[DAY 17] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

DNA sequencing has been used in medicine including diagnosis and treatment of diseases and epidemiology studies. Sequencing has the power to revolutionize food safety and sustainable agriculture including animal, plant and public health, improving agriculture through effective plant and animal breeding and reducing the risks from disease outbreaks. Additionally, DNA sequencing can be used for protecting and improving the natural environment for both humans and wildlife.

Solution (c)

The epigenome consists of chemical compounds that modify, or mark, the genome in a way that tells it what to do, where to do it, and when to do it. Different cells have different epigenetic marks.

Posttranslational modifications of histone residues shape the epigenome and affect gene expression. The benefit of molecularly-informed therapies in cancer of unknown primary (CUP) is unclear. Cancer of unknown primary site (CUP) is defined as metastatic cancer without detection of a tumor of origin and accounts for 2–4% of all malignancies. Treatment options are limited and in the majority of cases insufficient. Epigenetic profiling using DNA methylation signatures has been reported to predict the tissue of origin in almost 90% of cases.

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

The genetic material governing a cell’s function and behaviour, called the genome, is safely stored in the nucleus. Nearly 150 years of looking through microscopes has taught pathologists and researchers that misshapen nuclei are warning signs of diseases like cancer. Cancer cells with such abnormal nuclei are able to migrate to other parts of the body in a process called cancer metastasis, a spreading that can be lethal.

Solution (d)

• In nature, there are a number of useful soil microorganisms which can help plants to absorb nutrients.
• Their utility can be enhanced with human intervention by selecting efficient organisms, culturing them and adding them to soils directly or through seeds.
• The cultured microorganisms packed in some carrier material for easy application in the field are called bio-fertilizers.
• Thus, the critical input in Biofertilizers is the microorganisms.

Based on type of microorganism, the bio-fertilizer can also be classified as follows:

• Bacterial Biofertilizers: e.g. Rhizobium, Azospirilium, Azotobacter, Phosphobacteria.
• Fungal Biofertilizers: e.g. Mycorhiza
• Algal Biofertilizers: e.g. Blue Green Algae (BGA) and Azolla.
• Actinimycetes Biofertilizer: e.g. Frankia.
• Bio-fertilizer are mostly cultured and multiplied it the laboratory. However, blue green algae and azolla can be mass-multiplied in the field.

 (Hence option (d) is the correct answer)

Characteristics Features of common Biofertilizers

• Rhizobium: Rhizobium is relatively more effective and widely used biofertilizer. Rhizobium, in association with legumes, fixes atmospheric N.
  • The legumes and their symbiotic association with the rhizobium bacterium result in the formation of root nodules that fix atmospheric N. Successful nodulation of leguminous crop by rhizobium largely depends on the availability of a compatible stain for a particular legume.
  • Rhizobium population in the soil is dependent on the presence of legumes crops in field.
  • In the absence of legumes the population of rhizobium in the soil diminishes.
• Azospirilium: Azospirilium is known to have a close associative symbiosis with the higher plant system.
  • These bacteria have association with cereals like; sorghum, maize, pearl millet, finger millet, foxtail millet and other minor millets and also fodder grasses.
• Azotobacter: It is a common soil bacterium. A. chrococcum is present widely in Indian soil.
  • Soil organic matter is the important factor that decides the growth of this bacteria.
• Blue Green Algae (BGA): Blue green algae are referred to as rice organisms because of their abundance in the rice field.
  • Many species belonging to the genera, Tolypothrix, Nostic, Schizothrix, Calothrix, Anoboenosois and Plectonema are abundant in tropical conditions.
  • Most of the nitrogen fixation BGA are filamenters, consisting of chain of vegetative cell including specialized cells called heterocyst which function as a micronodule for synthesis and N fixing machinery.

Solution (c)

• Precision fermentation is a cutting-edge technology that combines traditional fermentation methods with precision biology techniques.
• It involves programming microorganisms, such as yeast, to produce specific proteins by inserting genetic instructions or DNA sequences into their cells.
• Precision fermentation reduces the environmental impact of food production by minimizing deforestation, soil degradation, and methane emissions from livestock.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Applications of precision fermentation

