[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• In ecology, a community refers to all the populations of different species that live and interact within a particular area. Communities can be classified as major or minor based on their size, complexity, and relative independence.
• A tropical rainforest is considered a major community because it is a large, self-sustaining ecosystem characterized by high biodiversity and complex interactions among organisms. It includes multiple trophic levels and a wide variety of species, both flora and fauna. The tropical rainforest functions relatively independently, with its own nutrient cycles and energy flows. (Statement 1 is correct)
• A grassland ecosystem is also a major community. It spans large areas and includes diverse species of grasses, herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers. Grasslands have their own climatic conditions and ecological processes, making them self-regulating and relatively independent ecosystems. (Statement 2 is correct)

A decaying log in a forest represents a minor community or micro-community. While it hosts a variety of organisms like fungi, insects, and microorganisms, it is not large or complex enough to be considered a major community. It depends on the larger forest ecosystem for its existence and does not function independently. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Decomposers are organisms that break down dead or decaying organisms, carrying out the natural process of decomposition. They play a crucial role in nutrient cycling by converting organic materials back into simpler forms that plants and other organisms can use. The most common decomposers are fungi and bacteria.
• Fungi, including mushrooms, molds, and yeasts, are one of the primary groups of decomposers. They break down organic matter by releasing enzymes that digest complex molecules into simpler compounds, which are then absorbed by the fungi and other organisms in the ecosystem.
• Bacteria are microscopic organisms that play a vital role in decomposition. They break down organic materials, particularly in soil and aquatic ecosystems, contributing to nutrient cycling. Decomposing bacteria can decompose almost any kind of organic matter. (Option (a) is correct)
• Snails are not true decomposers. They are detritivores, which means they consume detritus (decomposing organic matter). While they contribute to the breakdown of organic matter, they do not chemically decompose it like fungi and bacteria do. They are primary consumers rather than decomposers.
• Similar to snails, beetles such as dung beetles and carcass beetles are detritivores. They help in breaking down dead plant and animal matter by consuming it, but they are not decomposers in the strict sense of converting organic matter into simpler chemical forms.
• Algae are primarily producers, not decomposers. They use sunlight to produce food through photosynthesis. While some algae can contribute to organic matter in aquatic ecosystems when they die, they are not involved in the decomposition process like fungi and bacteria.  

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Solar energy is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems, driving photosynthesis in plants, which is the foundation of productivity in ecosystems. The more solar energy available, the higher the potential for photosynthesis and, hence, primary productivity. Ecosystems in tropical regions with abundant sunlight tend to have higher productivity. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Nutrient availability is a crucial factor that affects the growth and productivity of plants and other organisms in an ecosystem. Essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are necessary for plant growth. Ecosystems with rich soil nutrients, such as wetlands and mangroves, show higher productivity. In contrast, nutrient-poor environments like deserts or open oceans have lower productivity. (Statement 2 is correct)

Temperature influences the metabolic rates of organisms and the rate of biochemical processes, including photosynthesis and respiration. Optimal temperatures support higher productivity, while extreme temperatures (either too high or too low) can reduce metabolic activities, leading to lower productivity. For instance, tropical ecosystems with warm temperatures tend to be more productive than polar ecosystems. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Ecosystem services are the benefits that humans derive from nature. These services are generally classified into four categories: provisioning, regulating, cultural, and supporting services. Cultural ecosystem services refer to the non-material benefits that people obtain from ecosystems.
• The aesthetic value of ecosystems refers to the beauty and visual appeal of nature, landscapes, and wildlife. These contribute to human well-being by providing inspiration, a sense of peace, and a connection to the environment. This is a core part of the cultural aspect of ecosystem services. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Fuel is part of the provisioning services of ecosystems, not the cultural aspect. Provisioning services include tangible products obtained from ecosystems, such as food, water, fuel, timber, and medicinal resources. While ecosystems do provide fuel resources, this does not fall under the cultural category of ecosystem services. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

