Solution (b)

Explanation:

After independence, during 1951-81, there was a steep fall in mortality rate but the fertility rate remained stubbornly high. Thus, period witness high rate of population growth. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The period between census years 1981 and 2011 is known as the period of high growth with definite sign of slowing down. Although the growth rate was still very high, it started declining after 1981. The highest ever growth rate of 2.22 per cent was recorded in 1971 which continued in 1981 also, it declined to 2.14% in 1991 and further to 1.95% in 2001 and 1.64% in 2011 although it is still higher than the world population growth rate of 1.23%. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Fallow lands other than current fallows includes all lands, which were taken up for cultivation but are temporarily out of cultivation for a period of not less than one year and not more than five years. There had been a sharp decline in fallow lands other than current fallow from 17.4 million hectare to 11.18 million hectare from 1950-51 to 1999-2000. The largest area of over 1.7 million hectare of ‘fallow land other than current fallow’ is in Rajasthan followed by 1.5 million hectares in Andhra Pradesh and over one million hectares in Maharashtra. Statement 1 is correct.

The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area. During 1988-89 to 2018-19, while the gross cropped area has increased from 182.28 million hectare to 196.50 million hectare, the net area sown remains largely unchanged at 140 million hectare. The net sown area did increase from 118.7 million hectares in 1950-51 to 141.58 million hectares in in 2000-01. However, since then it has largely remained constant. Statement 2 is correct.

Culturable waste land includes lands available for cultivation, whether not taken up for cultivation or taken up for cultivation once but not cultivated during the current year and the last five years or more in succession for one reason or other. Such lands may be either fallow or covered with shrubs and jungles, which are not put to any use. The land under this category has declined considerably from about 22.9 million hectare in 1950-51 to 13.8 million hectare in 1999-2000. This decline is mainly due to some land reclamation schemes launched by the government after Independence. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Birth rate is a crude measure of fertility of a population and a crucial determinant of population growth. India’s birth rate has declined drastically over the last four decades from 36.9 in 1971 to 20.0 in 2018. The rural-urban differential has also narrowed. However, the birth rate has continued to be higher in rural areas compared to urban areas in the last four decades. There has been about an 11 per cent decline in birth rate in the last decade, from 22.5 in 2009 to 20.0 in 2018. The corresponding decline in rural areas is 24.1 to 21.6, and in urban areas, it is 18.3 to 16.7. Statement 1 is correct.

The death rate of India has witnessed a significant decline over the last four decades from 14.9 in 1971 to 6.2 in 2018. The decline has been steeper in rural areas. In the last decade, death rate at an all-India level has declined from 7.3 to 6.2. The corresponding decline in rural areas is 7.8 to 6.7 and in urban areas, 5.8 to 5.1. Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

In India, when a person is enumerated in census at a different place than his / her place of birth or residence, she / he is considered a migrant.

A person whose place of residence during current Census enumeration is different from the place of birth is called a life-time migrant. It doesn’t matter how long s/he has been in this place or how long they intend to stay or if they intend to go back. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Among one of the two classifications of migration – is migration by last residence. This compares the place of residence of a person between two successive enumerations for Census. If the place of residence between two consecutive enumerations turns out to be different, then such a person is termed a migrant by last residence. Statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

In India, for Census purposes, the total geographical area is classified into ‘Rural’ and ‘Urban’. The constituents of ‘Urban’ area are statutory towns, Census towns and Outgrowths. 

• Statutory Town: Any place with a municipal corporation, municipal council, or cantonment board.
• Census Town: Places that fulfills the following criteria are termed as census towns: a population of more than 5,000; population density more than 400 people per sq km; and more than 75% of the male population not engaged in agriculture for their livelihood.

According to the Census in India, a town must have a minimum total population of 5000 or more. Statement a is correct.

According to the Census in India, a town must have a population density of more than 400 persons per square km or more. Statement b is correct.

