promotion Quota for each year in consultation with the appropriate State Government, and the Central Government also makes the final appointments.
The Central Government is the All-India Services cadre overseeing authority. In accordance with the provisions of the relevant IAS/IPS/IFS Promotion Regulations, the Central Government means:
- Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions for IAS
- Ministry of Home Affairs for IPS
- Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change for IFS.
The All – India Services Branch is a branch of the UPSC whose major responsibility is to assist the Commission in the promotion or selection of State Services Officers into the All India Services.
The AIS branch only deals with the promotion of State Civil Service (SCS)/State Police Service (SPS)/State Forest Service (SFS) Officers to the Indian Administrative Service (IAS)/Indian Police Service (IPS)/Indian Forest Service (IFS) and the selection of Non-State Civil Services (NSCS) Officers to the IAS.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Vacancies for promotion/selection to All India Services have been identified by the relevant Cadre Controlling Authorities in conjunction with the respective State Governments.
The Central Government determines the vacancies to be filled under the Promotion Quota for each year in consultation with the appropriate State Government, and the Central Government also makes the final appointments.
The Central Government is the All-India Services cadre overseeing authority. In accordance with the provisions of the relevant IAS/IPS/IFS Promotion Regulations, the Central Government means:
- Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions for IAS
- Ministry of Home Affairs for IPS
- Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change for IFS.
The All – India Services Branch is a branch of the UPSC whose major responsibility is to assist the Commission in the promotion or selection of State Services Officers into the All India Services.
The AIS branch only deals with the promotion of State Civil Service (SCS)/State Police Service (SPS)/State Forest Service (SFS) Officers to the Indian Administrative Service (IAS)/Indian Police Service (IPS)/Indian Forest Service (IFS) and the selection of Non-State Civil Services (NSCS) Officers to the IAS.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Protection of Human Rights
(Amendment) Act, 2019:- It makes a former Supreme Court Justice eligible for appointment as Commission Chairperson.
- It establishes the Chairperson of National Commission for Women, as a member of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act of 2019 modifies the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, which established the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRC), and Human Rights Courts.
NHRC composition: Under the previous Act, the chairwoman of the NHRC was a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The amendment states that the chairman of the NHRC will be a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a former Supreme Court Judge.
Chairpersons of several commissions, such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women, were members of the NHRC under the previous Act. ( The chairperson of NCW was already a member under the previous act)
The amendment calls for the NHRC to include the chairs of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
Term of office: According to the previous Act, the chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will serve for five years or until they reach the age of seventy, whichever comes first. The amendment shortens the tenure of office to three years or until the age of seventy, whichever comes first.
Furthermore, the previous Act allowed for the reappointment of members of the NHRC and SHRCs for a five-year term. The amendment eliminates the five-year reappointment limit.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act of 2019 modifies the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, which established the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRC), and Human Rights Courts.
NHRC composition: Under the previous Act, the chairwoman of the NHRC was a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The amendment states that the chairman of the NHRC will be a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a former Supreme Court Judge.
Chairpersons of several commissions, such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women, were members of the NHRC under the previous Act. ( The chairperson of NCW was already a member under the previous act)
The amendment calls for the NHRC to include the chairs of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
Term of office: According to the previous Act, the chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will serve for five years or until they reach the age of seventy, whichever comes first. The amendment shortens the tenure of office to three years or until the age of seventy, whichever comes first.
Furthermore, the previous Act allowed for the reappointment of members of the NHRC and SHRCs for a five-year term. The amendment eliminates the five-year reappointment limit.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements with regards to Self Help Group (SHG) in India:
- Self-Help Groups are formal groups that must be registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
- The Deendayal Antodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) employs this concept to alleviate poverty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Self-Help Groups are informal groupings of persons who choose to gather in order to improve their living conditions.
The primary functions of Self-Help Groups are
- to encourage and motivate its members to preserve,
- to urge them to form a group plan for generating additional money, and
- to serve as a channel for conventional banking services to reach them.