Recreational services are a key part of the cultural aspect of ecosystem services. Natural ecosystems provide opportunities for outdoor activities such as hiking, bird watching, swimming, and ecotourism. These activities contribute to physical and mental well-being and foster a sense of connection with nature. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Ecological succession is the process through which the structure of a biological community evolves over time. It refers to the gradual and predictable changes in the species composition and ecosystem structure after disturbances or the formation of a new habitat. Succession can be primary (starting from a barren area, such as after volcanic eruptions) or secondary (starting from an area where life previously existed, such as after forest fires). (Option (a) is correct)
• Carrying capacity refers to the maximum population size of a species that an environment can sustain indefinitely, given the available resources such as food, water, and shelter. While this concept is crucial for population ecology, it does not describe the gradual change in species composition over time.
• A trophic level refers to the position an organism occupies in a food chain, such as producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and so on. It does not relate to changes in species composition over time, but rather to the feeding relationships and energy flow within an ecosystem.
• Biomagnification refers to the increasing concentration of toxic substances (such as pesticides or heavy metals) in organisms at successive trophic levels of a food chain. While this concept is important for understanding pollution and ecosystem health, it does not describe changes in species composition over time.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Endemism refers to species that are native to a particular region and found nowhere else in the world. It is not related to the edge effect.
• Keystone species are species that have a disproportionately large effect on their ecosystem relative to their abundance. Removing a keystone species can cause significant changes to the ecosystem structure and composition. While important for ecosystem dynamics, this concept does not directly relate to the edge effect.
• Ecotone is the transition zone between two different ecosystems or habitats, such as a forest and a grassland. The edge effect occurs in these zones and refers to the greater diversity of species and ecological interactions found at the boundary compared to the adjoining ecosystems. The reason for this increased diversity is that species from both neighbouring ecosystems coexist and interact, leading to higher biodiversity. The boundary between a forest and grassland can serve as an ecotone, where species from both habitats coexist. (Option (c) is correct)
• Ecological succession refers to the process of gradual change in the species composition of an ecosystem over time, usually following a disturbance or the creation of a new habitat.  

 Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Habitat refers to the natural environment in which a specific species lives and grows. It includes all the biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) factors that affect the species. A habitat can vary in size and is species-specific.
• A biotope is an area of uniform environmental conditions that provides a living space for a specific assemblage of plants and animals. It is often used in ecological studies to refer to an area that supports a particular community of organisms with relatively stable conditions. The concept of a biotope focuses on the homogeneity of the environment and the species it supports. (Option (b) is correct)
• An ecophene refers to the phenotypic variation of a species due to environmental factors, rather than genetic differences. Ecophene describes the changes in the appearance or behavior of organisms in response to different environments but does not refer to a specific area with uniform conditions like a biotope.
• An ecotope is the smallest ecologically distinct unit of a landscape. It is a spatial unit with homogeneous environmental conditions, but it is more focused on the physical and structural aspects of the environment, rather than providing a specific living space for a defined community like a biotope. An ecotope can include both biotic and abiotic components, but it does not necessarily imply a particular community of plants and animals.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• This sequence follows the correct order of a terrestrial food chain:
  • Grass (Producer): The grass represents the primary producer that uses photosynthesis to create energy.
  • Grasshopper (Primary Consumer): Grasshoppers are herbivores, consuming the grass for energy. They are primary consumers.
  • Frog (Secondary Consumer): Frogs eat grasshoppers and are secondary consumers.
  • Snake (Tertiary Consumer): Snakes eat frogs and represent tertiary consumers, often at the top of this food chain. (Option (a) is correct)

olution (b)

Explanation:

• Excessive herbivory (overgrazing by animals) and wind erosion can impact desert ecosystems, but they are not the primary reasons that large plants fail to replace smaller shrubs and cacti.
• Water scarcity is the primary limiting factor in desert ecosystems, making it difficult for large plants to establish deep roots and thrive. Additionally, temperature extremes, such as very high daytime temperatures and cold nights, further restrict the growth of larger plants. Small shrubs and cacti are well-adapted to these conditions with mechanisms like water storage and reduced leaf area to minimize water loss. (Option (b) is correct)
• While soil acidity and heavy metal contamination can affect plant growth, they are not typical issues in desert ecosystems. Desert soils are more often characterized by alkalinity rather than acidity, and contamination by heavy metals is not a primary factor limiting plant size or species replacement in deserts. Water availability and temperature remain the key constraints.
• Mosses and lichens are often found in extreme environments, including deserts, but they do not compete with larger plants for resources. Instead, these organisms tend to grow on surfaces like rocks and do not inhibit the growth of shrubs and cacti. The limiting factors for large plant growth in deserts are primarily water and temperature, not competition from mosses and lichens.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• A pyramid of biomass shows the total biomass (mass of living matter) present at each trophic level of a food chain at a given point in time. It illustrates the amount of energy and matter available at each level to support the organisms at the next level. (Statement 1 is correct)
• In terrestrial ecosystems, the biomass pyramid is typically upright because producers (plants) have the greatest biomass. As energy is transferred through herbivores and carnivores, the biomass decreases due to energy loss in metabolic processes and as heat. (Statement 2 is correct)
• In marine ecosystems, the biomass pyramid is often inverted. This is because the biomass of producers (phytoplankton) is much smaller than the biomass of primary consumers (zooplankton and fish), even though phytoplankton reproduce very rapidly and can support large populations of consumers. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution: (c)

Explanation: 

• PARIVESH (Proactive and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub) serves as a Single-Window Integrated Environmental Management System. This portal is in consonance with the ‘Digital India’ initiative of the Government of India and a step in the direction of ensuring the principle of „Minimum Government and Maximum Governance.‟ 
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The PARIVESH portal was developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) with technical support from the National Informatics Centre, (NIC). It is a web based, role-based workflow application which has been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities. 
• It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow.

Solution: (a)

Explanation: 

• A food chain represents the sequential transfer of matter and energy in the form of food from one organism to another. It consistently begins with producers and concludes with the apex predator. Two primary types of food chains exist: The Grazing Food Chain and the Detritus Food Chain.

• Statement 1 is correct- The Grazing Food Chain starts with living producers (plants). However, the Detritus food chain begins with the decomposition of dead organic matter by microorganisms, including bacteria and fungi.
• Statement 2 is incorrect- In aquatic ecosystems, the Grazing Food Chain serves as the primary pathway for energy flow. In contrast, in terrestrial ecosystems, a significantly greater proportion of energy flows through the detritus food chain compared to the Grazing Food Chain.

Solution: (a)

Explanation: 

• Succession is when one community of plants and animals replaces another in an ecosystem. During succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s).
• Statement 1 is correct. The pioneer species are those species which initiate the development of an ecological community in an area with currently no life form’s existence. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
• Statement 2 is correct. Pioneer species can tolerate and trade through most of the prevailing harsh environmental conditions.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. In a climax community (not in pioneer community), the plants and animals are in balance with each other and their environment. A climax community refers to a stable ecosystem in its final stage of ecological succession. The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged.

 Solution: (c)

Statement Analysis: 

• A primary pollutant is a pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere.
• Option 1 is correct: Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary pollutant. PANs are also referred to as Acyl Peroxy Nitrates or APN. They are a component of photochemical smog, produced in the atmosphere when oxidized volatile organic compounds combine with nitrogen dioxide.
• Option 2 is correct: Secondary Organic Aerosols are formed through the oxidation and subsequent condensation of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the atmosphere. It contributes to the formation of fine particulate matter.
• Option 3 is correct: Tropospheric Ozone is a secondary pollutant. It is formed when hydrocarbons (HC) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) combine in the presence of sunlight.
• Option 4 is incorrect: Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT) is a primary pollutant. DDT is considered a primary pollutant. It is a persistent organic pollutant that can bioaccumulate in the food chain and have harmful effects on both wildlife and humans

Option 5 is correct: Formaldehyde is formed through the oxidation of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the atmosphere. Formaldehyde is a known air pollutant and can have adverse health effects.

