[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

• The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere.
• Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
• It is thicker at the equator than at the poles because heat is transported to greater heights by strong convectional currents. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The air never remains static in this layer. Therefore this layer is called changing sphere or troposphere. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Torrid zone, also known as the Tropical Zone or the Tropics, refers to that area of Earth that is located near the Equator.
• On the North of the Torrid Zone, there is the Tropic of Cancer, and towards its south is the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The Torrid zone receives the maximum amount of Sunlight and, therefore, is the hottest zone among all three zones. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This zone includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, Southern India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, some parts of Australia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Torrid zone covers almost 40% of Earth’s total surface, has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora, and also consists of 40% of the total world population due to its hospitable and viable climatic conditions for human settlement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The Karman line is located in the thermosphere at an altitude of 100 km.
• It is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (d)

The earth is round so the sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles at different places. The angle formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent of the earth’s surface circle at a point is called the angle of incidence.

It has the following influences:

• If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a small area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a large area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The sun’s rays with small angles traverse more of the atmosphere than rays striking at a large angle.

Note: The longer the path of the sun’s rays, the greater is the amount of reflection and absorption of heat by the atmosphere. Hence the intensity of insolation at a place is less.

Solution (b)

• The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.
• This results in changes in the intensity of the Sun’s rays falling on a given location over the course of a year, resulting in changes in day and night time.

Hence option b is correct.

Solution (b)

• There are three stages in the evolution of the present-day atmosphere.
• The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere.
• In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the third stage, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.
• The solar winds have played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere by stripping off the early atmosphere. This has happened in all the terrestrial planets which have lost their primordial atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. The present-day atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. Unsaturated air has less than 100% relative humidity.
• When a rising air parcel has little moisture, condensation during upliftment is low, and the latent heat of condensation released is low [Less additional heat from inside]. As a result, the fall in temperature with height is greater compared to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (normal parcel of air).
• The dry adiabatic lapse rate for the Earth’s atmosphere equals 8° C per kilometre.
• The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions because it has less moisture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Wet Adiabatic Lapse Rate is when an air parcel that is saturated with water vapour rises, some of the vapour will condense and release latent heat. This process causes the parcel to cool more slowly than it would if it were not saturated.
• The moist adiabatic lapse rate varies considerably because the amount of water vapour in the air is highly variable. The greater the amount of vapour, the smaller the adiabatic lapse rate [because the condensation process keeps on adding more latent heat of condensation]. On average, it is taken as 4° C per kilometre.
• Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions because it has more moisture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• As an air parcel rises and cools, it may eventually lose its moisture through condensation; its lapse rate then increases and approaches the dry adiabatic value.

Note:

• Saturated air cannot hold any more moisture.
• Unsaturated air can accommodate some more moisture.

Solution (d)

The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the atmosphere. It also sets influences the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate.

The factors that affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds:

• The Rotation of the Earth
• The Emergence of Pressure Belts
• The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating
• The Distribution of Continents and Oceans
• The Migration of Belts Following the apparent path of the Sun

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

• Water vapour is crucial to the thermal radiation balance and the hydrological cycle.
• It is a key component in atmospheric thermodynamics because it transfers latent heat, and contributes to absorption and emission in a range of groups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It condenses into clouds that reflect and absorb solar radiation, affecting the energy balance directly.
• The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Note: Water vapour in the air varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere (averaging around 2% in the atmosphere).

Solution (b)

• Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Temperature is the main cause of evaporation. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The rise in temperature increases the absorption of water and the concentration of air in the parcel.
• Air movement replaces an unsaturated layer with a saturated layer.
• The greater the motion of the air, the greater the evaporation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• It forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point (0° C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The other conditions for its formation are a clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights.

Solution (c)

• Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud, that appears at the surface level and is a composition of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Mist is defined as the layer of cloud, that is created due to volcanic activities, and changes in the level of temperature and humidity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The density of fog is always thick as compared to mist. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Fog is visible for less than one kilometre.
• Mist is visible between one to two kilometres.

Solution (b)

• Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the process of occurrence of a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms.
• It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface. The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Note:

• Intercloud or intra-cloud (IC) lightning is visible and harmless.
• Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is harmful as the ‘high electric voltage and electric current’ leads to electrocution.

Solution (b)

Hail is a type of solid rain made up of balls or lumps of ice. Storms that produce hail which reaches the ground are known as hailstorms.