Coverage of electricity connections is not a criteria listed for consideration in the classification system developed by the Census of India. Statement c is incorrect.

According to the Census in India, a Statutory Town is any place with a municipal corporation, municipal council, or cantonment board. Statement d is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The natural fertility of land is declining with the passage of time. The HYV seeds give rise to short stemmed, stiff strawed plants that respond well to heavy dozes of fertilizers. These dwarf varieties give much higher yields per unit area. The response of traditional varieties to chemical fertilizers is more in terms of vigorous vegetative growth which leads to pre-harvest lodging of the crop. Statement 1 is correct.

The principal characteristic of HYV plants are that they posses Large leaf surface helps in process of photosynthesis. They are insensitive to photoperiodicity which increase the yield potential of these varieties in the temperate regions of Asia and in the dry season in the monsoon region than in the humid tropics, because of the longer hours of sunshine and hence the greater potential photosynthesis available to the plant. Statement 2 is correct.

High Yielding Variety Seeds (HYV) has shorter maturing preiod and thereby enables the farmers to go for multiple cropping. For example, new seeds of rice and wheat complete their lifecycles in 110 and 120 days respectively. The traditional varieties of rice and wheat, on the other hand, take about 130 and 150 days respectively to harvest. The new seeds thus enable the farmers to economize on land. Statement 3 is incorrect.

The new HYV seeds are very delicate and highly susceptible to pests and disease. The irrigation fields enriched with heavy energy input of NPK create a micro climate (hot and humid) in the field which helps in the luxurious growth of plants. After irrigation, chemical fertilizer is the second most important input required for the successful cultivation of HYV. The recommended dose of chemical fertilizer for the new seeds of wheat and rice in terms of NPK in 90-45-45 kg per hectare. The well off farmers of the Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are applying this input in the given proportion while some of the more ambitious farmers are even exceeding the prescribed limit. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

In India, for Census purposes, the total geographical area is classified into ‘Rural’ and ‘Urban’. The constituents of ‘Urban’ area are statutory towns, Census towns and Outgrowths.

A statutory town, as per the Census of India, is defined as a settlement with some form of urban local body like a municipality or corporation or cantonment or notified town area committee. Pair 1 is correct.

A Census Town is an urban settlement satisfying the following criteria –

1. Minimum population of at least 5000 people
2. Minimum population density of at least 400 people per square km
3. At least 75% of the male working population engaged in non agricultural pursuits.

An urban region comprising of contiguous towns and/ or their outgrowths is called an Urban Agglomerate (not Census Town). Pair 2 is incorrect.

An Outgrowth, as per the Census of India, has been defined as, a settlement like a village or a village contiguous to a statutory town that possess urban features in terms of infrastructure and amenities – like pucca roads, electricity, taps, drainage system, educational institutions, medical facilities, etc. Some of the examples are railway colony, university campus, port area, military camps, etc. Pair 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The change in the population of a given area between two points in time is known as population growth.

Phase-I (1901-1921): This period is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of growth of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low, even recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were high. Statement 1 is correct.

Phase-II (1921-1951): This period is referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to a higher growth rate than the previous phase. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Phase-III (1951-1981): This period is referred to as the period of population explosion, which resulted in a rapid fall in the mortality rate and a high fertility rate of the population in the country. After independence, it was in this period that developmental activities were first introduced through a centralised planning process. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Phase-IV (1981-present): Although the country’s population growth rate has been high since 1981 and up to the present, it has progressively started to slow down. A decline in the crude birth rate is considered to be the cause of this population growth. Third phase is considered as the phase of population explosion and not the fourth phase. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The International Organization for Migration defines a migrant as any person who is moving or has moved across an international border or within a state away from his/her habitual place of residence. It can be either voluntary or forced movements as a consequence of the increased magnitude or frequency of disasters, economic challenges and extreme poverty or conflict situations. There are two sets of factors that influence migration: Push Factors and Pull Factors.