• Precision fermentation: Pharmaceutical applications: Precision fermentation has been successfully used in the production of pharmaceutical products, such as insulin and other life-saving drugs.
  • By using microbial fermentation to produce these drugs, it eliminates the need for animal-based sources and ensures a more consistent and reliable supply.
• Alternative proteins: Precision fermentation has enabled the production of alternative proteins that can mimic the taste, texture, and nutritional profile of animal-based proteins.
  • Companies have developed animal-free milk and egg proteins through precision fermentation, providing sustainable and ethical alternatives to traditional animal agriculture.
• Novel food ingredients: Advanced fermentation technologies have been utilized to create novel food ingredients that offer unique properties and benefits.
  • For example, companies have produced plant-based heme protein (leghemoglobin) through precision fermentation, which provides the distinctive flavor and color of meat.
  • This has paved the way for the development of plant-based meat alternatives with enhanced sensory characteristics.
• Industry growth and investments: The precision fermentation industry has witnessed substantial growth and investment in recent years.
  • Numerous startups and companies are dedicated to advancing precision fermentation technologies, and investments in the sector have been increasing.
  • This growth indicates the growing recognition of precision fermentation as a viable solution for addressing food system challenges.

Solution (c)

• The recent news of a baby born in the UK with three parents’ DNA has sparked curiosity and discussions about the scientific breakthrough behind this remarkable achievement.
• This revolutionary technique, known as mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) or three-parent IVF, aims to prevent the inheritance of mitochondrial diseases.

Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT)/MRT

• To address the issue of mitochondrial diseases, scientists and researchers developed an advanced In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technique called Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT) or three-parent IVF. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• This technique involves a complex process to ensure that the baby inherits healthy mitochondria while carrying the genetic material from both biological parents. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Identifying Suitable Candidates:

• The procedure is specifically intended for couples who wish to have their genetic child but do not want to use a donor egg. (Hence statement 4 is correct)

Selection of Donor and Biological Parents:

• The biological mother, who has a mitochondrial disease, provides her eggs, which are fertilized by the biological father’s sperm.
• Additionally, a separate female donor with healthy mitochondria is involved.

Mitochondrial Replacement:

• The genetic material (DNA) from the donor’s egg is extracted and replaced with the genetic material from the biological parents.
• This creates an embryo with the parents’ DNA and the donor’s mitochondria.
• Implantation and Pregnancy:
  • The modified embryo is then implanted in the uterus and carried to full term, resulting in the birth of a baby free from the mother’s mitochondrial disease.

Potential Side Effects:

• While the procedure has shown promising results, it is not without minimal risks. In some cases, a small amount of faulty maternal mitochondria may be inadvertently passed on during the procedure. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• Further research and published data are needed to establish consensus and refine the technique for improved outcomes.

Solution (d)

• Probiotics are live microorganisms that are intended to have health benefits when consumed or applied to the body.
• They can be found in yogurt and other fermented foods, dietary supplements, and beauty products.
• They are usually consumed as supplements or yoghurts and are also referred to as “good bacteria.”.
• Probiotics live naturally in your body. L. acidophilus is a probiotic bacterium that naturally occurs in the human gut.
• The most common place linked to beneficial microbes is your gut (mostly large intestines), but there are other places like mouth, urinary tract, skin, lungs etc. where these probiotics are found.
• The probiotics are beneficial in the following ways:
  • Stronger immune system
  • Improved digestion
  • mental health disorders
  • Increased energy from production of vitamin B12
  • Better breath because probiotics
  • Healthier skin Reduced cold and flu
  • Healing from leaky gut and inflammatory bowel disease
  • Weight loss
• The different types of friendly Bacteria include Lactobacillus acidophilu, Lactobacillus bulgarius, Lactobacillus reuteri etc.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

• 3D Bioprinting is a form of additive manufacturing that uses cells and other biocompatible materials as ―inks, also known as bioinks, to print living structures layer-by-layer which mimic the behavior of natural living systems. (Hence both statements are correct)
• Bioprinter structures, such as an organ-on-a-chip, can be used to study functions of a human body outside the body (in vitro), in 3D.
• The geometry of a 3D bio printed structure is more similar to that of a naturally occurring biological system than an in vitro study performed in 2D and can be more biologically relevant.
• It‘s used most commonly in the fields of tissue engineering and bioengineering, and materials science.
• 3D bioprinting is also increasingly used for pharmaceutical development and drug validation, and in the future will be used for medical applications in clinical settings – 3D printed skin grafts, bone grafts, implants, biomedical devices, and even full 3d printed organs are all active topics of bioprinting research.

Solution (c)

• Nuclear Fusion is possible at very high temperatures, of the order of a few hundred million degrees Celsius, the kind of temperature that exists at the core of the Sun and the stars. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Recreating such extreme temperatures is no easy task.
• The materials that will make up the reactor, too, need to be able to withstand such huge amounts of heat.
• There are several other complications.
• At such high temperatures, matter exists only in the plasma state, where atoms break up into positive and negative ions due to excessive heat.
• Plasma, which tends to expand very fast, is extremely difficult to handle and work with.
• But the benefits of fusion reaction are immense.
• Apart from generating much more energy, fusion produces no carbon emissions, the raw materials are in sufficient supply, produces much less radioactive waste compared to fission, and is considered much safer. (Hence statement 2 is correct)

Solution (b)

• The National eVidhan Application (NeVA) objective is to make all legislatures digital with the help of Information & Communication Technologies (ICT). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It epitomizes the concept of ‘One Nation, One Application’, with a mission to prioritize cloud-first and mobile-first approaches.
• It enables automation of the entire law-making process, tracking of decisions and documents, and sharing of information.
• The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MietY) provides technical assistance to the project.
• The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA) provides funding to the project. The funding of NeVA is through the Central Sponsored Scheme – 60:40 for states; 90:10 for North East & and hilly States and 100% for UTs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is the nodal ministry for its implementation in all 31 States/UTs with Legislatures.
• Himachal Pradesh was the first Digital Legislature in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

• Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteriaand/or yeasts.
• Probiotic supplements are a way to add good bacteriato our bodies.
• A probiotic community is made up of things called
• These microbes are a combination of:
• Bacteria
• Fungi (including yeasts)
• Viruses
• Protozoa

For a microbe to be called a probiotic, it must have several characteristics. These include being able to:

• Be isolatedfrom a human
• Survive in your intestine after ingestion (being eaten)
• Have a proven benefit
• Be safely consumed
• Help your body digest food
• Keep bad bacteriafrom getting out of control and making you sick
• Create vitamins
• Help support the cellsthat line your gut to prevent bad bacteria that you may have consumed (through food or drinks) from entering your blood
• Break down and absorb medications

Probiotic-rich foods:

• Yogurt
• Buttermilk
• Sourdough bread
• Cottage cheese
• Kombucha
• Tempeh
• Fermented pickles

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (a)

• Ozone Layer exists in the Stratosphere, between 10 km and 40 km above the Earth’s surface. Without the Ozone layer, radiation from the sun would reach the earth directly, having ill effects on human health, i.e., eye cataracts, skin cancer, etc., and adverse impacts on agriculture, forestry, and marine life.
• World Ozone Day is celebrated on the 16th of September each year to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It aims to spread awareness among people about the depletion of the Ozone Layer and the measures taken/ to be taken to preserve it.
• The theme of World Ozone Day 2023 is “Montreal Protocol: fixing the ozone layer and reducing climate change”.
• The Kigali Agreement aims to phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by curbing both their production and consumption.
• It aims to achieve over 80% reduction in HFC consumption by 2047 which will curb a global increase of temperature by up to 0.5 degrees Celsius by the end of the century. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India has phased out chlorofluorocarbons, carbon tetrachloride, halons, methyl bromide, and methyl chloroform for controlled uses is in line with the Montreal Protocol phase-out schedule.
• India is yet to phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). As per the Kigali Agreement, India will complete its phase down of production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) for controlled uses in 4 steps from 2032 onwards with cumulative reduction of 10% in 2032, 20% in 2037, 30% in 2042, and 85% in 2047. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Note: The Vienna Convention came into force in 1985 and is an international treaty on the protection of the Ozone Layer. Under this convention, the Montreal Protocol came into force in 1987 to repair the ozone layer to protect the earth’s Ozone Layer by phasing out production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances for end applications.

Solution (b)

• Scrub typhus is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is a major public health threat in South and Southeast Asia. India is one of the hotspots with at least 25% of the disease burden.
• It spreads to people through bites of infected chiggers (larval mites). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The most common symptoms of scrub typhus include fever, headache, body aches, and sometimes rash.
• It will not spread from person to person.
• There is no vaccine available for this disease. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• It should be treated with the antibiotic doxycycline. It can be used in persons of any age. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Note: Leptospirosis is a potentially fatal zoonotic bacterial disease caused by Leptospira interrogans or Leptospira. The carriers of the disease can be either wild or domestic animals, including rodents, cattle, pigs, and dogs. Its symptoms include high fever, headache, chills, vomiting, red eyes, abdominal pain, rashes, and diarrhea.