These organisations serve as a collective guarantee scheme for members who wish to borrow from organised sources.
A SHG is not required to register under any Societies Act, State cooperative Act, or as a partnership business because it is an informal association.
The Deendayal Antodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAYNRLM) aims to alleviate rural poverty by establishing long-term community institutions for the disadvantaged.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Self-Help Groups are informal groupings of persons who choose to gather in order to improve their living conditions.
The primary functions of Self-Help Groups are
- to encourage and motivate its members to preserve,
- to urge them to form a group plan for generating additional money, and
- to serve as a channel for conventional banking services to reach them.
These organisations serve as a collective guarantee scheme for members who wish to borrow from organised sources.
A SHG is not required to register under any Societies Act, State cooperative Act, or as a partnership business because it is an informal association.
The Deendayal Antodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAYNRLM) aims to alleviate rural poverty by establishing long-term community institutions for the disadvantaged.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
In the context of Child labour (Prohibition &Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, consider the following statements:
- Employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes is illegal under the Act.
- State governments may add or neglect anyhazardous occupation from the list included in the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Amendment Act of 2016 outlaws the employment or work of minors under the age of 14. Taking into account the country’s socioeconomic situation, the Amendment Act states that a child may assist his family or family enterprise, other than any hazardous activities or procedures, during school hours or during holidays, effectively reducing children’s participation in family enterprises.
Child may also work as an artist in the audio-visual entertainment business, including ads, films, television serials, or any other form of entertainment or athletic activity other than the circus, subject to the restrictions and safety procedures prescribed.
The modified Act prohibits the employment of minors (those aged 14 to 18) in hazardous occupations as defined (mines, inflammable substance and hazardous processes).
The central government may add or remove any hazardous occupation from the Act’s list.
In comparison to the original Act, the Amendment Act of 2016 contains much stricter enforcement requirements. Any breach of children’s rights is made a cognizable offence, and anyone accused of violating them can be detained without a warrant. The new law proposes harsher consequences for infractions, including tripling the length of jail and fines.
It also establishes a Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund to assist children and adolescents who have been rescued from banned employment. Remittances to this fund, which comprise fines from offenders and state contributions of Rs.15000/- per child and adolescent, would be used for their welfare, including education.
The government may delegate authority to a District Magistrate to guarantee that the requirements of the law are effectively implemented.
The Act authorises the government to conduct periodic inspections of sites where children and adolescents are not permitted to work.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Amendment Act of 2016 outlaws the employment or work of minors under the age of 14. Taking into account the country’s socioeconomic situation, the Amendment Act states that a child may assist his family or family enterprise, other than any hazardous activities or procedures, during school hours or during holidays, effectively reducing children’s participation in family enterprises.
Child may also work as an artist in the audio-visual entertainment business, including ads, films, television serials, or any other form of entertainment or athletic activity other than the circus, subject to the restrictions and safety procedures prescribed.
The modified Act prohibits the employment of minors (those aged 14 to 18) in hazardous occupations as defined (mines, inflammable substance and hazardous processes).
The central government may add or remove any hazardous occupation from the Act’s list.
In comparison to the original Act, the Amendment Act of 2016 contains much stricter enforcement requirements. Any breach of children’s rights is made a cognizable offence, and anyone accused of violating them can be detained without a warrant. The new law proposes harsher consequences for infractions, including tripling the length of jail and fines.
It also establishes a Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund to assist children and adolescents who have been rescued from banned employment. Remittances to this fund, which comprise fines from offenders and state contributions of Rs.15000/- per child and adolescent, would be used for their welfare, including education.
The government may delegate authority to a District Magistrate to guarantee that the requirements of the law are effectively implemented.
The Act authorises the government to conduct periodic inspections of sites where children and adolescents are not permitted to work.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) falls under which of the following ministry of
Government of India?Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):
The BEE is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
It assists in developing policies and strategies with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy.
It coordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies, and other organizations
to identify and utilize the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):
The BEE is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
It assists in developing policies and strategies with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy.
It coordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies, and other organizations
to identify and utilize the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
- It can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List and Concurrent List.
- The Commission can inquire suo-moto into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution.The Commission can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo-moto or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
It can visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates.
It can review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of Human Rights and recommend remedial measures.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution.The Commission can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo-moto or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
It can visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates.
It can review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of Human Rights and recommend remedial measures.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019?
- The Act defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the
gender assigned at birth. - It states that a person will be recognized as transgender on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by the District Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
According to the Act a transgender person is somebody “whose gender does not match the gender assigned to that person at birth and includes trans-men or trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons having socio-cultural identities such as kinnar, hijras, aravani, and jogta”.
Highlights of the Bill:
The Act aims to stop discrimination against a transgender person in various sectors such as education, employment, and healthcare. It also directs the central and state governments to provide welfare schemes for them.
It states that a person will be recognized as transgender on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by the District Magistrate. This certificate will be a proof of identity as transgender and confer rights under this Bill.
Going by the Act, a person would have the right to choose to be identified as a man, woman or transgender, irrespective of sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy.
It also requires transgender persons to go through a district magistrate and “district screening committee” to get certified as a transperson.
Composition: The committee would comprise a medical officer, a psychologist or psychiatrist, a district welfare officer, a government official, and a transgender person.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
According to the Act a transgender person is somebody “whose gender does not match the gender assigned to that person at birth and includes trans-men or trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons having socio-cultural identities such as kinnar, hijras, aravani, and jogta”.
Highlights of the Bill:
The Act aims to stop discrimination against a transgender person in various sectors such as education, employment, and healthcare. It also directs the central and state governments to provide welfare schemes for them.
It states that a person will be recognized as transgender on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by the District Magistrate. This certificate will be a proof of identity as transgender and confer rights under this Bill.
Going by the Act, a person would have the right to choose to be identified as a man, woman or transgender, irrespective of sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy.
It also requires transgender persons to go through a district magistrate and “district screening committee” to get certified as a transperson.
Composition: The committee would comprise a medical officer, a psychologist or psychiatrist, a district welfare officer, a government official, and a transgender person.
- The Act defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements
- Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Eastern most reaches of Karakoram Ranges in Leh
- Himalayan Ibex, Tibetan Antelope, Bharal are found in the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary (or the Changthang Cold Desert Wildlife Sanctuary) is a high altitude wildlife sanctuary located in the Ladakhi adjunct of the Changthang plateau in the Leh District of the union territory of Ladakh The Ural, The argali, Tibetan gazelle, Himalayan Ibex, The Bharal (blue sheep), and the Snow Leopard and the Tibetan antelope (chiru) are some of the fauna found in the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary. Context – Boundaries of Sanctuaries in Ladakh are going to be rationalized by Wildlife Institute of India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary (or the Changthang Cold Desert Wildlife Sanctuary) is a high altitude wildlife sanctuary located in the Ladakhi adjunct of the Changthang plateau in the Leh District of the union territory of Ladakh The Ural, The argali, Tibetan gazelle, Himalayan Ibex, The Bharal (blue sheep), and the Snow Leopard and the Tibetan antelope (chiru) are some of the fauna found in the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary. Context – Boundaries of Sanctuaries in Ladakh are going to be rationalized by Wildlife Institute of India.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) Scheme’
- It focuses on socio-economic-educational empowerment of minorities with special emphasis on artisans
- Atleast one-third of the total targets are reserved for women
- Ministry of Minority Affairs is the nodal Ministry for the implementation of this scheme
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The scheme focuses on socio-economic-educational empowerment of minorities with special emphasis on artisans, women and youth. Atleast one-third of the total targets are reserved for women and provides entrepreneurial support exclusively for women Ministry of Minority Affairs is the nodal Ministry for the implementation of this scheme Context – Cabinet approved PM VIKAS scheme
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The scheme focuses on socio-economic-educational empowerment of minorities with special emphasis on artisans, women and youth. Atleast one-third of the total targets are reserved for women and provides entrepreneurial support exclusively for women Ministry of Minority Affairs is the nodal Ministry for the implementation of this scheme Context – Cabinet approved PM VIKAS scheme
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
‘FASTER’ a digital portal seen in news is related to
Correct
Solution (b)
Under the FASTER system, courts can send e-authenticated copies of bail orders, stay orders, interim orders and proceedings through secured electronic communication to duty officers at prisons. Supreme Court of India has approved an electronic system named FASTER (Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records).
