DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th October 2023

Syllabus

• Prelims –ART AND CULTURE

Context: The Prime Minister, Modi extended his best wishes on the auspicious occasion of KatiBihu.

About KatiBihu:-

• Bihu is the collective name of 3 Assam festivals (all held in the state of Assam): Rongali Bihu or Bohag Bihu (mid-April), Kati Bihu or Kongaali Bihu (mid-October) and Magh Bihu or Bhogaali Bihu (mid-January).
• Kati Bihu is celebrated on the first day of the ‘Kati’ month in the Assamese calendar which usually falls somewhere in mid-October.
• This year, it is observed on October 18.
• Kati means to cut and during this time the rice-sapling is relocated.
• It is also called the Kangali Bihu — from ‘kangali,’ meaning ‘poor’ because by this time of year, the house of an ordinary family is without food grains, as the stock is usually consumed before the next harvest.
• The festival marks the relocation of the rice crop and the beginning of the fresh harvest season.
• Kati Bihu is an observation of service, penance, and the hope for a better future.
• The festival is celebrated across the state of Assam.
• Lamps are lit outside the homes, and a pathway of bamboo is constructed as a trail for the ancestors.
• The main lamp is placed in the courtyard where the Tulsi plant is present.
• The Tulsi plant is cleaned for the festival and is kept on an earthen platform called “Tulsi Bheti.”
• People make offerings and pray to Goddess Tulsi for the well-being of their family and to have a good harvest. ( Bihu)
• People also light a special lamp called “Akash Banti” (Sky candle) in their paddy fields.
• The festival is celebrated for the entire month of Kati.

MUST READ: Kathakali dance

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017)

1. It is a song and dance performance
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014)

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Context: The role of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) for India was scrutinized recently.

Indian Ocean Region:-

• A third of the world’s population (2.6 billion people) live in the region.
• 80% of global oil trade, 50% of the world’s containerized cargo and 33% of its bulk cargo passes through it.
• The region produces a combined total of $1 trillion in goods and services and intra-IORA trade is billed at around $800 billion.
• India’s other regional organizations, like SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) and BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation), face their own challenges.
• While the QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue), has made progress, it remains U.S.-led, along with military allies Australia and Japan.
• China is actively trying to rope in India’s neighbours with groupings like the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), China-Indian Ocean Region Forum on Development Cooperation, China-South Asian Countries Poverty Alleviation and Cooperative Development Centre, which exclude India.
• This makes IORA significant for India.

About Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):-

• Establishment: 1997.
• Secretariat: Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius.
• Objective: to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region.
• The IORA is an intergovernmental organization.
• It was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC).
• Membership: It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean.
• Members: Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen.
• In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala.

Structure:-

• IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually.
• It is the highest decision-making body of IORA.
• The United Arab Emirates (UAE) assumed the role of Chair from November 2019 – November 2021, followed by the People’s Republic of Bangladesh from November 2021 – November 2023.
• A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics.

Functions:-

• It manages, coordinates, services and monitors the implementation of policy decisions, work programmes and projects adopted by the member states.
• Strengthen regional cooperation and promote sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
• Development through economic cooperation.

Focus Areas:-

• Maritime Security (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR)
• Trade and Investment Facilitation
• Fisheries Management
• Disaster Risk Reduction
• Academic and Scientific Cooperation (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium)
• Tourism Promotion and Cultural Exchanges
• Blue Economy

Significance:-

• The association gains importance by the fact that the Indian Ocean carries half of the world’s container ships, one-third of the world’s bulk cargo traffic and two-thirds of the world’s oil shipments.
• It is a lifeline of international trade and transport and the Indian Ocean region is woven together by trade routes and commands control of major sea lanes.

MUST READ:  International Maritime Exercise

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 2
4. 3 only

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a judgment in the same-sex marriage case.

Background :-

• In a rulin Tuesday that disappointed LGBTQ+ rights campaigners, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously rejected their prayer to grant legal recognition to same-sex marriage and left it to Parliament to change the law for such a union.

About same-sex marriage case:-

• The SC took up the case as petitioners claimed that the non-recognition of same-sex marriage amounted to discrimination that strikes at the root of dignity and self-fulfilment of LGBTQIA+ couples.
• The petitioners cited the Special Marriage Act, of 1954 and appealed to the Court to extend the right to the LGBTQIA+ community, by making the marriage between any two persons gender-neutral.

Arguments in Favour:-

• Considering Marriage as a Fundamental Right.
• Need to extend Special Marriage Act to Queer Indians.
• Assimilation of same-sex couples in society. (Same-Sex Marriage)
• Preserving Human Dignity. (LGBTIQ+)
• Ease in Surrogacy and adoption.