Solution (c)

• India is a member of the International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML), an international standard-setting bodythat develops model regulations and standards.
• OIML plays a crucial role in harmonising national laws and regulations on the performance of measuring instruments like clinical thermometers, alcohol breath analysers, radar speed measuring instruments, ship tanks found at ports, and petrol dispensing units. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• World Metrology Day is celebrated in commemoration of the anniversary of the signing of the Metre Convention in 1875.
• The Metric Convention of 1875, more formally known as the Metre Convention or Treaty of the Metre, is an international treaty that was signed on 20 May 1875, in Paris, France. It established the International System of Units (SI), which is the modern form of the metric system. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The theme for World Meteorological Day 2023 is “The Future of Weather, Climate, and Water Across Generations”. The theme emphasizes the need to address the challenges posed by climate change and to develop strategies to ensure sustainable water and weather-related practices for future generations. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood (SANKALP) is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to create convergence among all skill training activities.
• Under a Central Sector Scheme, it is 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery.
• Under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the States in the ratio of 50:50, 70:30, 75:25, or 90:10 and the implementation is by the State Governments. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE) is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to improve the relevance and efficiency of skills training provided through Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs). Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

The following initiatives are related to marine pollution:

• The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea aims to develop a legal framework to prevent, reduce, and control pollution of the marine environment by dumping.
• London Convention aims to protect the marine environment from pollution caused by the dumping of wastes and other matter into the ocean.
• The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships aims for the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (a)

• Deoxygenation in water bodies results in dead zones leading to mass fish kills and other marine organism die-offs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Because deoxygenation leads to the reduction or depletion of dissolved oxygen levelsin aquatic environments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can occur due to various natural and anthropogenic factors, disrupting the delicate balance necessary for the survival of aquatic organisms.

Solution (c)

• The Export Promotion Council for Handicrafts (EPCH) was established under the Companies Act in the year 1986-87.
• It is a non-profit organisation, with an object to promote, support, protect, maintain, and increase the export of handicrafts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an apex body of handicrafts exporters for the promotion of exports of handicrafts from the country and projecting India’s image abroad as a reliable supplier of high-quality handicrafts.
• It has created the necessary infrastructure as well as marketing and information facilities, which are availed both by the member exporters and importers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Divisor = (5 x 46) = 230

Therefore, 10 x Quotient = 230

=230/10

=23

Dividend = (Divisor x Quotient) + Remainder

= (230 x 23) + 46

= 5290 + 46

= 5336.

Solution (c)

Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30%

Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20%

Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20%

Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10%

Percentage of passed students in both subject

= 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject)

= 100 – (20 + 10 + 10)

= 60%

According to the question,

60% of students = 144

Total students:

= (144/60) × 100

= 240

Solution (d)

Option (A) is incorrect. The passage says, western disturbances help sustain Himalayan glaciers and the local ecology. This does not imply that Himalayan glaciers are the result of western disturbances. According to author, western disturbance helps SUSTAIN these glaciers; these glaciers may have been formed by some other factors (beyond the scope of this passage).

Option (B) is incorrect. The passage says western disturbances provide nourishment to the winter crops. It does not mention anything about summer crops. Hence, it is beyond the scope of this passage.

Option (C) is incorrect. Passage says western disturbances lack the powerful ‘punch’ of the southwest monsoon. That clearly means southwest monsoon is stronger than western disturbances.

Option (D) is correct. Passage says, western disturbances have certain positive impacts like sustaining Himalayan glaciers and the local ecology. They also provide nourishment to winter crops. At the same time, they have certain negative effects. They cause occasional weather disruptions, especially in the hilly regions of north India that are prone to landslides and flash floods. Thus, the logical inference of the above passage is that western disturbances have both positive and negative impacts.

Solution (b)

Let the sum paid to Y per week be Rs. z.

Then, z + 120% of z = 550.

z+(120/100)z = 550

(11/5)z = 550

z = (550 x 5)/11

= 250

Solution (a)

(xⁿ – 1) will be divisibly by (x + 1) only when n is even.

(49¹⁵ – 1) = {(7²)¹⁵ – 1} = (7³⁰ – 1), which is divisible by (7 +1), i.e., 8.

Solution (d)

• The African cheetah is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN List. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Asiatic cheetah is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• African cheetahs are around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild whereas Asiatic cheetahs are around 40-50 found only in
• The Asiatic cheetah is smaller and palerthan the African cheetah.
• The African cheetah is bigger as compared to the Asiatic cheetah. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Both Asiatic cheetah and African cheetah are listed as Appendix I of CITES. This List comprises migratory species that have been assessed as being in danger of extinctionthroughout all or a significant portion of their range. Hence statement 4 is correct.