The conditions that lead to Hailstorms:

• Highly developed Cumulonimbus clouds need to be present. These are the massive anvil or mushroom-shaped clouds that are seen during thunderstorms which can reach heights up to 65,000 feet. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• There must be strong currents of air ascending through these clouds. These currents are commonly known as updrafts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The clouds will need to contain high concentrations of supercooled liquid water. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

• The fairweather waterspout is generally formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. It is not so intense because it develops on the surface of the water and moves upwards. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The tornadic waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. It is very intense because it is accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. It is associated with thunderstorms. It forms as a vertical shape of a coiled column of mist and air from severe thunderstorm clouds to a water body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The winter waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. It is also known as a snow devil, an ice spout, an ice devil, a snownado, or a snowspout. This type of waterspout formation is very rare, especially under the base of a snow squall. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Squall is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The velocity of squalls is equal to and sometimes greater than hurricane velocity and hence they inflict great damage to human structures and vegetation.
• It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The dust particles in the atmosphere can be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. In general, the dust particles are mainly concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. It is because this region has dry winds when compared to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Note: Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

Solution (b)

• The Westerlies are winds that move from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They blow from the southwest to the northeast in the northern hemisphere, and from the northwest to the southeast in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the great expanse of the ocean, but those in the northern hemisphere are irregular due to uneven relief of vast landmasses. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. It is also known as a thermal thunderstorm. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. The colder, denser air pushes beneath the warm front’s warmer air, raising it.
• Thermal thunderstorms cover a bigger region, whereas frontal thunderstorms are less intense. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier, bringing heavy precipitation on the windward side. It is associated with Cumulonimbus Clouds. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution.
• It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time.
• A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member.
• The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
• CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
• It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
• The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
• It is bordered by Yemen and Saudi Arabia to the east. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia.
• Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez.
• With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia.
• It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Caracal is primarily a nocturnal animal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black ear’.
• They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens but can be found with their young in dense vegetation.
• It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range, and the Bundelkhand region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central and South Asia.
• It lives in woodlands, savannahs, and in scrub forests. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Large-scale hunting, illegal trading, and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.
• It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

Reports published by the International Energy Agency (IEA):

• World Energy Outlook
• World Energy Investment Report
• India Energy Outlook Report
• Coal Market Report

Hence option d is correct.

Note:

• IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
• Clean Energy Transitions Programme is the IEA’s flagship initiativelaunched in 2017 to accelerate progress toward a global net-zero energy system. It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.

Solution (b)

• SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI. Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing.
• It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Organic Electrochemical Transistors are an emerging class of transistors based on organic superconducting materialsknown for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode.
• It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
• They have promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages, and a versatile structure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Zero FIR was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
• It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin.
• The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction.
• It aims to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR.

Solution (d)

• Lalit Kala Akademi is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
• It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by the Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country.
• It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes.
• It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, and Garhi.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi.
• It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Punnett Square is related to Genetic Engineering. The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett. Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school. It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding. It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (b)

Hence option b is correct.

• Moons of Jupiter: Ganymede, Europa, and Lo.
• Moons of Mars:  Deimos
• Moons of Saturn: Titan, Hyperion, Prometheus, Pandora, Mimas, and Telesto.
• Moons of Uranus: Ariel, Umbriel, and Titania.
• Moons of Neptune: Despina, Halimede, Larissa, and Proteus.

Solution (c)

In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.

∴ In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

Solution (d)

Number of ways he can go to railway station from his home = 5 × 4 = 20

On returning, if he doesn’t take the same bus then,

Number of buses from railway station to city-bus terminal = 3 buses

Number of buses from city-bus terminal to his home = 4 buses

Number of ways he can go to his home from railway station = 3 × 4 = 12

For round trip, number of ways = 20 × 12 = 240

Solution (a)

Let the number of small pizzas be x and number of large pizzas be y.

∴ x + y = 190 … (i)

Also: 85x + 120y = 18775 … (ii)

Solving (i) and (ii): y = 75 and x = 115

Hence, he sells 115 small pizzas. Hence, option a.

Solution (a)

The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours.

In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes.

But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain 5 minutes.

:. 5/12 *84 = 35 hours.

35 hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday is 7:00 a.m. on Saturday.

Solution (a)

Let the number of half tickets sold be x and no. of full tickets sold be y.

∴ x + y = 500 … (i) and 15x + 25y = 10200 … (ii)

Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 230 and y = 270

Hence, 230 half-tickets were sold.