Arguments against:-

• Against traditional and religious definitions of Marriage.
• Preserving the Right to Privacy of same-sex couples which is not possible in marriage as it has a public element involved.
• Only Parliament has the authority to decide on same-sex marriage as it is a matter of democratic right and the court should not legislate on the issue.
• When queer couples adopt children, it can lead to societal stigma, discrimination, and negative impacts on the child’s emotional and psychological well-being.
• The Special Marriage Act (SMA) cannot be interpreted to include same-sex marriage because the Act’s entire architecture would need to be examined.

Judgement:-

• Citing “institutional limitations”, a five-judge bench, comprising Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul, S Ravindra Bhat, Hima Kohli and P S Narasimha, in four separate judgments, declined to strike down or tweak provisions of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 (SMA).
• They said that there is “no unqualified right” to marriage, and a same-sex couple cannot claim it as a fundamental right under the Constitution.
• However, the bench recognized equal rights for queer people and their protection and called for sensitization of the public to ensure they are not discriminated against.

MUST READ: Toward legalising same-sex marriage

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019)

1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraint
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Echinococcosis, is spreading in Kenya.

About Echinococcosis:-

• Human echinococcosis is a parasitic disease caused by tapeworms of the genus Echinococcus.
• Cause: The two most important forms in humans are cystic echinococcosis (hydatidosis) and alveolar echinococcosis.
• Echinococcus granulosus, a type of tapeworm, is a harmful parasite.
• The parasite can grow slowly in people for years to form thick-walled cysts in vital organs, such as the liver and lungs.
• Distribution:-
• Cystic echinococcosis is globally distributed and found in every continent except Antarctica. (Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC))
• Alveolar echinococcosis is confined to the northern hemisphere, in particular to regions of China, the Russian Federation and countries in continental Europe and North America.
• Transmission: Humans are infected through ingestion of parasite eggs in contaminated food, water or soil, or after direct contact with animal hosts.
• It’s a zoonotic disease, it spreads from animals to people, with a life cycle involving humans, dogs and ruminant livestock.
• It’s also considered a neglected disease by the World Health Organization (WHO).
• Symptoms: It can cause abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting.
• If not treated, it can be fatal.
• Treatment: Echinococcosis is often expensive and complicated to treat and may require extensive surgery and/or prolonged drug therapy.
• Prevention: focus on deworming of dogs, which are the definitive hosts.
• In the case of cystic echinococcosis preventive measures also include, deworming dogs, slaughterhouse hygiene, and public education.
• More than 1 million people are affected with echinococcosis at any one time.

MUST READ: pox

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023).

1. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes.
2. Converting crop residues into packing material.
3. Producing biodegradable plastics.
4. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass.

Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023)

1. Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go.
2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat.
3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals.
4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies.

Syllabus

• Prelims – GEOGRAPHY

Context: The Amazon River has been undergoing drought in recent times.

Background:-

• The drought plaguing the Amazon is a worrying portrait of the climate challenges facing the world.
• Understanding the causes and the need for an immediate action plan to save the biome.

About Amazon River

IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com

• Location: South America.
• The Amazon River is located in the Amazon Rainforest in the northern portion of South America.
• It originates high in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
• It flows eastwards on a meandering 4,000-mile (6,400 km) journey.
• One-third of its length in Peru and two-thirds in Brazil, before emptying into the Atlantic Ocean on Brazil’s northeastern coast.
• The Amazon River is separated into three sections: the Upper Amazon, Lower Amazon, and Mouth.
• The Upper Amazon: refers to the river systems and flood plains in Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, and Venezuela, whose waters pour into the Solimes and its tributaries.
• The Lower Amazon: starts where the darkly coloured Rio Negro meets the sandy-hued Rio Solimes (the upper Amazon).
• Guyana, Ecuador, Venezuela, Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, and Peru are all crossed by the Amazon.
• The Amazon River has nearly 1,100 tributaries.
• It is the second longest river in the world after the Nile.
• It is the greatest river in South America.
• It is the largest drainage system in the world in terms of the volume of its flow and the area of its basin.
• According to the Encyclopedia Britannica, the Amazon River carries nearly one-fifth of all the water that runs across the Earth’s surface.
• It contains the most freshwater fish species in the world, with more than 2700 species, around 1700 of which are endemic.
• An entire coral reef system was discovered by researchers at the Amazon River Delta in 2016. (Deforestation in Amazon Basin)

MUST READ: Yellow River

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023)

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023)

Statement-I:

Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II:

Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Syllabus

•        GS II – JUDICIARY

Under Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of Court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.  The objective for contempt is stated to be to safeguard the interests of the public, if the authority of the Court is denigrated and public confidence in the administration of justice is weakened or eroded.

