[DAY 56] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

• According to the ‘Standard Census Definition’, a marginal worker is a person who works less than 183 days in a year. There is no lower cap on the number of days a marginal worker should work. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• A main worker is a person who works for at least 183 days a year. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

• If a settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name, it is called a hamleted settlement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh, and lower valleys of the Himalayas.
• If hamlets of a few huts are found in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on the slopes, it is called a dispersed settlement. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• They are found in many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Kerala.
• One or more sections of the village society choose or are forced to live a little away from the main village, it is called a semi-clustered settlement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• They are widespread in the Gujarat Plain and some parts of Rajasthan.

Solution (b)

• World Population Day was established by the United Nations in 1989.
• It was suggested by Dr. K.C. Zachariah. It was sparked by excitement on Five Billion Day on July 11, 1987, roughly the day the world’s population surpassed five billion. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The objective of World Population Day is to raise awareness of a variety of population-related issues, including the value of family planning, gender equality, poverty, maternal health, and human rights.
• World Population Day is observed annually on July 11th to raise awareness about global population issues and their impact on social, economic, and environmental aspects. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The United Nations Population Fund releases a statement every year on the occasion of World Population Day.
• The World Population Day 2023 theme is  “Imagine a world where everyone all 8 billion of us has a future bursting with promise and potential”. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, after hydrogen. However, it is relatively rare on Earth, with most of it being produced by the decay of radioactive elements in the Earth’s crust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Natural gas is the primary source of helium on Earth.
• Helium is extracted from natural gas using a process called cryogenic distillation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• As of 2022, the reserves of helium in the United States have the largest reserves of helium globally followed by Algeria and Russia. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years.

Solution (a)

The Classification of Cities based on population size:

• An urban area with a population of more than one lakh is considered a city or class I town. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Cities with a population of more than one million but less than 5 million are considered metro cities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Cities with a population of more than 5 million are considered megalopolis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

• The Farmers’ Distress Index tries to anticipate agrarian distress and prevent its spread from a few farmers to the village or block level.
• It will enable various entities such as the central government, state governments, local bodies, and non-governmental agencies to receive early warnings about impending farmers’ distress, thus facilitating proactive interventions.
• It is released by theCentral Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA), an institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Hence option a is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Meitei people, also known as the Manipuri people, are the predominant ethnic group of Manipur State.
• The Meitei ethnic group represents about 53% of Manipur’s population. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Meiteis primarily settled in the Imphal Valley region in modern-day Manipur, though a sizable population has settled in the other Indian states of Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
• There is also a notable presence of Meitei in the neighbouring countries of Myanmar and Bangladesh.
• They speak the Meitei language (officially called Manipuri), one of the 22 official languages of India and the sole official language of Manipur State. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A majority follow Hinduism, while more than 8% are Muslims. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• They are divided into clans, the members of which do not intermarry.
• Rice cultivation on irrigated fields is the basis of their economy.

Note:

• Yaoshang Festival is celebrated by the Meitei people at the same time as Holi and is known as ‘Manipur’s version of Holi’.
• The five-day-long celebration begins with the burning of ‘yaoshang’(a small thatch hut/straw hut), which is constructed with bamboo and straws on the first day.
• The highlight of the festival is the ThabalChongba, a traditional Manipuri folk dance where boys and girls hold hands and sing and dance in a circle.
• The festival marks the rejuvenation of the spirit of life and commemorates the birthday of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.

Solution (b)

• The term demographic trap is used by demographers, to describe the combination of high fertility which means increasing birth rates, and declining mortality which means decreasing death rates in developing countries, resulting in a period of high population growth rate (PGR).
• High fertility combined with declining mortality happens when a developing country moves through the demographic transition of becoming developed. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• During stage II of the demographic transition, the quality of health care improves and death rates fall, but birth rates remain high, resulting in a period of high population growth.
• The term demographic trap is used by some demographers to describe a situation where stage II persists because falling living standards reinforce the prevailing high fertility, which in turn reinforces the decline in living standards. This results in more poverty, where people rely on more children to provide them with economic security. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

• Human Capital refers to the measure of the skills, education, health, and attributes of labour that helps in increasing the productivity potential.
• The Skill India Mission helps the younger generation by providing them with employment opportunities through upgrading their skills. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people and increasing their standard of living.
• Ayushman Bharat Yojana is a government-sponsored health insurance scheme that will provide free coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year at any government or even empanelled private hospitals all over India for secondary and tertiary medical care facilities. Thus it helps in increasing the productivity potential by providing better health facilities to people.
• Samagra Siksha Abhiyan aims to deliver inclusive, equitable, and affordable education from preschool to senior secondary level. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by providing education to people.
• MGNREGA provides a guarantee of 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (a)

• As per the ‘Standard Census Definition’, Literacy is the ability to read and write with understanding in any language. Literacy can be tested in any language, not only in our official languages. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A person who can merely read but cannot write is not classified as literate.
• Any formal education or minimum educational standard is not necessary to be considered literate. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The information on literacy was collected in all censuses. Information on the standard of education was collected for the first time in the 1941 census and after that, it was asked in every subsequent census. In 1971, information on literacy and educational level was collected from each individual.

