IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) A new study published in the journal Cell (May 2026) identified that people who are ‘mosquito magnets‘ produce high levels of which substance on their skin, primarily produced by skin microbiota?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The study published in Cell (May 2026) found that individuals who are more attractive to mosquitoes produce high levels of carboxylic acids on their skin, which are produced by skin microbiota (natural bacteria living on human skin). These levels remain stable over time.
- The study used nylon stockings on participants‘ arms to capture skin odour, and mosquitoes consistently swarmed toward high-carboxylic acid samples. Other attraction factors include body heat and carbon dioxide (CO₂).
- Female mosquitoes need a blood meal to obtain protein for egg development; male mosquitoes feed only on nectar and do not bite. India’s vector control programmes include the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) and the National Malaria Elimination Programme (target 2030).
Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this carboxylic acid fact.
Why this question?
Tests the primary attractant (carboxylic acids) – a direct Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Vector-borne diseases and mosquito behaviour appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The study published in Cell (May 2026) found that individuals who are more attractive to mosquitoes produce high levels of carboxylic acids on their skin, which are produced by skin microbiota (natural bacteria living on human skin). These levels remain stable over time.
- The study used nylon stockings on participants‘ arms to capture skin odour, and mosquitoes consistently swarmed toward high-carboxylic acid samples. Other attraction factors include body heat and carbon dioxide (CO₂).
- Female mosquitoes need a blood meal to obtain protein for egg development; male mosquitoes feed only on nectar and do not bite. India’s vector control programmes include the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) and the National Malaria Elimination Programme (target 2030).
Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this carboxylic acid fact.
Why this question?
Tests the primary attractant (carboxylic acids) – a direct Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Vector-borne diseases and mosquito behaviour appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2026 trend). -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) Assertion (A): PD-1 inhibitors, a class of cancer immunotherapy, can make the blood-brain barrier (BBB) more permeable by prompting immune cells to produce a protein called DKK1, which disrupts cells that maintain blood vessel stability.
Reason (R): This explains why some patients develop brain metastases during treatment and also suggests a new way to improve drug delivery to the brain by allowing chemotherapy drugs like cisplatin to enter the brain.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Q.2) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Both A and R are true, and R explains the double-edged role of PD-1 inhibitors.- Assertion A is true: The study published in Cancer Discovery (May 2026) by Yuval Shaked‘s team found that PD-1 inhibitors (immune checkpoint inhibitors) prompt immune cells to produce a protein called DKK1. DKK1 disrupts cells that maintain blood vessel stability, leading to a leaky blood-brain barrier (BBB) , observed only with anti-PD-1, not with other immune checkpoint inhibitors.
- Reason R is true: This double-edged role means:
- Negative effect: May allow circulating cancer cells to enter the brain, explaining why some patients develop brain metastases during treatment.
- Positive effect: Allows chemotherapy drugs (e.g., cisplatin ) to enter the brain, improving drug delivery for brain metastases.
- Clinical implication: Higher levels of plasma DKK1 are linked to greater brain metastases and shorter progression-free survival, serving as a potential biomarker.
Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this dual role concept.
Why this question?
Tests the double-edged role of PD-1 inhibitors on BBB – a current medical research fact.Why important for UPSC?
Cancer immunotherapy and medical research appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2026).Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Both A and R are true, and R explains the double-edged role of PD-1 inhibitors.- Assertion A is true: The study published in Cancer Discovery (May 2026) by Yuval Shaked‘s team found that PD-1 inhibitors (immune checkpoint inhibitors) prompt immune cells to produce a protein called DKK1. DKK1 disrupts cells that maintain blood vessel stability, leading to a leaky blood-brain barrier (BBB) , observed only with anti-PD-1, not with other immune checkpoint inhibitors.
- Reason R is true: This double-edged role means:
- Negative effect: May allow circulating cancer cells to enter the brain, explaining why some patients develop brain metastases during treatment.
- Positive effect: Allows chemotherapy drugs (e.g., cisplatin ) to enter the brain, improving drug delivery for brain metastases.
- Clinical implication: Higher levels of plasma DKK1 are linked to greater brain metastases and shorter progression-free survival, serving as a potential biomarker.
Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this dual role concept.
Why this question?
Tests the double-edged role of PD-1 inhibitors on BBB – a current medical research fact.Why important for UPSC?
Cancer immunotherapy and medical research appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2026). -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding India‘s water crisis (as of May 2026):
- India supports 18% of the world’s population but has access to only 4% of global freshwater resources.