Push factors encourage people to leave their points of origin and settle elsewhere. The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive. some of the common push factors are like: unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic backwardness. Option 1,3,5 is correct.

The Pull factors are factors which make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin. Some of the pull factors are like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property and pleasant climate. Option 2,4 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Urbanisation refers to the process by which an increasing proportion of a country’s population comes to live in urban areas, such as cities and towns, compared to rural areas. It often involves the growth of urban centres and the migration of people from rural to urban areas.

It is true that the urban population in India has been consistently on the rise since 1991, and according to World Bank statistics, this upward trend has been maintained since 1960. Statement 1 is correct.

 India’s level of urbanisation is relatively low when compared to BRICS countries like Brazil (86.6%), South Africa (66.4%), and China (59.2%), as reported in the 2018 World Urbanization Prospects (WUP). Currently, more than one-third of India’s population, which is equivalent to 34%, resides in urban areas. Statement 2 is incorrect.

According to the 2011 census, Goa is now the most urbanised State with 62.2% urban population among states. Among all the States and Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Chandigarh are most urbanized with 97.5% and 97.25% urban population respectively, followed by Daman and Diu (75.2%) and Puducherry (68.3%). Among major states, Tamil Nadu continues to be the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the population living in urban areas followed now by Kerala (47.7%) upstaging Maharashtra (45.2%). On the other hand, states with lower levels of urbanisation included Himachal Pradesh (10%), Bihar (11.3%), Assam (14%), and Odisha (16.7%). Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The Quechua people, often referred to as Quechuan or Quechuan-speaking, are indigenous peoples of the Andean region in South America. 

The Quechua people primarily inhabit the Andean regions of Peru, Ecuador, Bolivia, Colombia, Argentina, and Chile. They have a significant presence in the high-altitude areas of the Andes Mountains. Pair 1 is incorrect.

The Masai, are a well-known indigenous ethnic group residing in East Africa, primarily in Kenya and Tanzania. 

They are renowned for their unique culture, distinctive clothing, and nomadic pastoralist lifestyle. Cattle hold immense cultural and economic significance for the Maasai. Pair 2 is incorrect.

The Māori tribe are the indigenous Polynesian people of New Zealand, a country located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. 

The Māori people have a distinct language called “Te Reo Māori,” which is an official language of New Zealand. Pair 3 is correct.

The Zulu tribe is one of the largest and most well-known ethnic groups in South Africa, known for their rich cultural heritage, history, and martial traditions.

Historically, the Zulu people were cattle herders and farmers, and livestock, particularly cattle, held great cultural and economic importance. Pair 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic development in particular mainly because

• Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
• Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
• Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Population density is the concentration of individuals within a species in a specific geographic locale. Population density data can be used to quantify demographic information and to assess relationships with ecosystems, human health, and infrastructure.

In India, Kerala, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu have a high density is due to fertile land and high amount of precipitation. In these regions, a larger number of people can be provided sustainance per unit of area due to availability of fertile land which can produce more food for a large number of people. Statement 1 is correct.

In Union Territories like Delhi, Chandigarh and Pondicherry high population density is due to job opportunities in industrial and service sectors. Statement 2 is incorrect.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

Like other assets, human capital is not immune to depreciation. This is often measured in wages or the ability to stay in the workforce. The most common ways human capital can depreciate are through unemployment, injury, mental decline, or the inability to keep up with innovation. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Social Capital is defined as the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively. Social Capital leads to Human Capital. Social Capital is a combination of diversity among the people, sense of belongingness, networks and bonding bridges, feelings of trust and safety, reciprocity and participation. All these things create Citizen Power which also helps in building Values, norms and outlook in life. Statement 2 is correct.