Context – The portal was launched by the Supreme Court of India
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Under the FASTER system, courts can send e-authenticated copies of bail orders, stay orders, interim orders and proceedings through secured electronic communication to duty officers at prisons. Supreme Court of India has approved an electronic system named FASTER (Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records).
Context – The portal was launched by the Supreme Court of India
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Peace Clause of World Trade Organization’
- WTO members are refrained from challenging any breach in prescribed subsidy ceiling by a developing country under this clause
- It is contained in the Agreement on Agriculture of the WTO
- India used the peace clause for the first time as rice subsidies crossed de-minimis levels
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Under the peace clause, WTO (World Trade Organisation) member countries are refrained from challenging any breach in the prescribed subsidy ceiling given by a developing nation at the dispute settlement forum The Agreement in Agriculture contains a “due restraint” or “peace clause” which regulates the application of other WTO agreements to subsidies in respect of agricultural products (Article 13). India has for the third time invoked the peace clause for exceeding the 10% ceiling on support it offered its rice farmers. The country informed the WTO that the value of its rice production in 2020-21 was $45.56 billion while it gave subsidies worth $6.9 billion, which comes out to 15.14% as against the permitted 10%. Context – India invoked peace clause at the WTO
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Under the peace clause, WTO (World Trade Organisation) member countries are refrained from challenging any breach in the prescribed subsidy ceiling given by a developing nation at the dispute settlement forum The Agreement in Agriculture contains a “due restraint” or “peace clause” which regulates the application of other WTO agreements to subsidies in respect of agricultural products (Article 13). India has for the third time invoked the peace clause for exceeding the 10% ceiling on support it offered its rice farmers. The country informed the WTO that the value of its rice production in 2020-21 was $45.56 billion while it gave subsidies worth $6.9 billion, which comes out to 15.14% as against the permitted 10%. Context – India invoked peace clause at the WTO
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following
Festivals : State
- Manipur : Losoong
- Tamil Nadu : Puthandu
- Navreh : Uttarakhand
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Losoong is the Sikkimese New Year, of the Bhutia tribe, celebrated every year in December. Puthandu, also known as Puthuvarudam, Tamil New Year, is the first day of year on the Tamil calendar and traditionally celebrated as a festival. Navreh or Kashmiri New Year is the celebration of the first day of the Kashmiri new year by Kashmiri Hindus, with the largest Kashmiri Hindu community being the Kashmiri Pandits. Kashmiri Pandits dedicate Navreh festival to their Goddess Sharika and pay homage to her during the festival. Context – New year festivals were celebrated across different regions of the country.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Losoong is the Sikkimese New Year, of the Bhutia tribe, celebrated every year in December. Puthandu, also known as Puthuvarudam, Tamil New Year, is the first day of year on the Tamil calendar and traditionally celebrated as a festival. Navreh or Kashmiri New Year is the celebration of the first day of the Kashmiri new year by Kashmiri Hindus, with the largest Kashmiri Hindu community being the Kashmiri Pandits. Kashmiri Pandits dedicate Navreh festival to their Goddess Sharika and pay homage to her during the festival. Context – New year festivals were celebrated across different regions of the country.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years at simple interest. Find in how many years will it become 8 times itself at the same rate?