- Over 600 million people live in “high to extreme” water stress conditions, and India ranks 120th out of 122 countries on the Global Water Quality Index.
- The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) has been extended until 2028 to provide tap water to all rural homes, focusing on last-mile connectivity.
- The Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABY) is a community-led groundwater management project funded by the World Bank, implemented in over-exploited blocks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All four statements are correct.- Statement 1: India supports 18% of the world‘s population but has access to only 4% of global freshwater resources. Per capita available water has dropped to roughly 1,100–1,400 cubic meters per year, below the international water stress threshold of 1,700 m³.
- Statement 2: Over 600 million people live in “high to extreme“ water stress conditions. Approximately 342 million people lack access to safe drinking water. India ranks 120th out of 122 countries on the Global Water Quality Index, and about 70% of water supply is contaminated.
- Statement 3: The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) has been extended until 2028 to provide tap water to all rural homes, focusing on last-mile connectivity.
- Statement 4: The Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABY) is a World Bank-funded, community-led groundwater management project implemented in over-exploited blocks.
Other initiatives: Namami Gange Programme (Ganga basin rejuvenation), Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) (micro-irrigation promotion), and the Composite Water Management Index (NITI Aayog benchmarking state performance). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this comprehensive water status.
Why this question?
Tests the comprehensive water crisis data – a high-priority Environment and Geography topic.Why important for UPSC?
Water resources and government schemes appear in Geography, Environment, and Governance (Prelims 2024, 2026).Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All four statements are correct.- Statement 1: India supports 18% of the world‘s population but has access to only 4% of global freshwater resources. Per capita available water has dropped to roughly 1,100–1,400 cubic meters per year, below the international water stress threshold of 1,700 m³.
- Statement 2: Over 600 million people live in “high to extreme“ water stress conditions. Approximately 342 million people lack access to safe drinking water. India ranks 120th out of 122 countries on the Global Water Quality Index, and about 70% of water supply is contaminated.
- Statement 3: The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) has been extended until 2028 to provide tap water to all rural homes, focusing on last-mile connectivity.
- Statement 4: The Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABY) is a World Bank-funded, community-led groundwater management project implemented in over-exploited blocks.
Other initiatives: Namami Gange Programme (Ganga basin rejuvenation), Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) (micro-irrigation promotion), and the Composite Water Management Index (NITI Aayog benchmarking state performance). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this comprehensive water status.
Why this question?
Tests the comprehensive water crisis data – a high-priority Environment and Geography topic.Why important for UPSC?
Water resources and government schemes appear in Geography, Environment, and Governance (Prelims 2024, 2026). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding India‘s fertiliser subsidy regime and the proposed reform:
- India has no potash reserves and very little natural gas (feedstock for urea), making it heavily dependent on imports for all major fertilisers.
- Currently, only about one-third of nitrogen in urea is absorbed by plants; the rest is lost through volatilisation or leaching.
- The proposed reform suggests replacing product-wise subsidy with a per-acre direct income support payment (e.g., ₹5,000 per acre) using savings from fertiliser subsidies and PM-Kisan.
- The West Asia crisis and Strait of Hormuz closure have disrupted up to 80% of global fertiliser trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: India has no potash reserves and very little natural gas (feedstock for urea). It also lacks domestic rock phosphate (for DAP) and elemental sulphur reserves, making it heavily dependent on imports for all major fertilisers and raw materials.
- Statement 2 is correct: Only about one-third of nitrogen in urea is absorbed by plants; the rest is lost through volatilisation (as ammonia gas) or leaching underground. Overuse of urea and DAP has caused severe soil nutrient imbalances, deficiency of sulphur and zinc, and declining organic matter.
- Statement 3 is correct: The proposed reform is to free or raise retail fertiliser prices to import parity levels, replace product-wise subsidy with a per-acre payment (e.g., ₹5,000 per acre) for all cultivating farmers, and redirect money from fertiliser subsidy savings and PM-Kisan into direct income support. This would remove price distortion, encourage balanced nutrient use, and reduce fiscal burden.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Strait of Hormuz closure has disrupted up to 30% of global fertiliser trade (not 80%). The current crisis is a supply shock, not just a price shock.
The fertiliser subsidy bill is already over ₹1.5 lakh crore annually. The West Asia crisis provides political cover for long-pending reforms. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this 30% figure.
Why this question?