KINDS OF CONTEMPT OF COURT

Civil Contempt

• Under Section 2(b) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, civil contempt has been defined as willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

Criminal Contempt

• Under Section 2(c) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, criminal contempt has been defined as the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:
  • Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or
  • Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding, or
  • Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.

AMENDMENTS TO CONTEMPT OF COURT ACT OF 1971

• For many years, “truth” was seldom considered a Defense against a charge of contempt.
• There was an impression that the judiciary tended to hide any misconduct among its individual members in the name of protecting the image of the institution.
• The Act was amended in 2006 to introduce truth as a valid Defense, if it was in public interest and was invoked in a bona fide manner.

ARGUMENTS IN FAVOUR OF RETAINING THE CONTEMPT PROVISION

• Increasing instances of Contempt and scandalizing, the high number of cases justify the continuing relevance of the contempt of court law.
• Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitutional Articles 129 and 215. Therefore, deletion of the offence from the Act will not impact the inherent constitutional powers of the superior courts to punish anyone for its contempt.
• Trust, faith and confidence of the citizens in the judiciary is sine qua non for the existence of Rule of Law.
• Civil contempt is necessary as willful disobedient litigants who ignore the orders of the court cannot be let-off otherwise it would seriously affect the administration of justice and trust of people in the judiciary.
• If there is no definition for criminal contempt in the Act, superior courts may give multiple definitions and interpretations to what constitutes contempt.  The Commission suggested retaining the definition for the purpose of ensuring clarity.
• The Law Commission noted that there are several safeguards built into the Act to protect against its misuse. For instance, the Act contains provisions which lay down cases that do not amount to contempt and cases where contempt is not punishable. These provisions suggest that the courts will not prosecute all cases of contempt.

ARGUMENTS AGAINST RETAINING THE CONTEMPT PROVISION

• A law for criminal contempt gets in conflict with India’s democratic system which recognises freedom of speech and expression as a fundamental right.
• The language defining criminal contempt is vague enough to encompass within its sweep legitimate criticism as well.
• The definition of criminal contempt in India is extremely wide, and can be easily invoked. Further, the Contempt of Courts Act was amended in 2006, to add truth and good faith as valid defences for contempt, but it is seldom entertained by the judiciary.
• In S.Mugolkar v. Unknown (1978), the Supreme Court held that the judiciary cannot be immune from fair criticism, and contempt action is to be used only when an obvious misstatement with malicious intent seeks to bring down public confidence in the courts or seeks to influence the courts.
• It does not recognise one of the basic principles of natural justice, i.e., no man shall be a judge in his own cause. Thus, in contempt proceedings, the court arrogates to itself the powers of a judge, jury and executioner which often leads to perverse outcomes.

CONCLUSION

Judiciary should balance two conflicting principles, i.e. freedom of expression, and fair and fearless justice. A mature and “broad-shouldered” approach to criticism can only inspire public confidence, not denigrate the judiciary, for justice, as Lord Atkin said, is “no cloistered virtue”. The law of contempt should be employed only to enable the court to function, not to prevent criticism.

Value addition:

COURT CASES CONNECTED WITH CONTEMPT OF COURT IN INDIA

• In Duda P.N. v. Shivshankar, P., the Supreme Court observed that the contempt jurisdiction should not be used by Judges to uphold their own dignity. In the free market places of ideas, criticism about the judicial system or the Judges should be welcomed, so long as criticisms do not impair or hamper the “administration of justice”.
• In Auto Shankar’s Case, Jeevan Reddy J, invoked the famous “Sullivan doctrine” that public persons must be open to stringent comments and accusations as long as made with bonafide diligence, even if untrue.
• In Arundhati Roy, In re, the Supreme Court observed that a fair criticism of the conduct of a Judge, the institution of the judiciary and its functioning may not amount to contempt if made in good faith and in public interest.
• In Indirect Tax practitioners’ Association v. R.K. Jain, S.C. observed that the Court may now permit truth as a defence if two things are satisfied, viz., (i) it is in public interest and (ii) the request for invoking said the defence is bona fide. (S.13, Contempt of Courts Act, 1971).

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

The Special Marriage Act (SMA) can be easily interpreted to include same-sex marriage.

Statement-II:

Special Marriage Act, of 1954 provides a civil marriage for couples who cannot marry under their personal law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the echinococcosis, consider the following statements:

1. The treatment for echinococcosis requires extensive surgery and prolonged drug therapy.
2. To avoid perpetuating infection, dogs and intermediate hosts should be kept in separate places.
3. Humans are the intermediate hosts.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  19th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – c