[DAY 49] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 243 K & Article 243 ZA were inserted to establish a State Election Commission in every state as a constitutional body with powers of ‘superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task was per formed by the State administration which was under the control of the State government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commissioner of India. The State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the State government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. This Commission examines the financial position of the local governments in the State. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

•  Article 243-I and 243-Y have a provision that the State Finance Commission shall recommend the principles governing the distribution between the state and the panchayats and the municipalities of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them. The Commission shall also recommend about the grants to the Panchayats and Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State and measures to improve the financial position of these local bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The recommendations of State Finance Commission are not binding on the state government. However, the Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under Article 243-I and 243-Y together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the legislature of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 76 of the constitution mentions that the Attorney General is the highest law officer of India and he is appointed by the president. As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Some of the major powers and functions of the Election Commission are as follows:
  • To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
  • To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters.
  • To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise nomination papers.
  • To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.
  • To advise the president on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
  • To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.

To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body as it is established under the Article 280. It provides for the scheme of distribution of net tax proceeds collected by the Union government between the Centre and the States. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Finance Commission is constituted every five years and is a body that is exclusively constituted by the Union Government. It consists of a chairman and four other members who are appointed by the President. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, has specified the qualifications for chairman and other members of the commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The share of States from the divisible pool (vertical devolution) stands at 41% as per the recommendation of the 15th Finance Commission. The Union government has notified the constitution of the 16th Finance Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya for making its recommendations for the period of 2026-31. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• CAG is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• CAG holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The CAG submits three audit reports to the President–audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings. The President lays these reports before both the Houses of Parliament. After this, the Public Accounts Committee examines them and reports its findings to the Parliament. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Test explained

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The first backward classes commission was appointed in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar. The second Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1979 with B.P. Mandal as chairman. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The concept of creamy layer was originally introduced in the context of reservation of jobs for certain groups in Indra Sawhney & Others v. Union of India case in 1992. Ram Nandan committee was constituted by the government to identify creamy layer among OBCs in 1993. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Described as the “most important officer in the Constitution of India” by Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. CAG of India or the “Guardian of the Public Purse” is essentially vested with the responsibility of inspecting and auditing all the expenditure and receipts of both the Central and the State Governments as well as of those organizations or bodies which are significantly funded by the government. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

 Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege. Statement 1 is incorrect

The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The PESA Act, 1996 provides that:
  • All the seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the concerned communities.
  • The reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats.
• The PESA Act, 1996 aims to safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The PESA Act, 1996 says that the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for:

• Grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Township is established by the large public enterprises to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant. The port trusts are established in the port areas like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and so on for two purposes: (a) to manage and protect the ports; and (b) to provide civic amenities. Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
•  A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas—a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Twelfth Schedule contains the 18 functional items which are within the purview of municipalities. They are:

1. Urban planning including town planning; 
2. Regulation of land use and construction of buildings; 
3. Planning for economic and social development; (Hence, option 1 is correct.)
4. Roads and bridges; 
5. Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes; 
6. Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management; Hence option 1 is correct.
7. Fire services; 
8. Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects;
9. Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded;
10. Slum improvement and upgradation; 
11. Urban poverty alleviation; Hence option 2 is correct.
12. Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds;
13. Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects; 
14. Burials and burial grounds, cremations and cremation grounds and electric crematoriums;
15. Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals; 
16. Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths; 
17. Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences; and
18. Regulation of slaughter-houses and tanneries. 

• Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry are within the purview of Panchayats under Eleventh Schedule. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Women and child development is within the purview of Panchayats under Eleventh Schedule. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The District Planning Committee (DPC) is a committee established at the district level by Article 243ZD of the Indian Constitution for planning at the district and below levels. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The state legislature may make provisions with respect to the composition of DPC; the manner of election of members of such committees; the functions of such committees in relation to district planning; and the manner of the election of the chairpersons of such committees. The 74th Amendments Act, 1992 lays down that four-fifths (not two-third) of the members of a district planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Every state shall constitute at the district level, a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by both – panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Compulsory Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992):

1. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. 
2. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats. Hence option 1 is correct.
3. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
4. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
5.  Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
6.  21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
7.  Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
8.  Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels. Hence option 2 is correct.
9.  Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
10.  Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

• Voluntary Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992):

1. Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 
2. Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees. 
3. Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.
4. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).

Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Every Union Territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him. The President can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief Commissioner or Administrator. Hence statement (a) is incorrect.
• The President can appoint the Governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. Hence statement (b) is incorrect.
• The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of Parliament for the union territories on subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. Hence statement (c) is correct.
• The Parliament can establish a High Court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of an adjacent state. Hence statement (d) is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Puducherry, Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir are the Union Territories which are having Legislative assemblies. Puducherry has a Legislative Assembly because it is governed by a special constitutional amendment, i.e., the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 which allows it to have its own government. Hence option 3 is correct.

Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Daman, Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and Ladakh do not have their own Legislative Assemblies. They are administered by an Administrator appointed by the President of India. Hence Options 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. Hence option (a) and (c) are incorrect. 
• Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the President so directs. Hence option (b) is incorrect.
• The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. He can also make regulations for peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council. Hence option (d) is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The district councils administer the areas under its jurisdiction. They can make laws on the subject of social customs but it requires assent of the governor to become an act. Also, the District council can make laws on matters related to land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, etc. But all such laws require the assent of the governor. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• According to the sixth schedule of the constitution, the Governor can create a new autonomous district as well as alter boundaries of the autonomous district. The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts and to increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

 The sixth schedule of the constitution empowers the Governor to make rules to provide for the delimitation of territorial constituencies for the purpose of elections to district councils. Also, the governor can make rules to provide for the qualifications for being elected as members of district/regional councils constituted in tribal areas. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The carcass of a green sea turtle washed ashore on Marina beach in Chennai recently. In this context, a question about the green sea turtle can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Green Sea Turtles are the largest hard-shelled sea turtle. They are unique among sea turtles in that they are herbivores, eating mostly seagrasses and algae. This diet is what gives their fat a greenish colour (not their shells), which is where their name comes from. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Green turtles are found throughout the world, mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. These turtles are found nesting along the coastline of more than 80 countries, with the largest nesting populations found in Costa Rica and Australia. Similar to other sea turtles, green sea turtles migrate long distances between their feeding grounds and their nesting sites, with recorded distances longer than 1,615 miles (2,600 km). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

They do not have teeth, but their jaws have modified “beaks” suited to their particular diet. They do not have visible ears but have eardrums covered by skin. They hear best at low frequencies, and their sense of smell is excellent. Their vision underwater is good, but they are nearsighted out of water. They are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The high court recently issued notices to South Western Railway and the Directorate of Survey and Land Records (DSLR) over a PIL challenging acquisition proceedings taking place for land at Bhagwan Mahavir (Mollem) Wildlife Sanctuary. In this context, a question about the sanctuary can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Nestled in the Western Ghats, Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary is located on the eastern border of the state of Goa, near the village of Mollem. Originally known as the Mollem Game Sanctuary, it was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1969 and then renamed the Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

It is also home to the famous Dudhsagar waterfall, the Devil’s Canyon, the Tambdi Surla temple, the Tambdi falls, and a number of other historic and religious sites. The vegetation here includes West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, and moist deciduous forests. The sanctuary is particularly known for its Leopards, Elephants, Deers & Gaur also known as Indian Bison. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India’s epigraphical survey in Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary in Kadapa district has made major findings of three rock shelters and rock paintings along with 30 inscriptions. In this context, a question about the location of the sanctuary can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The Sanctuary forms the catchment for river Pennar. The Telugu ganga canal flows into the eastern flank of the Sanctuary draining into the ‘Pennar river’. The rare and endangered plants like Red sanders and Sandalwood are important species found in this area. It has good representation of species like Common toad, Bullfrog, Common Indian skink, Green vine snake etc.It is the only home and hope for the rare and endangered bird the Jerdons courser. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Amidst the ongoing heavy rain and snowfall in the higher reaches of Himachal Pradesh, the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) opened the spillway gates of the Pandoh Dam recently as a precautionary measure. In this context, the dam becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

