[DAY 44] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

Urbanization

Urbanization means the increase in the proportion population of a country who lives in urban areas. The most important cause of urbanization is rural-urban migration.

Solution (d)

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index(MPI) has been developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) for the United Nations Development Programme .

It is composed of ten indicators.

Years of schooling and child enrollment (education); Child mortality and nutrition (health)

Electricity, flooring, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel and assets (standard of living).

Each education and health indicator has a 1/6 weight, each standard.

So all the above-mentioned indicators are used in the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI).

Solution (b)

Urbanization

According to the census 2011 data 31% of the total population of India lives in urban areas. About 60% population of the country will live in cities by 2050 at current India’s rate of urbanization.

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

According to the World Bank, the challenges in urban governance have arisen from the following governance deficits:

Solution (a)

Age-Sex Pyramid:

The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.

Solution (c)

As per the census, 2011 data about 69% of the total population in India resides in rural areas. Rural settlements are of 3 types: Compact, Semi-compact and dispersed.

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

• India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed.

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Population density refers to the ratio of the number of people to the size of land.  95% of the world’s population is concentrated on just 10% of the world’s land.

Arithmetic Density- Total Population of an area divided by the total area of the land they inhabit.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Minerals generally occur in various forms

• In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities toward the earth’s surface.
• In sedimentary rocks several minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata. Other groups of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions.

Solution (b)

Wheat blast disease is a highly destructive fungal infection that primarily affects wheat crops. It is caused by the fungus Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT). It poses a significant threat to food security and safety, particularly in tropical regions of South America and South Asia. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (d)

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made the following provisions:

• It added three new words – socialist, secular, and integrity in the Preamble.
• It provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters.
• It curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts.
• It shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list – education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution, and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.
• It empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and committees.
• It provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.
• It shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed).
• It empowered the centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order.
• It facilitated the proclamation of a national emergency in a part of the territory of India.
• It extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year.
• It added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.
• It provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the courts on the grounds of violation of some Fundamental Rights.

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (a)

• Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA/European Space Agency (ESA)/Italian Space Agency (ASI) space mission to Saturn. It was launched on October 15, 1997.
• The Cassini Spacecraft consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit Saturn. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Cassini orbiter weighed 2,125 kg (4,685 pounds) and was 6.7 metres (22 feet) long and 4 metres (13 feet) wide.
• The instruments on board Cassini included radar to map the cloud-covered surface of Titan and a magnetometer to study Saturn’s magnetic field.
• The disk-shaped Huygens probe was mounted on the side of Cassini. It weighed 349 kg (769 pounds), was 2.7 metres (8.9 feet) across, and carried six instruments designed to study the atmosphere and surface of Titan.
• It consisted of the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times and teaching us almost everything we know about Saturn.
• It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the planet’s moons.
• It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to search for extraterrestrial life.

Solution (b)

• The Baltic Sea is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
• It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.
• It is connected to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal.
• The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south.
• It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body.
• Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness.

Solution (c)

• Micellar Water contains micelles which are formed by special molecules known as surfactants. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The compounds that lower the surface tension between two phases, like between two liquids, a gas and a liquid, or a liquid and a solid are called surface active agents or surfactants.
• These micelles have a hydrophilic exterior, meaning that they are very happy to remain mixed throughout the water.
• It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• When you apply some micellar water to a cotton pad, another convenient interaction occurs. Wet cotton is hydrophilic (loves water). Consequently, some of the micelles will unravel, with the hydrophilic heads being attracted to the wet cotton pad. Now, sticking out from the surface will be a layer of hydrophobic tail groups.
• These hydrophobic tails cannot wait to attract themselves to makeup, sunscreen, oils, dirt, grease, and other contaminants on your face. As you sweep the cotton pad across your skin, these contaminants bind to the hydrophobic tails and are removed from the skin.
• It is used as a skincare product that helps remove impurities and makeup from your skin. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) is a common, generic, and configurable application developed for registration departments across the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The NGDRS application is developed by the National Informatics Centre in Pune.
• It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The application is specifically designed for the use of sub-registrars, citizens, and apex users from registration departments.
• It offers a complete user interface for property and document registration, the application enables citizens to proceed with land buying online. They can find out the circle rate for land, calculate property valuation as per prevailing rates, and understand the type of land.
• Transactions of prohibited properties are restricted for sale like government land, tribal land, mortgaged land, etc., and are also available, which ultimately helps them decide where and what type of land they should buy. Thereafter, they can apply online for document submission, make instant payments, and take prior appointments.
• It facilitates states to create state-specific instances and configure the software as per requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Brumation describes a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is much like hibernation in mammals.
• Brumation is crucial for reptiles to survive cold climates and endure challenging environmental conditions until they can re-emerge to feed and reproduce in more favourable climes.
• It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices, or other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable.
• Their metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months without eating.
• It allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

• A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower for a set period of time in return for regular interest payments. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The time from when the bond is issued to when the borrower has agreed to pay the loan back is called its ‘term to maturity’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The bond issuer uses the money raised from bonds to undertake various activities, such as funding expansion projects, refinancing existing debt, undertaking welfare activities, etc.
• Bond Yield is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It partially depends on coupon payments, which refer to the periodic interest income obtained as a reward for holding bonds.
• The bondholders receive the bond’s face value at the end of the bond’s life. However, one may buy bonds at par value, discount (at a price lower than par value), or premium (at a price higher than par value) as they trade in the secondary market.
• Therefore, the prevailing market price of bonds also affects the bond yield.
• As the price of a bond goes up, its yield goes down, and as yield goes up, the price of the bond goes down. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Hastsal Minar construction was finished during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is located in a small village in western Delhi.
• It is also known as Mini Qutab Minar.
• Among the locals, it is also known as Hastsal Ki Laat and Kaushal Minar.
• It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The minar is 17 metres (five storeys) tall, standing on a square platform, and with an octagonal body.
• A staircase inside the five-storey tower led to the domed Chhatri pavilion at the top.
• It has three storeys, each with a reducing diameter, and is accessible through a narrow staircase
• Shah Jahan utilised Hastsal as one of his hunting lodges during the 17th century.

Solution (a)

Bor Tiger Reserve is the smallest tiger reserve in India by area located in the Wardha District of Maharashtra. It is a wildlife sanctuary which was declared a tiger reserve in July 2014. It is centrally located among several other Bengal Tiger habitats. Towards the northeast lies the Pench Tiger Reserve, towards the east is Nagzira Navegaon Tiger Reserve, and to the southeast is Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary. The Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is located to the southeast, the Melghat Tiger Reserve stands to the west, and the Satpura Tiger Reserve lies to the northwest. The area is populated by dry deciduous forest types. Hence option a is correct.

Solution (c)

As per the given condition in question:

2³ – 2² = 8 – 4 = 4

3³ – 3² = 27 – 9 = 18

4³ – 4² = 64 – 16 = 48

5³ – 5² = 125 – 25 = 100

6³ – 6² = 216 – 36 = 180

7³ – 7² = 343 – 49 = 294

8³ – 8² = 512 – 64 = 448

Next number is 448

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Given that n is a number greater than 7, and is divisible by 7 but not divisible by 14.

Let n = 21

Now checking with options,

(a) 2n = 2 × 21 = 42, which is not divisible by 11.

(b) 3n = 3 × 21 = 63, which is not divisible by 11.

(c) 2n + 1 = 2 × 21 + 1 = 43, which is not divisible by 11.

(d) 3n + 3 = 3 × 21 + 3 = 66, which is divisible by 11.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

Solution (b)

A number for which sum of all its factors is equal to twice the number is called a perfect number.

Solution (a)

Let Kamal’s salary = 100; Kamal’s salary after rise = 125

Then Madhavi’s salary = 175

Madhavi’s salary after rise of 40% = 245

[As 10% of Madhavi’s salary is 17.5 then 40% = 17.5 × 4 = 70]

Difference between Madhavi’s salary and Kamal’s salary = 245 – 125 = 120

% more Madhavi’s salary than Kamal’s = ((120*100)/125) = 96%

Solution (a)

Average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday = 40° C

Total temperature = 3 × 40 = 120° C

Average temperature for Thursday, Friday and Saturday = 41° C

Total temperature = 41 × 3 = 123° C

Temperature on Saturday = 42° C

Now,

(Thursday + Friday + Saturday) – (Wednesday + Thursday + Friday) = 123 – 120;

Saturday – Wednesday = 3

Wednesday = 42 – 3 = 39° C