 Solution: (c)

Statement Analysis: 

• • Noise pollution, also known as environmental noise or sound pollution, is any unwanted or disturbing sound that has a harmful impact on the activity of human or animal life.

• Statement 1 is correct: Noise can interfere with the ability of animals to produce and perceive acoustic signals, such as vocalizations, echolocation, or sonar. This can affect their social interactions, territorial defense, mating, and predator avoidance. For example, Whales and dolphins are particularly impacted by noise pollution. These marine mammals rely on echolocation to communicate, navigate, feed, and find mates, and excess noise interferes with their ability to effectively echolocate.

• Statement 2 is correct: Various research have pointed out that noise pollution can affect dissemination and germination of seedlings eg. Noise pollution from the gas wells disrupted seedling dissemination and germination of the pinyon pine and the juniper. This was most likely due to the noise driving away the scrub jay, which disperses the seeds of the former tree species, and small mammals that disperses the seeds of the latter.
• Statement 3 is correct: Noise can induce physiological and behavioral stress responses in animals, such as increased heart rate, blood pressure, cortisol levels, and flight or avoidance reactions. Chronic exposure to noise can impair the immune system, reduce growth and reproduction, and increase the risk of disease and mortality.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Albinism refers to genetic conditions in which the body makes little or no melanin, a pigment that determines skin, hair, and eye colour. It is an inherited disorder and Noise pollution does not lead to the development of Albinism.
• Rather, Noise pollution generally causes Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL). Exposure to loud noise can also cause high blood pressure, heart disease, sleep disturbances, and stress.

Solution: (b)

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021. The CAQM has replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which was appointed by the SC and had been active for 22 years. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas is not constituted under the Environment protection Act, 1986

• Statement 2 is correct. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021 defines “adjoining areas” as the areas in the States of Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, adjoining the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the National Capital Region, where any source of pollution is located, causing adverse impact on air quality in the National Capital Region.
• Statement 3 is correct. It is entrusted with the responsibility of laying down parameters for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources that have implications on air quality in the National Capital Region.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Lichens are actually a combination of algae (or cyanobacteria) and fungi, not bacteria and fungi. In this symbiotic relationship, the fungus provides structure, protection, and moisture retention, while the algae (or cyanobacteria) perform photosynthesis, producing nutrients for both organisms. The relationship between the two is mutually beneficial. Algae and fungi are the most common partners in lichen formation, not bacteria. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• Lichens are a classic example of symbiosis—a close and long-term interaction between two different biological species. In the case of lichens, the fungus and the algae (or cyanobacteria) live together, each benefiting from the relationship. The algae provide food through photosynthesis, and the fungus offers protection and structure, making it a perfect example of symbiosis. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Lichens are typically found in terrestrial environments, such as on rocks, tree bark, and soil, especially in areas with clean air. They thrive in diverse environments ranging from arid deserts to Arctic tundra but are not commonly found in rivers or groundwater. Lichens are sensitive to pollution, making them good bioindicators of air quality. Their habitats are typically above ground and rarely aquatic. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants. It resides in root nodules of these plants and converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can absorb and utilize (ammonia), thus enriching the soil. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Cyanobacteria (formerly called blue-green algae) are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen. They are found in various environments, including water and soils, and play a crucial role in enriching ecosystems with nitrogen. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Mycorrhiza refers to a symbiotic association between fungi and plant roots. While mycorrhizae help plants absorb water and nutrients (such as phosphorus), they do not fix atmospheric nitrogen. They enhance nutrient uptake but rely on nitrogen sources already present in the soil. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
• Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in soils. Unlike Rhizobium, it does not require a symbiotic relationship with plants and can fix nitrogen independently. It plays a significant role in improving soil fertility by converting atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form. (Statement 4 is correct)

 Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Pteridophytes (such as ferns) have true roots, stems, and leaves, whereas bryophytes (such as mosses and liverworts) lack true roots. Instead, bryophytes have rhizoids, which are root-like structures, but these do not absorb nutrients and water the same way true roots do. The presence of true roots is a significant difference between the two groups. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Pteridophytes have a well-developed vascular system (xylem and phloem) for transporting water, nutrients, and food throughout the plant. Bryophytes, on the other hand, lack vascular tissues, which limits their size and ability to transport water and nutrients over long distances. This is one of the key differences between the two plant groups. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The environment where bryophytes and pteridophytes thrive is also a distinguishing factor. Bryophytes are generally found in moist, shaded environments because they require water for reproduction (sperm must swim to the egg), and they lack vascular tissues to store and transport water. Pteridophytes, with their vascular system, can survive in a wider range of environments, including drier conditions, although they are still dependent on water for reproduction. (Statement 3 is correct)

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• One of the defining characteristics of angiosperms is their ability to produce seeds enclosed within a fruit. The fruit provides protection for the developing seeds and also aids in dispersal by animals, wind, or water. This characteristic reflects the analogy of seeds being like “vaults,” as they safeguard the plant’s genetic material for the next generation. (Option (a) is correct)
• While it is true that angiosperms are the only group of plants that produce flowers, this characteristic is more associated with the reproductive process and pollination rather than the analogy of seeds functioning as vaults. Flowers play a critical role in attracting pollinators and promoting genetic diversity, but they are not directly responsible for seed protection. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• Vascularization is an important characteristic of angiosperms, allowing for efficient transport of water, nutrients, and food. However, this feature relates to the overall growth and development of the plant, rather than the specific role of seeds in protection and dispersal, which is the focus of the analogy. (Option (c) is incorrect)
• Although angiosperms are highly adaptable and have come to dominate many terrestrial ecosystems, this adaptability is not directly related to the function of seeds in protecting and dispersing genetic material. This option refers to their evolutionary success rather than the specific function of seeds. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The New Development Bank (NDB), originally established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa), aims to support infrastructure and sustainable development projects.
• NDB’s membership has expanded beyond BRICS to include countries like Bangladesh, the UAE, Egypt, and Uruguay, and it funds projects in these countries as well—hence, its operations are not exclusive to BRICS members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• NDB actively supports de-dollarization by issuing local currency bonds (such as masala bonds in India and yuan bonds in China), reducing reliance on the US dollar and mitigating foreign exchange risks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• NDB provides both sovereign loans (to governments) and non-sovereign loans (to private or sub-sovereign entities), which broadens its development financing scope. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• Kaziranga National Park is located entirely in the state of Assam, not Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Kaziranga’s ecosystem includes a mix of tropical moist mixed deciduous forests, semi-evergreen forests, alluvial grasslands, and wetlands/marshes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Kaziranga has been designated as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by BirdLife International due to its rich bird biodiversity, including many globally threatened species. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

The Challenger 150 Initiative is a global program aimed at advancing deep-sea scientific research and understanding marine ecosystems. Hence option b is correct.

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• Aurangzeb reimposed the Jizya tax in 1679, which had been abolished by Akbar. It was seen as a discriminatory tax on non-Muslims. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• He issued a farman in 1669 ordering the demolition of prominent Hindu temples, including the Kashi Vishwanath (Varanasi) and Keshavdev Temple (Mathura). Hence statement 2 is correct.

He executed Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru, for opposing forced religious conversions. This event galvanized the Sikh community’s armed resistance under Guru Gobind Singh. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Fatawa-e-Alamgiri was a compilation of Islamic laws commissioned by Aurangzeb to guide judicial and administrative decisions. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Peshwa: Handled overall administration, akin to a Prime Minister.
• Amatya: Managed state finances and economic planning.
• Sacheev: Was the Secretary, responsible for preparing royal edicts.
• Nyayadhyaksha: Oversaw the judicial system as Chief Justice.
• Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• HRA was founded in 1924 by Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and others. Bhagat Singh joined later and helped transform it into HSRA (Hindustan Socialist Republican Association) in 1928. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• In prison, Bhagat Singh read extensively on Marxism, socialism, and revolution, shaping his ideological stance. Hence statement 2 is correct.