Human capital is not visible, nor is its value quantifiable. However, it is crucial to a business’s long-term success. Human capital refers to the skills and expertise that allows the individual to do their task more productively. Examples of Human Capital include: education, experience, and judgement. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

As per Census, a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate. A person, who can only read but cannot write, is not literate. In the Censuses prior to 1991, children below 5 years of age were treated as illiterates. It was decided at 1991 Census that all children in the age group 0-6, would be treated as illiterate by definition and the population aged seven years and above only would be classified as literate or illiterate. The same criterion has been retained in the Censuses of 2001 and 2011. Statement a is correct.

There is neither requirement of any formal education nor of any minimum qualification to be considered as Literate in India. Statement b is incorrect.

There is no change in definition of literacy as per census 2021. According to the definition provided in the Indian census, Literacy is defined as “acquiring the skills of reading, writing with understanding”. Anyone aged 7 or above with the ability to read and write at least in any one language is considered a literate person. Statement c is incorrect.

Where the male literacy increased by 13% between 2001-2011, female literacy increased by almost 35%. Statement d is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Suburbanization is a term used to describe the expansion and geographical reorganization of modern cities. The expansion of the compact city is the outcome of the migration of people, homes, and commercial and industrial activity to new low-density settlements.

Suburbanization describes the migration of people and businesses from city centers to suburbs, leading to the expansion of low-density peripheral areas known as urban sprawl. This contrasts with urbanization, where populations move from rural regions to urban centers. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Suburbanization is typically associated with more economically developed countries, as it is driven by factors like increased prosperity, technological advancements, and a desire for a separation between work and home life. In the early 21st century, developments such as remote work opportunities and improved communication services have further encouraged suburbanization in these more developed nations. This pattern differs from urbanization, where populations shift from rural to urban areas, which is more prevalent in fast-developing nations. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The population density is a crude measure of the relationship between humans and land. The physiological and agricultural densities should be determined in order to have a better understanding of the human-land ratio in terms of the pressure of population on total cultivable land.

The physiological density of population is determined by dividing the total population of a region by its cultivated land area. Physiological density provides the accurate representation of the human pressure on the land. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Agricultural density of population is calculated by dividing the total agricultural population in a particular region by its net cultivable land area. It has proved to be an effective indicator of the human-land relationship, particularly in an agrarian context. Statement 2 is incorrect.

The agricultural population constitutes the cultivators, agricultural labourers, and their families. Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.

In 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups. In 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs. Statement 1 is incorrect.

There is no fixed population number below which only certain tribes would be listed as PVTGs. There are 12 PVTGs having a population above 50,000 and the remaining groups have a population of 1000 or less. The Government of India follows the following criteria for the identification of PVTGs. Statement 2 is incorrect. 

1) Pre-agricultural level of technology

2) Low level of literacy

3) Economic backwardness

4)A declining or stagnant population

In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Xaxa committee was appointed in 2013, under chairmanship of Prof. Virginius Xaxa. The Committee was mandated to examine the socio-economic, educational and health status of tribal communities and recommend appropriate interventional measures to improve the same.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The demographic window of opportunity refers to a period of time in a country’s demographic transition where the proportion of the working-age population is relatively high compared to the dependent population (children and the elderly). During this period, there is a potential for rapid economic growth and development, as the working-age population can support a larger number of dependents and there is a higher ratio of productive workers to non-productive dependents.

Knowledge Base:

Demographic balancing equation is an equation that is used to calculate population changes from one year to the next in a given area, based on number of births, deaths, and migrations. The general form of the equation is a mass balance equation, in which end population = starting population ± natural increase ± net migration, where natural increase = births – deaths, and net migration = immigrants – emigrants. 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Human activities which generate income are known as economic activities. Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary, tertiary activities. Higher services under tertiary activities are again classified into quaternary and quinary activities.

