IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) The Somnath Temple in Gujarat, which will mark 75 years of its reopening on May 11, 2026, holds a special place as the first among the 12 Jyotirlingas. Which of the following statements about the temple‘s history is correct?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
The Somnath Temple, located at Prabhas Patan, Gujarat, is indeed built in the Kailash Mahameru Prasad architectural style and has a 150-ft Shikhar (tower) with a 10-tonne Kalash and 1,666 gold-plated Kalash.- Option (a) is incorrect – Ahilyabai Holkar lived in the 18th century (not 12th century). The 12th-century rebuilding was done by King Kumarapala.
- Option (b) is incorrect – The temple was consecrated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (first President of India) on May 11, 1951. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel resolved to rebuild the temple in 1947 but did not consecrate it personally.
- Option (d) is incorrect – The Somnath Trust employs 363 women (not over 1,000), earning ₹9 crore annually.
The temple commemorates 1,000 years since the first recorded attack by Mahmud of Ghazni in 1026 CE (Somnath Swabhiman Parv). PM Modi will visit the temple on May 11, 2026, marking 75 years of reopening. UPSC tests this consecration fact.
Why this question?
Tests the consecration by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (not Sardar Patel) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Indian temple architecture and history appear in Art & Culture and Modern History (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
The Somnath Temple, located at Prabhas Patan, Gujarat, is indeed built in the Kailash Mahameru Prasad architectural style and has a 150-ft Shikhar (tower) with a 10-tonne Kalash and 1,666 gold-plated Kalash.- Option (a) is incorrect – Ahilyabai Holkar lived in the 18th century (not 12th century). The 12th-century rebuilding was done by King Kumarapala.
- Option (b) is incorrect – The temple was consecrated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (first President of India) on May 11, 1951. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel resolved to rebuild the temple in 1947 but did not consecrate it personally.
- Option (d) is incorrect – The Somnath Trust employs 363 women (not over 1,000), earning ₹9 crore annually.
The temple commemorates 1,000 years since the first recorded attack by Mahmud of Ghazni in 1026 CE (Somnath Swabhiman Parv). PM Modi will visit the temple on May 11, 2026, marking 75 years of reopening. UPSC tests this consecration fact.
Why this question?
Tests the consecration by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (not Sardar Patel) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Indian temple architecture and history appear in Art & Culture and Modern History (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022). -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) India‘s first indigenous glide weapon system, TARA (Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation), successfully tested by DRDO and IAF on May 7, 2026, is primarily designed to:
Correct
Q.2) Solution (b)
Explanation:
The TARA (Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation) is India‘s first indigenous glide weapon system developed by DRDO‘s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad. Its primary function is to convert legacy unguided warheads into precision-guided weapons by adding a modular range extension kit. It is a cost-effective solution to enhance the lethality and accuracy of existing low-cost weapons to neutralise ground-based targets. Production has already commenced under the Development cum Production Partners (DcPP) model. Option (b) is correct. UPSC tests this conversion capability.Why this question?
Tests the core function of TARA (converting unguided to precision-guided) – a current Defence and Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Indigenous defence technology and DRDO appear in Defence and Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (b)
Explanation:
The TARA (Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation) is India‘s first indigenous glide weapon system developed by DRDO‘s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad. Its primary function is to convert legacy unguided warheads into precision-guided weapons by adding a modular range extension kit. It is a cost-effective solution to enhance the lethality and accuracy of existing low-cost weapons to neutralise ground-based targets. Production has already commenced under the Development cum Production Partners (DcPP) model. Option (b) is correct. UPSC tests this conversion capability.Why this question?
Tests the core function of TARA (converting unguided to precision-guided) – a current Defence and Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Indigenous defence technology and DRDO appear in Defence and Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend). -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) Match the following features related to Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) and CPGRAMS with their correct descriptions:
List I (Feature) List II (Description) A. GRAI developed by 1. Maximum timeline for grievance resolution B. CPGRAMS developed by 2. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) C. CPGRAMS resolution timeline 3. 11 indicators across 4 dimensions D. Number of indicators in GRAI 4. DARPG Select the correct code:
Correct
Q.3) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- GRAI (A-2): Developed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
- CPGRAMS (B-4): CPGRAMS (Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System) is an online platform available 24×7, also developed by DARPG.
- CPGRAMS resolution timeline (C-1): Under August 2024 guidelines, grievances are to be resolved within a maximum of 21 days (reduced from 30 days); the average disposal time in January 2026 was 14 days.
- Number of indicators in GRAI (D-3): GRAI uses 11 indicators across four dimensions: Efficiency, Feedback, Domain, and Organisational Commitment.
In March 2026 rankings, the Department of Financial Services’ Insurance Division topped Group A (500+ grievances). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this mapping.
Why this question?
Tests the developing agency (DARPG) and the 21-day timeline – a high-probability static and current Polity/Governance matching question.Why important for UPSC?
Public grievance redressal mechanisms appear in Polity and Governance (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024).Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- GRAI (A-2): Developed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
- CPGRAMS (B-4): CPGRAMS (Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System) is an online platform available 24×7, also developed by DARPG.
- CPGRAMS resolution timeline (C-1): Under August 2024 guidelines, grievances are to be resolved within a maximum of 21 days (reduced from 30 days); the average disposal time in January 2026 was 14 days.
- Number of indicators in GRAI (D-3): GRAI uses 11 indicators across four dimensions: Efficiency, Feedback, Domain, and Organisational Commitment.
In March 2026 rankings, the Department of Financial Services’ Insurance Division topped Group A (500+ grievances). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this mapping.
Why this question?
Tests the developing agency (DARPG) and the 21-day timeline – a high-probability static and current Polity/Governance matching question.Why important for UPSC?
Public grievance redressal mechanisms appear in Polity and Governance (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) and the National Innovations on Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) programme:
- The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) serves as an expert body providing knowledge inputs for dry-land and rainfed agriculture management.
- Under the Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) component, the government has set a target of bringing 100 lakh hectares under micro-irrigation over 2025-26 to 2029-30.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) serves as an expert body providing knowledge inputs for systematic upgradation and management of dry-land and rainfed agriculture.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under PDMC, the target is to bring 100 lakh hectares under micro-irrigation over 2025-26 to 2029-30 (requiring annual coverage of at least 20 lakh hectares).
NICRA has conducted vulnerability assessment across 651 agricultural districts; 310 districts were identified as highly or very highly vulnerable (not all 651).
Cumulatively, 25.79 crore Soil Health Cards were generated up to February 2026. A NITI Aayog evaluation (2025) found that 68.5% of surveyed farmers reported significant improvement in soil health.
NMSA is implemented through Rainfed Area Development (RAD) , PDMC, and Soil Health Management (SHM). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this 310 vs 651 distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the number of highly vulnerable districts (310 out of 651) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Climate-resilient agriculture and government schemes appear in Agriculture and Environment (Prelims 2024, 2026).Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) serves as an expert body providing knowledge inputs for systematic upgradation and management of dry-land and rainfed agriculture.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under PDMC, the target is to bring 100 lakh hectares under micro-irrigation over 2025-26 to 2029-30 (requiring annual coverage of at least 20 lakh hectares).
NICRA has conducted vulnerability assessment across 651 agricultural districts; 310 districts were identified as highly or very highly vulnerable (not all 651).
Cumulatively, 25.79 crore Soil Health Cards were generated up to February 2026. A NITI Aayog evaluation (2025) found that 68.5% of surveyed farmers reported significant improvement in soil health.
NMSA is implemented through Rainfed Area Development (RAD) , PDMC, and Soil Health Management (SHM). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this 310 vs 651 distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the number of highly vulnerable districts (310 out of 651) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Climate-resilient agriculture and government schemes appear in Agriculture and Environment (Prelims 2024, 2026). -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in education in India as per UNESCO’s frameworks and India’s policy initiatives:
- UNESCO‘s AI Competency Framework for Students is built around four core competencies: Human-centred mindset, Ethics of AI, AI techniques and applications, and AI system design.
- India will introduce AI and Computational Thinking (CT) education from Class 3 onwards from 2026-27, aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) 2023.
- UNESCO’s Beijing Consensus (2019) recommends that AI should replace teachers to ensure consistent, high-quality instruction across all schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: UNESCO‘s AI Competency Framework for Students (2024) includes four core competencies: Human-centred mindset, Ethics of AI, AI techniques and applications, and AI system design.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of Education will introduce AI and Computational Thinking (CT) education from Class 3 onwards from 2026-27, aligned with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: UNESCO‘s Beijing Consensus (2019) recommends that AI should empower teachers, not replace them, and that the ethical use of educational data should be ensured.
India faces challenges including infrastructure deficits, teacher upskilling (over one crore educators need reskilling), and data privacy concerns. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this teacher-empowerment principle.
Why this question?
Tests the principle that AI should empower teachers, not replace them – a common misconception.Why important for UPSC?
AI in education and NEP 2020 appear in Governance, Social Justice, and Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: UNESCO‘s AI Competency Framework for Students (2024) includes four core competencies: Human-centred mindset, Ethics of AI, AI techniques and applications, and AI system design.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of Education will introduce AI and Computational Thinking (CT) education from Class 3 onwards from 2026-27, aligned with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: UNESCO‘s Beijing Consensus (2019) recommends that AI should empower teachers, not replace them, and that the ethical use of educational data should be ensured.
India faces challenges including infrastructure deficits, teacher upskilling (over one crore educators need reskilling), and data privacy concerns. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this teacher-empowerment principle.
Why this question?
Tests the principle that AI should empower teachers, not replace them – a common misconception.Why important for UPSC?
AI in education and NEP 2020 appear in Governance, Social Justice, and Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).
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