Tests the specific percentage of fertiliser trade disruption (30%) – a factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Fertiliser policy, subsidy reform, and food security appear in Economy and Agriculture (Prelims 2026).Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: India has no potash reserves and very little natural gas (feedstock for urea). It also lacks domestic rock phosphate (for DAP) and elemental sulphur reserves, making it heavily dependent on imports for all major fertilisers and raw materials.
- Statement 2 is correct: Only about one-third of nitrogen in urea is absorbed by plants; the rest is lost through volatilisation (as ammonia gas) or leaching underground. Overuse of urea and DAP has caused severe soil nutrient imbalances, deficiency of sulphur and zinc, and declining organic matter.
- Statement 3 is correct: The proposed reform is to free or raise retail fertiliser prices to import parity levels, replace product-wise subsidy with a per-acre payment (e.g., ₹5,000 per acre) for all cultivating farmers, and redirect money from fertiliser subsidy savings and PM-Kisan into direct income support. This would remove price distortion, encourage balanced nutrient use, and reduce fiscal burden.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Strait of Hormuz closure has disrupted up to 30% of global fertiliser trade (not 80%). The current crisis is a supply shock, not just a price shock.
The fertiliser subsidy bill is already over ₹1.5 lakh crore annually. The West Asia crisis provides political cover for long-pending reforms. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this 30% figure.
Why this question?
Tests the specific percentage of fertiliser trade disruption (30%) – a factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Fertiliser policy, subsidy reform, and food security appear in Economy and Agriculture (Prelims 2026). -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements:
- The principle of Reciprocity in Indian diplomacy means that India expects reciprocal backing from trusted partners during times of threat (e.g., UAE‘s support on Kashmir).
- The Gujral Doctrine (1996-98) advocated unilateral goodwill towards neighbours without expecting reciprocity.
- India’s strategic flexibility is demonstrated by its simultaneous engagement with both BRICS and Quad forums.
- Panchsheel (1954) is the five principles of peaceful coexistence: mutual respect for territorial integrity, non-aggression, non-interference, equality, and peaceful coexistence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All four statements are correct.- Statement 1: The principle of Reciprocity in Indian diplomacy means India expects reciprocal backing from trusted partners; e.g., UAE’s support on Kashmir and cross-border terrorism.
- Statement 2: The Gujral Doctrine (1996-98, when I.K. Gujral was External Affairs Minister and later PM) advocated unilateral goodwill towards neighbours without expecting reciprocity (unlike the reciprocity principle).
- Statement 3: Strategic Flexibility means India engages with both BRICS and Quad forums, pursuing pragmatic interests without rigid ideological alignment, avoiding “vacuous ideological slogans”.
- Statement 4: Panchsheel (1954) is the five principles of peaceful coexistence agreed between India and China: mutual respect for territorial integrity, non-aggression, non-interference, equality, and peaceful coexistence.
The five principles of India‘s diplomacy (Reciprocity, Diversification, Strategic Flexibility, Strategic Expansion, Domestic Renewal) are distinct from Panchsheel and Gujral Doctrine. Option (d) is correct. UPSC tests this distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the distinction between reciprocity, Gujral Doctrine (unilateral goodwill), and Panchsheel – a high-level IR conceptual question.Why important for UPSC?
Principles of Indian foreign policy appear in IR (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All four statements are correct.- Statement 1: The principle of Reciprocity in Indian diplomacy means India expects reciprocal backing from trusted partners; e.g., UAE’s support on Kashmir and cross-border terrorism.
- Statement 2: The Gujral Doctrine (1996-98, when I.K. Gujral was External Affairs Minister and later PM) advocated unilateral goodwill towards neighbours without expecting reciprocity (unlike the reciprocity principle).
- Statement 3: Strategic Flexibility means India engages with both BRICS and Quad forums, pursuing pragmatic interests without rigid ideological alignment, avoiding “vacuous ideological slogans”.
- Statement 4: Panchsheel (1954) is the five principles of peaceful coexistence agreed between India and China: mutual respect for territorial integrity, non-aggression, non-interference, equality, and peaceful coexistence.
The five principles of India‘s diplomacy (Reciprocity, Diversification, Strategic Flexibility, Strategic Expansion, Domestic Renewal) are distinct from Panchsheel and Gujral Doctrine. Option (d) is correct. UPSC tests this distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the distinction between reciprocity, Gujral Doctrine (unilateral goodwill), and Panchsheel – a high-level IR conceptual question.Why important for UPSC?
Principles of Indian foreign policy appear in IR (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).
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