Primary activities, reliant on Earth’s resources, encompass hunting, gathering, fishing, farming, forestry, and mining. Those involved in these tasks are often referred to as red-collar workers because of their outdoor labor-intensive jobs. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Tertiary activities encompass service provision and exchange, including trade, transport, and communication. These are typically associated with white-collar jobs focused on delivering services and facilitating interactions over distances. Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Quaternary activities, a subset of the knowledge sector within tertiary activities, involve specialized services such as financial management, software development, and data analysis. This sector has experienced rapid growth in information-based services like tax consultancy and statistical analysis. Unlike primary sectors, quaternary activities are not resource-dependent, environment-sensitive, or geographically restricted, often open to outsourcing. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Quinary activities involve creating, interpreting, and managing ideas, data, and cutting-edge technologies. Termed ‘gold collar’ professions, they encompass senior executives, government officials, research scientists, and elite consultants. Despite their relatively small numbers, quinary activities hold immense significance in advanced economies, with top decision-makers and policymakers primarily engaged in this sector. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Pink-collar jobs are occupations that are typically held by women and are often associated with service and caregiving. Examples of pink-collar jobs include: Nurses, Teachers, Receptionists, Hairdressers, Beauticians, Waitresses, Childcare workers etc. Pink-collar jobs are often seen as low-paying and unprestigious, and they may not offer the same opportunities for advancement as other types of jobs.

Solution (b)

Context:

• ISRO recently faced a setback in its mission to position the NVS-02 satellite in the desired orbit due to thruster failure, but is working on alternative strategies to utilise the satellite in its current elliptical orbit for the NavIC navigation system. In this context, a question about it can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• NavIC is India’s independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide accurate Position, Velocity, and Timing (PVT) serviceto users in Indiaas well as the region extending about 1500 km beyond the Indian landmass, which is its primary service area. It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The first NavIC satellite was launched in July of 2013. The NavIC system consists of eight satellites, three of them in geostationary orbits and five in inclined geosynchronous orbits, with plans to expand to 12 satellites. Currently, 7 satellites are active. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The system provides positioning accuracy of better than 10 metres (10.9 yards) throughout India and better than 20 m (21.9 yards) for the area surrounding India by 1,500 km (932 miles). NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signals namely GPS, Glonass, Galileo and BeiDou. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, river protection activists announced to start an indefinite satyagraha in front of the residence of Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi if the government did not take steps to control pollution of the Daya River. In this context, a question about the river can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Daya river flows in the Indian state of Odisha. It originates from the Kusabhadra River and flows through the Khurda and Puri districts before emptying into the Chilika Lake, the largest coastal lagoon in India. It supports wetland biodiversity, providing habitat for fish and migratory birds near Chilika Lake. Its length is approximately 37 km. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The Daya River is historically important because of its connection to the Kalinga War (261 BCE), fought between Emperor Ashoka and the Kalinga kingdom. It is believed that after the battle, the river turned red with the blood of slain soldiers. This sight deeply moved Ashoka, leading him to embrace Buddhism and adopt a path of non-violence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella discussed Jevons Paradox, noting that improved efficiency in AI may boost its demand and make it a commodity. In this context, a question can be asked about this concept by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Jevons Paradox is the idea that technological progress that makes a resource cheaper or more efficient to use often leads to an increase in demand for that resource. This refers to a form of induced demand wherein efficiency improvements in the use of a resource causes increased consumption of the resource rather than a decrease in its use. It was proposed by the English economist, William Stanley Jevons, in his 1865 book ‘The Coal Question.’ Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Jevons Paradox states that, in the long term, an increase in efficiency in resource use will generate an increase in resource consumption rather than a decrease. According to this concept, more energy-efficient cars, appliances and light bulbs may fail to reduce our consumption of fossil fuels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• A teenage member of Kanjar nomadic tribe was beaten to death by his fellow tribe members near Chainpur Bazaar in East Champaran district, Bihar, recently. In this context, a question about the tribe can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Kanjar are a nomadic tribe or group of people of North India, Kashmir, and Pakistan. There are about 5,000 Kanjar in Pakistan and considerably more in north India. Unfortunately, there is no accurate demographic or other census information on Kanjar in either nation. Their own language, Kanjari, has affinities with Indo-Aryan Prakrits and Romani. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