Correct
Solution (b)
In 8 years, the interest earned = 200%
Thus, per year interest rate = 200/8 = 25%
To become 8 times, it requires a 700% increase
700/25 = 28 years.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
In 8 years, the interest earned = 200%
Thus, per year interest rate = 200/8 = 25%
To become 8 times, it requires a 700% increase
700/25 = 28 years.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Amar, Akbar and Antony invested different amounts in a fixed deposit scheme for one year at the rate of 12% per annum and earned a total interest of Rupees 3240 at the end of the year. If the amount invested by Akbar is 5000 rupees more than the amount invested by Amar and the money invested by Antony is 2000 rupees more than the amount invested by Akbar, what is the amount invested by Akbar?
Correct
Solution (c)
12% rate of interest on the invested amount gives an interest of 3240.
Which implies that, 12/100 * P = 3240 ( P = Principal)
0.12P = 3240
P=27000
The sum of the investments are 27000.
If Akbar invests x, Amar invests x – 5000, Antony invests x + 2000
Thus, x + x – 5000 + x + 2000 = 27000
X = 10000
Incorrect
Solution (c)
12% rate of interest on the invested amount gives an interest of 3240.
Which implies that, 12/100 * P = 3240 ( P = Principal)
0.12P = 3240
P=27000
The sum of the investments are 27000.
If Akbar invests x, Amar invests x – 5000, Antony invests x + 2000
Thus, x + x – 5000 + x + 2000 = 27000
X = 10000
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The RBI lends a certain amount to the PNB on simple interest for two years at 25%.The PNB gives this entire amount to Reliance JIO on compound interest for two years at the same rate annually. Find the percentage earning of the PNB at the end of the two years on the entire amount.
Correct
Solution (a)
Let the principal be x.
S.I. = PTR/100 = x*2*25/100 = 0.5x
C.I. = P( 1 + r/n)t = x ( 1 + 25 /100 )2 – x = 1.5625x – x = 0.5625x
Profit = 0.5625x – 0.5x = 0.0625x
Therefore, percentage profit = (0.0625x/0.5x) * 100 = 12.5%
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Let the principal be x.
S.I. = PTR/100 = x*2*25/100 = 0.5x
C.I. = P( 1 + r/n)t = x ( 1 + 25 /100 )2 – x = 1.5625x – x = 0.5625x
Profit = 0.5625x – 0.5x = 0.0625x
Therefore, percentage profit = (0.0625x/0.5x) * 100 = 12.5%
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Ravi borrowed Rs. 800 at 6 % p.a. & Rs. 1200 at 7 % p.a. for the same duration. He had to pay Rs. 1584 in all as interest. Find the time period.
Correct
Solution (c)
Interest at 1st rate for 1 year = 800 x (6×1)/100 = Rs. 48.
Interest for 1 year at 2nd rate = 1200 x (7 x 1)/100 = Rs. 84
Therefore, Total interest for 1 year = Rs. 132.
Hence, the required time = 1584/132 = 12 years.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Interest at 1st rate for 1 year = 800 x (6×1)/100 = Rs. 48.
Interest for 1 year at 2nd rate = 1200 x (7 x 1)/100 = Rs. 84
Therefore, Total interest for 1 year = Rs. 132.
Hence, the required time = 1584/132 = 12 years.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
The task which Gandhiji undertook was not only the achievement of political freedom but also the establishment of a social order based on truth and non-violence, unity and peace, equality and universal brotherhood and maximum freedom for all. This unfinished part of his experiment was perhaps even more difficult to achieve than the achievement of political freedom. Political struggle involved fight against a foreign power and all one could do was either join it or wish it success and give it his moral support. In establishing the social order of this pattern, there was a lively possibility of a conflict arising between groups and classes of our own people. Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes. A new order cannot be established without radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards property and at some stage or the other the ‘haves’ have to yield place to the ‘have-nots’. We have seen, in our time, attempts to achieve a kind of egalitarian society and the picture of it after it was achieved. But this was done, by and large, through the use of physical force.
Why does man value his possessions more than his life according to the passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Refer to, “Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes.”
This excerpt from the passage makes it clear that option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Refer to, “Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes.”
This excerpt from the passage makes it clear that option b is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba