[DAY 51] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

 Note:

• Qutbuddin Aibak (1206-1210)
  • Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions.
  • He set up his military headquarters at Indraprasta, near Delhi. He raised a standing army and established his hold over north India even during the lifetime of Ghori.
  • After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence. He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate.
  • He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital.
  • His rule lasted for a short period of four years. Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to them.
  • Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami.
  • He also started the construction of Qutub Minar after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish.
  • Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.

Solution (d)

Tuti Nama:

• Sanskrit and Persian functioned as link languages in the country in politics, religion and philosophy, as well as being the means of literary productions.
• At first, there was little interchange between the two.
• Zia Nakhshabi was the first to translate into Persian the Sanskrit stories which were narrated by a parrot to a woman whose husband had gone on a journey.
• This book, Tuti Nama (Book of the Parrot), written in the time of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, proved very popular and was translated from Persian into Turkish and into many European languages as well.
• It is said that the text of the Tuti Nama was written in Nastaliq calligraphy style. But each of the paintings seen in various libraries across the world focus on a single topic or episode of the stories.
• The straightforwardness of expressions seen in the paintings is attributed to the influence of pre-Mughal paintings. Several portfolios of Tuti Nama are also stated to be similar to the Malwa manuscripts with illustrations (dated to 1439 AD) but with distinct perfection. The difference is traced to the tasteful colors in Tuti Nama paintings, which make it rich in colors with graded quality.

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Akbar’s conquest of Gujarat:

• The last two Gujarat Sultans, Ahmad Shah III and Mahmud Shah III, were raised to throne when they were young so the nobles were ruling the Sultanate.
• The nobles divided territories between themselves but soon started fighting between themselves for supremacy.
• One noble invited the Mughal emperor Akbar to intervene in 1572 which resulted in the conquest of Gujarat by 1573 and Gujarat becoming the province of the Mughal Empire.
• During the period of Antonio de Noronha (1571) the Mughal ruler Akbar visited Cambay in Gujarat and the first contacts between the Portuguese and the Mughal emperor were established.
• Muzaffar Shah III escaped from captivity and took asylum under Jam Sataji of Nawanagar in Kathiawar region. The battle to save him was fought in July 1591 (Vikram Samvat 1648).
• The Kathiawar army included the armies of Junagadh and Kundla who betrayed Nawanagar and joined the Mughal army at last. The battle led to a large number of casualties on both sides.
• The battle resulted in the decisive victory of the Mughal army and Gujarat finally and completely fell under the Mughal empire.

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Hence option b is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Yars Missile is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
• It is a three-stage, solid propellant, multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle ICBM. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
• It can manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
• It is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
• It has a range of 10,500 km and a launch weight capability of 49600 kg. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Burkina Faso is a landlocked country in the Western Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus, and low mountains in the southwest.
• The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
• It shares its borders with Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the south, it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
• Burkina Faso, previously known as Upper Volta, was once part of French West Africa since 1896. It gained independence from France in 1960 and changed its name to Burkina Faso in 1984.
• Its official language is French, which is used in government and education. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• There are many indigenous languages spoken throughout the country, with Moore (Mossi) being one of the most widely spoken.
• The economy is largely based on agriculture, which employs over 80% of the workforce. It is one of the world’s poorest countries.
• It is a republic with a presidential system of government. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms align with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
• It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015, and the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has a chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children
• It has six members, out of which at least two are women, from the following fields, appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability, integrity, standing, and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare, or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children.
• Its members are appointed by the central government for a term of 3 years. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954 aims to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
• It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
• The term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The definition of “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
• Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines, or both.
• For a subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, a fine, or both.
• The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organizations.
• It applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements,  including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers. Hence statement 4 is correct.

• It can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
• If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove a lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
• Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.

Solution (d)

• The Quartet Road Map, set up in 2002, was a plan to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict proposed by the Quartet on the Middle East: the United States, the European Union, Russia, and the United Nations. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead.
• It is dealt with in section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It relates to the cause of death of the declarant.
• It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• There is no specific format required for a dying declaration.
• It can serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• It carries significant weight in legal proceedings. However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or a result of imagination.
• It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe and identify the assailants.
• It can be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
• If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a dying statement.

Solution (c)

• An asylum seeker is an individual who asserts refugee status but has yet to undergo a formal assessment, transitioning to refugee status upon a successful evaluation of their claim. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Refugee Status Determination (RSD) is a legal procedure employed by governments or the UNHCR to ascertain an asylum seeker’s refugee status under international, national, or regional legislation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Fourier’s law describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through solid materials. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object to the colder end.
• It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
• It is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
• Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighbouring atoms or molecules. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together than in gases, where particles are further apart.

Solution (b)

• The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the center deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It applies to both Indian and foreign nationals, charging them similarly even if the crime is committed outside India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Each number of the series is 15 multiplied by a prime number i.e., 15 × 11, 15 × 13, 15 × 17, 15 × 19, 15 × 23,…………..

So, missing term = 15 × 29 = 435

Solution (b)

If first number (729) is completely divide by second number (27) then we divide remainder from second number then remaining remainder will be answer.

(729/27) = 27 times

Now, (56/27) = 2

Solution (a)

Since, the speeds of Vinay and Versha are in the ratio 5 : 3 i.e. when Vinay covers 5 rounds, then Versa covers 3 rounds, but first time Vinay and Versha meet when Vinay completes {2(1/2) = 2.5} round and Versha completes 1/2 round.

For Vinay to pass Versha seventh time, Vinay would have completed,

= 7 × 2.5 rounds

Since, each round is 1.5 km, the distance covered by Vinay is,

= 7 × 2.5 × 1.5

= 26.25 km.

Solution (c)

Given year 1939, when divided by 4 leaves a remainder of 3.

NOTE: When remainder is 3, 11 is added to the given year to get the result.

So, 1939 + 11 = 1950

Solution (a)

Suppose the man works overtime for x hours.

Now, working hours in 4 weeks = (5 * 8 * 4) = 160.

∴ 160 * 2.40 + x * 3.20 = 432

⇒ 3.20x = 432 – 384 = 48

⇒ x = 15.

Hence, total hours of work = (160 + 15) = 175