They are most concentrated in the fertile and more densely populated areas of the Indus River valley and the Punjab. They were labeled a “criminal tribe” during colonial rule. The tribe was decriminalised after Independence. They own no land or permanent shelters. They survive by traveling from community to community through diverse regions, transporting their physical possessions on mule-drawn carts (rehra) or donkeys. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, the Environment Ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) recommended the R&D proposal i.e., the ERD (extended reach drilling) technology subject to the condition that it will be used purely for research purposes inside the Dibru Saikhowa National Park. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the national park.

Explanation:

Dibru Saikhowa National Park is a National Park as well as a Biosphere Reserve situated in the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in the extreme east of Assam state in India. It is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and Dibru River in the south. It is the largest salix swamp forest in north-eastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winter. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The state govt’s decision to open the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) in Khanapur for a wildlife safari has sparked controversy and is facing backlash from environmentalists. In this context, a question about the location of the wildlife sanctuary can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) spans over the Western Ghats in Belgaum district of the south Indian state Karnataka. It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in December 2011. The sanctuary has been named after the Bhimgad Fort, constructed and commanded by Shivaji in the 17th century as a defence from Portuguese troops. It shares its boundary with the north of Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary, north-west of the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park, north of Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary and east of Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The 2025 annual bird count at Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary recorded an unprecedented surge in waterfowl, with a total of 1,53,719 birds of 97 species, according to officials. In this context, a question about the lake can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Pong Dam Lake (also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar) is a manmade reservoir formed due to the construction of Pong Dam on Beas River in the wetland zone of Shivalik hills in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest man-made wetlands in Northern India. It covers an area of almost 307 sq km. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

It was designated a Ramsar site in 2002. Given the site’s location on the trans-Himalayan flyway, more than 220 bird species have been identified, with 54 species of waterfowl. Avifauna include Bar-headed geese, Pintails, common pochards, coots, Grebes, Cormorants, Herons, Storks, , angle fowls, peafowl, Grey partridges, etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Union Defence Ministry recently signed contracts worth ₹10,147 crore for a variety of ammunition for the Army’s Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the missile system.

Explanation:

• Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch System (MRLS) is a battle-proven, all-weather, indirect area fire Artillery Weapon System. It was developed by DRDO’s Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE). Each launcher carries 12 rockets, and a battery consists of six launchers (72 rockets total). It delivers a variety of warheads, including high-explosive and submunitions. It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops. The quick response and relatively high pointing accuracy of the launcher enable it to deliver a large volume of fire against critical and time-sensitive enemy targets, within a very short time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a three-year extension of tenure for the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK). In this context, a question about NCSK can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was first set up in 1994 under the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993. It was functioning as a statutory body till 2004, when the law lapsed. Since then, the commission has been acting as a non-statutory body under the Social Justice Ministry with its tenure being extended from time to time. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

It was established as an institution to investigate the conditions of Safai Karamcharis (waste collectors) in India and make recommendations to the Government. It has been giving its recommendations to the Government regarding specific programmes for welfare of Safai Karamcharis, study and evaluate the existing welfare programmes for Safai Karamcharis, investigate cases of specific grievances etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Cascade Range is a prominent collection of mountains found in the Pacific Northwest area of the northwestern United States and southwestern Canada. The Cascades are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, the ring of volcanoes and associated mountains around the Pacific Ocean. All of the known historic eruptions in the contiguous United States have been from Cascade volcanoes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Cascade Range was formed by the subduction of the Juan de Fuca Plate beneath the North American Plate, which continues to drive volcanic activity. It is known for its snow-capped peaks, massive glaciers, steep scree slopes, and lush forests. The range is home to 4375 named mountains, the biggest and most visible of which is Mount Rainier 4,392 m. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation

Option (a) is correct. The last sentence of the passage mentions, “Commodification leads to commercialization, attracting private investment.” This can imply that the private sector is interested in investing in the education sector. The first sentence of the passage mentions, “There has been a rapid increase in student enrolment and diversity”. This implies that enrolment and diversity of students are increasing. So, this option is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage. So. this is the correct option. 