Pandoh dam is an embankment Dam that lies in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh. Constructed on Beas River, the primary purpose of Pandoh Dam is hydroelectric power generation. It is a concrete gravity dam, standing 76 meters (249 feet) tall. It was commissioned in 1977 and is located at a distance of 10 km from Manali. Being a part of a run-of-the-river power design, the Pandoh Dam diverts water from Beas to southwest through a channel of tunnels which are 38 km long. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The data from PubMed, a globally recognised database for biomedical and life sciences research, reveals a staggering 376.5% increase in the number of research publications around Giloy (Tinospora cordifolia) over the past decade. In this context, a question about Giloy can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Giloy is known as Amrita in Sanskrit, which translates to the ‘herb of immortality’, because of its abundant beneficial properties. It is a popular herb and has been used in therapeutics for a long time in Ayush systems. It is a large climber with succulent, corky and grooved stems. It is found almost throughout India. It grows well in almost all types of soils and under varying climatic conditions. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

It is commonly used in the management of fevers. It is one of the important herbs for the management of gouty arthritis. The increasing number of clinical studies and laboratory research suggests that Giloy may have a significant role in cancer therapy, autoimmune disease management, and even inflammatory disorders. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, scientists have created a new gene therapy for a debilitating genetic disorder called maple syrup urine disease (MSUD). In this context, a question about it can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MUSD) is a rare genetic disorder characterized by deficiency of an enzyme complex (branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase) that is required to break down (metabolize) the three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) leucine, isoleucine and valine, in the body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A child is born with MSUD when both parents are carriers of the specific gene mutation and pass it on. The loss of this complex prevents the body from properly breaking down several amino acids, eventually leading to neurological symptoms and life-threatening brain damage. The main treatment for MSUD is a low-protein diet with low levels of the three amino acids. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The owners of New Zealand’s White Island volcano that erupted in 2019, killing 22 tourists and local guides, have had the conviction against them overturned by the country’s High Court recently. In this context, a question about the island can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• White Island (also known as Whakaari) is an active composite stratovolcano in the Bay of Plenty, New Zealand. It is currently New Zealand’s most active cone volcano, sitting 48 km off the coast of Whakatāne in the North Island. The cone has been built up by continuous volcanic activity over the past 150,000 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The island covers an area of around 325 hectares, and this is only about 30 percent of the volcano’s mass-the rest is under the sea. It is two kilometres in diameter, and its peak rises 321 m above sea level. The island was sighted and named by Capt. James Cook in 1769. It is owned privately. In 1953 it was declared a private scenic reserve and has been the focus of tourism activities along with geological and ecological science. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) recently sought an action taken report from the district magistrate-cum-collector of Keonjhar on alleged human rights violations of the Juanga tribe, a PVTG in the district. In this context, a question about the tribe can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Juang is one of the 75 particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) in India. They are one of the 13 PVTGs of the total 62 tribes found in Odisha. As per the 2011 census, the Juang population stands at approximately 50,000. They are primarily concentrated in the current districts of Keonjhar and Dhenkanal in Odisha. The Juangs are known for their clan structure and kinship organisations. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The Geological Survey of India (GSI), one of the oldest scientific organizations in the country, is set to celebrate its 175th year of geoscientific legacy. In this context, it becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was set up in 1851 by Sir Thomas Oldham, primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. The main functions of the GSI relate to the creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. It has played a pioneering role in geological mapping, mineral exploration, disaster studies, and geoscientific research, significantly contributing to India’s industrial and economic growth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is headquartered in Kolkata and has six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata. Every state has a state unit. Presently, GSI is an attached office to the Ministry of Mines. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• At least four people died after cyclone Garance struck the French overseas territory of La Reunion recently. In this context, a question about the island can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Reunion Island is a French island in the Western Indian Ocean. It lies about 680 km east of Madagascar and 180 km southwest of Mauritius. It covers an area of 2,511 sq. km. With Mauritius and Rodrigues Islands, they form the Mascarene Archipelago. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The island is entirely volcanic and originates on the ocean floor at a depth of 4,000 meters (13,000 feet). It consists mainly of rugged mountains dissected by torrential rivers. It is home to the highest peak in the Indian Ocean, the Piton des Neiges, and one of the most active volcanoes on the planet, the Piton de la Fournaise. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation

The following line from the passage “We need to take the spirit of critical pedagogy with absolute seriousness” indicates that there is a need to instil the spirit of critical pedagogy to promote the growth of students. However, this answer option, on the contrary, states critical pedagogy as hampering the growth of the students. Hence option (a) is incorrect. 

Option (b) is incorrect. This option goes against the message conveyed in the passage. The passage marks the need to move away from bookish knowledge as evident from the line, “seeing beyond the burden of bookish knowledge, overcoming the dead weight of ready-made facts, definitions and theories.” It emphasises the need to instil critical thinking, rather than memorising and rote learning. Hence option (b) is incorrect. 

Option (c) is correct. The passage revolves around the problems in the prevalent education system and the need to bring reforms in the same “… students are hardly encouraged or trained to see beyond textbooks, … The prevalent pattern of school examinations demands nothing more than the capacity to memorise.” Hence the most logical inference is the need to bring reforms in the same. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Option (d) is incorrect. This option goes against the spirit of the passage, which argues for the facilitation of healthy discussions and developing critical thinking in students. Hence option (d) is incorrect.

Solution (d) 

Explanation

The first line of the passage negates unemployment as the main problem for India. It states that underemployment is the real problem. Hence most of the people are employed (not jobless), but their productivity is low due to underemployment. Hence option (a) is incorrect. 

Option (b) is incorrect. Refer to the lines: “What we have done is to put much of the capital in very selective sectors which are in any case very capital intensive.” We have added capital to these sectors, but it has not helped in the creation of high-productivity jobs. Hence option (b) is incorrect. 

Option (c) is incorrect. The following lines from the passage “And that is where the real challenge of jobs is- creating well-paid high productivity jobs. India is a labour-abundant and capital-scarce country” clearly indicate that there is no shortage of labour, but a lack of high productivity jobs. Hence option (c) is incorrect. 

Option (d) is correct. Refer to the lines: “We have the situation where much of the capital is working with very few workers. And we have a host of workers in agriculture in micro and small enterprises where the capital is hardly present.” There is a lack of capital allocation in the labour-intensive sectors leading to a mismatch between capital and labour. Hence option (d) is correct.

Solution (d)   

Explanation

Using either of the statement alone, we cannot find the ratio of profit as the data about sales and expenditures are given in different statements. 

Combining both the statements, we get: 

Let 4a and 5a be the sales and 3b and 4b be the expenditures of A and B respectively. Ratio of profits = (4a – 3b)/(5a – 4b) 

= [(5a – 4b) – (a –b)]/(5a – 4b) = 1 – [(a – b)/(5a – 4b)] 

(a-b)/(5a-4b) may or may not be positive, depending on whether a>b or a<b. 

So, the ratio of profits may or may not be greater than 1 and hence, which company got a higher profit cannot be determined even using both the statements together. 

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 

Solution (b)  

Explanation

Suppose Anuj buys ‘a’ pen, ‘b’ pencils and ‘c’ notebooks.  

So, 6a + 5b + 3c = 50 

As he has to buy at least 3 items of each kind, Rs. 42 would get spent. 

With the remaining Rs. 8, it is only possible to buy 1 pencil and 1 notebook. Thus, there is only one unique combination in which the items can be bought. Hence, option (b) is the right answer. 

Solution (d)  

Explanation

Actual gain of Raghu = (Amount repaid by Kunal) – (Amount repaid by Raghu) 

= 36000 [1 + (20/100)]2 – 36000 [1 + (2×10/100)]  

= 36000 (1.44 – 1.2) 

= Rs. 8640 

Had Kunal repaid at the end of three years, the gain for Raghu would have been 

= 36000 [1 + (20/100)]3– 36000 [1 + (3×10/100)]  

= 36000 (1.728 – 1.3) 

= Rs. 15408 

Extra gain for Raghu = 15408 – 8640 = Rs. 6768 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.