Solution (c)

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Sentinelese people are an indigenous people of the Andaman Islands, in the Bay of Bengal. They inhabit North Sentinel Island, which lies westward off the southern tip of the Great Andaman archipelago. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are hunter-gatherers and do not practice any form of agriculture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• They resist contact with the outside world and are among the last people to remain virtually untouched and uncontacted by modern civilization. Their language remains unclassified and is not mutually intelligible with the Jarawa language of their nearest neighbours. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• Pastoralism refers to herding or tending livestock as the primary occupation. Transhumance and nomadic pastoralism are forms of pastoralism.
• Nomadic pastoralism is the irregular movement of herders. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are called nomads as they do not follow a pattern in their movements.
• Transhumance is the regular and seasonal movement of herders. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Nomadic pastoralism prefers higher plateaus in summer and desert plains in winter. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Transhumance prefers higher pasturelands in summer and low valleys in winter. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Ranges from south to north:

• Siwalik
• Pir Panjal
• Zaskar
• Ladakh
• Karakoram

Hence option a is correct.

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

• Major rivers of Nagaland like Dhansiri, Doyang, and Dikhu flow westward into the Brahmaputra River that falls into Bangladesh, while the Tizu River flows eastwards and joins the Chindwin River in Burma. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Barak raises in the Manipur hills and enters the plains near Lakhipur. The Meghna is formed due to the joining of the Surma and Kushiyara rivers (together known as the Barak River in India) originating from the hilly regions of eastern India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Meghalaya Plateau receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Cherrapunji, receiving the highest rainfall after Mawsynram is devoid of any permanent vegetation cover.
• The Cherapunji area receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. As a result, the Meghalaya plateau has a highly eroded surface. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700 – 1000 m above the mean sea level and slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Aravali range borders them on the west. The Satpura range is formed in the south by a succession of scarped plateaus.
• The Central Highlands are the parts of the Peninsular plateau to the north of the Narmada River that encompass a calculated area of the Malwa plateau.
• It is a prime example of relict mountains, which are densely forested and form discontinuous ranges.
• Relict Mountains, also known as residual mountains or mountains of denudation, are a kind of landform formed through time as a result of the erosion of formerly high areas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They are divided into two parallel chains of hills known as the Vindhyas and the Satpuras and are separated by the Narmada River Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

• The Great Indian Desert is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of this characteristic feature it is also known as Marusthali.
• The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the peninsular plateau. Yet, due to extremely arid conditions, its surface features have been craved by physical weathering and wind actions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This region was once under the sea during the Mesozoic Era. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at the Wood Fossils Park (its approximate age is estimated to be 180 million years) at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious viral disease of cattle. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus Capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family).
• It is currently endemic in Africa, the Middle East, and Turkey. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation.
• Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand).
• It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Infected animals shed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs. Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
• LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from. The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appear on the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum.
• The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin. The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions.
• It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposed to the virus or have low immunity.
• LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans.
• It has no direct antiviral treatment. Instead, the infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• These are composed of a series of surface gravity waves.
• They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or even long periods of fierce gale winds.
• During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre until they strike the shore.
• Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated, and therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction.
• Swell waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe storms.
• It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity and as a result.
• The Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) gives forewarning seven days in advance. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The Marine Products Export Development Authority is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promoting of export of marine products. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was set up by an act of Parliament in 1972. The erstwhile Marine Products Export Promotion Council established by the Government of India in September 1961 was converged into MPEDA on 24th August 1972.
• It is responsible for registering fishing vessels, processing plants, or storage premises for marine products and conveyances used for the transport of marine products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is responsible for developing and regulating off-shore and deep-sea fishing and undertaking measures for the conservation and management of off-shore and deep-sea fisheries
• It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• It has set up five full-fledged Quality Control Laboratories, at Kochi, Nellore & Bhimavaram, Bhubaneshwar, and Porbandar. In addition, fifteen ELISA Screening Laboratories were set up by MPEDA in the maritime states.
• To reach out to the exporters in different parts of the country, it has set up 18 – Regional / Sub Regional Divisions / Desk offices.
• It is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio telescope to be situated on the Moon’s far side. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in collaboration with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space agency will launch its moon wards.
• It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies and reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It will answer the question of when the first stars formed, the nature of the first stars and what was the light from the first stars.
• It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver, and a digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages.

Solution (a)

• The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure the strength of a tornado. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Richter scale is used to measure the strength of an earthquake. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• A tiltmeter is used to measure subtle changes in ground slope and shape at volcanoes. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are prokaryotic microorganisms that are capable of transforming nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into “fixed nitrogen” compounds, such as ammonia, that are usable by plants. They are:

• Cyanobacteria Anabaena
• Nostoc
• Beijerinckia
• Rhizobium
• Azotobacter
• Clostridium

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (d)

• Carbon Fibre is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon, essentially carbon atoms bonded together in long chains.
• It has a high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It consists of low thermal expansion and has high chemical resistance. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• They are extremely stiff, strong, and light, and are used in many processes to create excellent structural materials.
• Currently, India does not produce any carbon fibre, relying entirely on imports from countries such as the US, France, Japan, and Germany.
• It is essential for various applications such as fighter planes’ noses, civilian airplanes, drone frames, car chassis, and fire-resistant building material.
• It is a critical material in technical textiles and is known for its high strength and lightweight properties.

Solution (c)

• The Indian Laurel Tree is mainly found in both dry and moist deciduous forests up to 1000 m. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its other names are marutham (Tamil); matti (Kannada); ain (Marathi); taukkyan (Burma); asana (Sri Lanka); and casually crocodile bark because of the characteristic bark pattern.
• It is principally native to southern and Southeast Asia in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Its wood is used for furniture, cabinetwork, joinery, paneling, specialty items, boat-building, railroad cross-ties (treated), decorative veneers, and musical instruments (e.g. for guitar fretboard).
• Its leaves are used as food by Antheraea paphia which produces the tussar silk. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Its bark is used medicinally against diarrhoea. Oxalic acid can be extracted from it.
• Its bark and fruit yield pyrogallol and catechol to dye and tan leather. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is created to set standards for drugsin the country.
• Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for the treatment of diseases prevailing in the region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It publishes official documents for improving the Quality of Medicinesby way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).
• It promotes the rationaluse of generic medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India.
• It prescribes standards for identity, purity, and strength of drugs essentially required from the health care perspective of human beings and animals.
• It provides IP Reference Substances(IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

Solution (c)

• The Sea of Japan is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
• It is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It covers 978,000 square km. The average depth is 1,667 meters. The depth of the deepest point is 3,742 meters.
• Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits. To the east, it is also connected to the Inland Sea of Japan by the Kanmon Strait, and to the Pacific by the Tsugaru Strait.
• It influences the climate of Japan because of its relatively warm waters.
• It serves as the meeting point of the cold currents from the north and the warm currents from the south.

Solution (c)

No. of digits in 1-digit page nos. = 1×9 = 9.

No. of digits in 2-digit page nos. = 2 x 90 = 180. => Therefore no. of pages with 2-digit page nos = 180/2=90.

No. of digits in 3-digit page nos. = 3 x 900 = 2700. => Therefore no. of pages with 3-digit page nos = 2700/3=900.

No. of digits in 4-digit page nos. = 3289 – (9 + 180 + 2700) = 3289 – 2889 = 400 => Therefore No. of pages with 4-digit page nos. = (400/4) = 100

Hence, total number of pages = (9+90+900+100) = 1099.

Solution (d)

n(S) = number of ways of selecting 1 number out of 30 = 30

Number of multiples of 7 from 1 to 30 = 4

Number of multiples of 15 from 1 to 30 = 2

Since LCM of 7 and 15 is 105, there is no number in the range that is a multiple of both 7 and 15.

∴ n(A) = 4 + 2 = 6

∴ Required probability = 6/30 = 1/5 Hence, option d.

Solution (a)

Let the wall correspond to 30 units of work.

Let Amulya and Gowri respectively do ‘a’ and ‘b’ units of work per day.

∴ a = 30/10 = 3 and b = 30/15 = 2

Amulya works on day 1 and Gowri works on day 2.

∴ Work done in two days = a + b = 3 + 2 = 5 units

Hence, six such lots of 2 days will be required to complete the work.

∴ Total time = 6(2) = 12 days

Hence, option a.

Solution (c)

The required number will be a multiple of the LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72.

LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72 = 1440

The largest four-digit multiple of 1440 is 8640

Hence, the required number is 8640. Hence, option c.

Solution (a)

Let the length of the rectangle be ‘L’ and breadth be ‘B’

Perimeter= 2(L+B) a/q,

Half of perimeter=20m

Perimeter= 40m

2(L+B)= 40

L+B= 20

Now, L= B+4

So, L+B= B+4+B=20

2B+4=20

2B=16

B=8

L= B+4= 8+4=12