Option (b) is incorrect. The first part of the sentence is true as the passage mentions that knowledge is a commodity. But it nowhere mentions that it has impacted learning badly or well. So, this is an incorrect option. 

Option (c) is incorrect. The instrument of mobility mentioned in the passage is education. It has nowhere mentioned that families want education of their children necessarily in private schools or that better mobility can be achieved only from private schools. So, this is an incorrect option. Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “This was, till recently, a middle-class feature, but is now seen across the class spectrum.” Earlier it was a middle-class feature but now all the classes of society whether it is low or high, see education as an instrument of mobility. So, this is an incorrect option.

 Solution (d)

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect. The author tries to convey the loss of wealth sooner than expected because of lack of financial awareness among people, as stated in the passage, “…A major reason for this is a lack of financial awareness. They tend to spend uncontrollably…” Thus, the author does not suggest that wealth can never stay in one hand, rather, it gets lost because of improper spending.

Option (b) is incorrect. The author does agree and also mentions a survey showing that most American lottery winners soon become poor. It is evident from the line, “A survey conducted shows that most American lottery winners have become poor soon (typically within two or three years) after the sudden spike in their wealth. However, the author does not suggest against taking part in the lottery per se. His focus is on efficient management of wealth gained in the lottery, and not on analysing lottery itself. Also, we cannot say that money earned from lottery is ‘inevitably lost’, as the passage mentions that, “…most American lottery winners have become poor soon…”, not all. Hence, this answer option is incorrect. 

Option (c) is incorrect. The author has reflected on some improper spending which includes luxury cars as mentioned in the passage, “…depreciating assets such as luxury cars which not only require huge spending when purchased but also attract higher tax obligations and exorbitant maintenance charges”. However, the mention of luxury cars is just an example to explain the consequences of lack of financial awareness. There is no suggestion to not buy luxury cars. The author would most likely have no issue with a financially aware person buying luxury cars. Thus, the statement in option (c) is not the critical message of the passage. 

Option (d) is correct. Statement (d) perfectly captures the critical message given in the passage. At the start of the passage, the author seems to describe the gain of wealth and becoming rich but not being able to retain the wealth. It is evident from the line, “A survey conducted shows that most American lottery winners have become poor soon (typically within two or three years) after the sudden spike in their wealth.” Further, the author explains the human tendency to spend on luxurious goods and lack of financial awareness to spend wisely, as stated in the passage, “A major reason for this is a lack of financial awareness. They tend to spend uncontrollably on unnecessary lavish lifestyles and depreciating assets…”.

Solution (c)

Explanation

The pattern being followed in the series has been represented below: 

Therefore, wrong term is 283. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer

Solution (d)

Explanation

The given series: -1, 0, 1, 0, 2, 4, 1, 6, 9, 2, 12, 16, 3, ?, ?, ? is composed of three series.

The first number series: -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ?

-1

-1 + 1 = 0

0 + 1 = 1

1 + 1 = 2

2 + 1 = 3

So, next term = 3 + 1 = 4

The second number series: 0, 2, 6, 12, ?

0

0 + 2 = 2

2 + 4 = 6

6 + 6 = 12

So, next term = 12 + 8 = 20

The third number series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

12 = 1

22 = 4

32 = 9

42 = 16

So, next term = 52 = 25

So, ? ? ? = 20, 25, 4

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation

Let E be the event of drawing a card which is not black. 

So, number of favourable outcomes = 3 + 2 = 5 

P(E) = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes = 5/9 

Hence, option (d) is correct.