“Inquilab Zindabad” was popularized by Bhagat Singh as a rallying revolutionary slogan. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• World TB Day is observed on 24th March to mark the day in 1882 when Dr. Robert Koch announced the discovery of the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which causes TB. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• His discovery was a turning point in diagnosing and controlling the disease.
• The theme “Yes! We Can End TB” was used for World TB Day 2025. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• World TB Day aims to highlight the global health, social, and economic consequences of TB. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• This is the core objective of World TB Day — to raise awareness about the health burden, social stigma, and economic impact of tuberculosis globally. 

It also emphasizes efforts toward eliminating TB as part of UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The In-House Inquiry Mechanism is not based on constitutional provisions but was established through Supreme Court reSolutions in 1999. It serves as an internal mechanism to address allegations against judges that do not warrant impeachment. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The Constitutional Impeachment process requires a two-thirds majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha for the removal of a judge. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The In-House Inquiry Mechanism does not have the authority to remove a judge from office. It can recommend measures such as advice, warning, or request for resignation or retirement, but the actual removal requires the impeachment process. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• IORA was officially established on 7th March 1997. The idea originated during Nelson Mandela’s 1995 visit to India, which led to the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and subsequently the formation of IOR-ARC, later renamed IORA. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• While most members are from Asia and Africa, IORA also includes countries from Oceania, such as Australia. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The main aim of IORA is indeed to promote economic cooperation and regional integration, particularly in areas such as trade, investment, maritime security, disaster risk management, and sustainable development in the Indian Ocean region. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is correct as it is based on the following lines “Over-the counter access to antibiotics, without prescription, and direct marketing of drugs to farmers are common.” These lines show that the availability of drugs to farmers is not regulated which results in inappropriate and unregulated use of drugs leading to cases of AMR.  

Assumption 2 is incorrect: The context of AMR in birds is not discussed in the passage. The passage only mentions how animals in general are impacted by AMR. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect: The context of increasing farmer’s income and its relationship with the treatment of AMR in animals is not covered in the passage. The passage mainly focuses on the reasons for the development of AMR in animals.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The given option could be a rational inference. However, it is not the best implication of the passage, because the central theme of the passage is the diverse reasons for rising cases of AMR among animals and what can be done about it, not its repercussions related to livestock productivity.  

Option (c) is correct: The given option is correct as highlighted in the lines “Awareness of antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is low and antimicrobial stewardship in livestock is yet to be developed”. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The context of adequate administrative laws and viral diseases has not been covered in the passage.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Let the marked price be Rs. 100.

Regular discount = 15%,

Price after first discount = Rs. 85

Case (i): When festive season discount = 10%

Selling price = 85 × 0.9 = Rs. 76.5.

On selling at Rs. 76.5 there is a profit of 8.49%

So, Cost price = [76.5/(100 + 8.49)] × 100 = Rs. 70.5

Case (ii): When festive season discount = 7%

Selling price = 85 × 0.93 = Rs. 79.05

So, required profit percentage = [(79.05 – 70.5)/70.5] × 100 = 12.12%

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Let the cost of a pen, an eraser and a sharpener be represented by p, e and s respectively.

According to the question,

2p + e + 3s = 23 ………(1)

6p + 3e + s = 45 ……….(2)

14p + 7e + 21s = 161 …….(3)

Here, on observing equations 1 and 3, we can conclude that they are the same. Equation (3) is 7 times that of equation (1).

So, we have three variables but only two equations. Hence, we cannot determine the value of all the three variables. Though using equations (1) and (2) we can determine the value of s, but not that of p and e. Thus option

(d) is correct.