IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements about the Article 101(4).
- Article 101(4) deals with the disqualification of a Member of Parliament on grounds of holding an office of profit under the Government of India.
- The President of India is empowered to determine whether a particular office attracts disqualification under Article 101(4).
- The Parliament can by law exempt any office of profit from the operation of Article 101(4).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct Incorrect correct - Article 101(4) of the Indian Constitution indeed deals with the vacation of seats in Parliament if a member becomes subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in clause (1) or (2). One of the primary disqualifications is holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
- While the President plays a role in matters of disqualification, the determination of whether an office is an “office of profit” is not solely within the President’s discretion. The Election Commission of India provides its opinion to the President on this matter. The Supreme Court of India also interprets and clarifies the meaning of “office of profit” through its judgments.
- Parliament has the power to enact laws to exempt certain offices from the purview of Article 101(4). This is done to allow individuals to hold certain public positions without incurring disqualification. The Parliament has enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, and amended it from time to time, to exempt certain offices.
Context:Amritpal, who faces charges under the stringent National Security Act, might lose his MP seat under Article 101(4).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct Incorrect correct - Article 101(4) of the Indian Constitution indeed deals with the vacation of seats in Parliament if a member becomes subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in clause (1) or (2). One of the primary disqualifications is holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
- While the President plays a role in matters of disqualification, the determination of whether an office is an “office of profit” is not solely within the President’s discretion. The Election Commission of India provides its opinion to the President on this matter. The Supreme Court of India also interprets and clarifies the meaning of “office of profit” through its judgments.
- Parliament has the power to enact laws to exempt certain offices from the purview of Article 101(4). This is done to allow individuals to hold certain public positions without incurring disqualification. The Parliament has enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, and amended it from time to time, to exempt certain offices.
Context:Amritpal, who faces charges under the stringent National Security Act, might lose his MP seat under Article 101(4).
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India (CCI)
- The CCI is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
- The CCI has the power to regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions) that cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India.
- The Chairperson and Members of the CCI are appointed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct correct Incorrect - The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is indeed a statutory body. It was established under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
- One of the CCI’s crucial functions is to regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions). It assesses whether these combinations are likely to cause an “appreciable adverse effect on competition” (AAEC) within the relevant market in India..
- The Chairperson and Members of the CCI are not appointed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs alone. They are appointed by the Central Government, and the process involves a selection committee.
Context:The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has released the draft Competition Commission of India (Determination of Cost of Production) Regulations, 2025 for Predatory pricing.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct correct Incorrect - The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is indeed a statutory body. It was established under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
- One of the CCI’s crucial functions is to regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions). It assesses whether these combinations are likely to cause an “appreciable adverse effect on competition” (AAEC) within the relevant market in India..
- The Chairperson and Members of the CCI are not appointed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs alone. They are appointed by the Central Government, and the process involves a selection committee.
Context:The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has released the draft Competition Commission of India (Determination of Cost of Production) Regulations, 2025 for Predatory pricing.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India?
Correct
Option a REITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and allow investors to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Context:The SEBI proposed a framework for undertaking fast-track follow-on offers by real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts (InVITs) to make fundraising more efficient.
Incorrect
Option a REITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and allow investors to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Context:The SEBI proposed a framework for undertaking fast-track follow-on offers by real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts (InVITs) to make fundraising more efficient.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements about the Software-defined radios (SDR)
- SDRs utilize software to define and modify the radio’s functions, replacing traditional hardware components.
- SDRs offer increased flexibility and adaptability compared to traditional radios, allowing for reconfiguration and upgrades through software updates.
Choose the incorrect statements:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 correct correct - Software-Defined Radios (SDRs) fundamentally rely on software to perform tasks that were traditionally handled by hardware components in conventional radios.
- One of the key advantages of SDRs is their ability to be reconfigured and upgraded through software updates.
Context:The Defence Ministry signed two contracts worth ₹1,917.47 crore for the procurement of software-defined radios (SDR) and rough terrain forklift trucks (RTFLT).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 correct correct - Software-Defined Radios (SDRs) fundamentally rely on software to perform tasks that were traditionally handled by hardware components in conventional radios.
- One of the key advantages of SDRs is their ability to be reconfigured and upgraded through software updates.
Context:The Defence Ministry signed two contracts worth ₹1,917.47 crore for the procurement of software-defined radios (SDR) and rough terrain forklift trucks (RTFLT).
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the Technology Adoption Fund (TAF).
- The TAF is a fund established by the Ministry of Finance to promote the adoption of advanced technologies by Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
- The TAF provides financial assistance in the form of grants and subsidies to MSMEs for the purchase and implementation of new technologies.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 correct correct - The Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) is indeed designed to aid MSMEs in adopting advanced technologies. It is typically associated with the efforts of ministries that support MSMEs.
- The TAF typically provides financial assistance through grants, subsidies, or other financial instruments to help MSMEs acquire and implement new technologies. This is a core function of such funds.
Context:The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), an indigenous arm of the Department of Space (DoS), has launched the ₹500-crore Technology Adoption Fund (TAF).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 correct correct - The Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) is indeed designed to aid MSMEs in adopting advanced technologies. It is typically associated with the efforts of ministries that support MSMEs.
- The TAF typically provides financial assistance through grants, subsidies, or other financial instruments to help MSMEs acquire and implement new technologies. This is a core function of such funds.
Context:The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), an indigenous arm of the Department of Space (DoS), has launched the ₹500-crore Technology Adoption Fund (TAF).
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