IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) The Union Cabinet has approved the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 to increase the number of Supreme Court judges (excluding the Chief Justice of India) from 33 to:
Correct
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Cabinet approved the amendment on May 5, 2026 to increase the strength of Supreme Court judges (excluding CJI) from 33 to 37 – an increase of 4 judges.
- The total strength including the CJI would be 38 (37 + 1).
- The last increase was in 2019 (30 to 33). The original strength in 1950 was 7 (excluding CJI), fixed by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. Article 124(1) of the Constitution empowers Parliament to prescribe the number of judges.
- The expenditure on salaries and facilities will be met from the Consolidated Fund of India. The Bill will be introduced in Parliament.
Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this numerical fact.
Why this question?
Tests the proposed increase in Supreme Court judge strength – a current Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
Judicial reforms and Supreme Court composition appear in Polity (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024, 2026).Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Cabinet approved the amendment on May 5, 2026 to increase the strength of Supreme Court judges (excluding CJI) from 33 to 37 – an increase of 4 judges.
- The total strength including the CJI would be 38 (37 + 1).
- The last increase was in 2019 (30 to 33). The original strength in 1950 was 7 (excluding CJI), fixed by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. Article 124(1) of the Constitution empowers Parliament to prescribe the number of judges.
- The expenditure on salaries and facilities will be met from the Consolidated Fund of India. The Bill will be introduced in Parliament.
Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this numerical fact.
Why this question?
Tests the proposed increase in Supreme Court judge strength – a current Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
Judicial reforms and Supreme Court composition appear in Polity (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024, 2026). -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) The amendment approved by the Union Cabinet on May 5, 2026, adds Vande Mataram (National Song) to which existing Act to make its insult or obstruction a punishable offence?
Correct
Q.2) Solution (b)
- Explanation:
The Union Cabinet on May 5, 2026 cleared an amendment to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 to make insult or obstruction to the singing of Vande Mataram (National Song) a punishable offence. - The Act already covered insults to the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana), National Flag, and the Constitution of India.
- Punishment is imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both. Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (published in Anandamath, 1882) and was first sung at the 1896 Indian National Congress session in Kolkata.
- On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly declared that Vande Mataram shall have equal status with Jana Gana Mana.
Option (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this Act name.
Why this question?
Tests the name of the Act being amended – a direct Polity and Art & Culture fact.Why important for UPSC?
National symbols and related laws appear in Polity and Art & Culture (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (b)
- Explanation:
The Union Cabinet on May 5, 2026 cleared an amendment to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 to make insult or obstruction to the singing of Vande Mataram (National Song) a punishable offence. - The Act already covered insults to the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana), National Flag, and the Constitution of India.
- Punishment is imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both. Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (published in Anandamath, 1882) and was first sung at the 1896 Indian National Congress session in Kolkata.
- On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly declared that Vande Mataram shall have equal status with Jana Gana Mana.
Option (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this Act name.
Why this question?
Tests the name of the Act being amended – a direct Polity and Art & Culture fact.Why important for UPSC?
National symbols and related laws appear in Polity and Art & Culture (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022). -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the depreciation of the Indian rupee (currently around ₹95/$) as of May 2026:
- The rupee has fallen since the beginning of the year, continuing a weakening trend from 2025.
- The widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) is driven primarily by higher crude oil prices (Brent ~$113/barrel) and India’s 85-90% import dependence for crude.
- Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) outflows have been negligible this year, with net inflows of $21.2 billion supporting the rupee.
- The RBI’s ability to defend the rupee is constrained as using foreign exchange reserves to intervene is finite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The rupee has fallen since the beginning of 2026, hitting record lows near ₹95/$ and continuing the weakening trend from 2025.
- Statement 2 is correct: The widening CAD is largely driven by high crude oil prices (~$113-$125/barrel) and India’s 85-90% import dependence.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: FPI outflows have been significant (or substantial), not negligible, with reports indicating heavy selling (over ₹1.9 lakh crore+ or $21.2 billion in net outflows in some reports, rather than inflows) and foreign investors pulling money out.
- Statement 4 is correct: The RBI’s ability to defend the rupee is constrained because foreign exchange reserves used to manage volatility are finite. UPSC tests this FPI outflow direction.
Why this question?
Tests the magnitude of FPI outflows ($21.2 billion) – a common reversal trap (students may assume inflows).Why important for UPSC?
Exchange rate dynamics and balance of payments appear in Economy (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024, 2026).Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The rupee has fallen since the beginning of 2026, hitting record lows near ₹95/$ and continuing the weakening trend from 2025.
- Statement 2 is correct: The widening CAD is largely driven by high crude oil prices (~$113-$125/barrel) and India’s 85-90% import dependence.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: FPI outflows have been significant (or substantial), not negligible, with reports indicating heavy selling (over ₹1.9 lakh crore+ or $21.2 billion in net outflows in some reports, rather than inflows) and foreign investors pulling money out.
- Statement 4 is correct: The RBI’s ability to defend the rupee is constrained because foreign exchange reserves used to manage volatility are finite. UPSC tests this FPI outflow direction.
Why this question?
Tests the magnitude of FPI outflows ($21.2 billion) – a common reversal trap (students may assume inflows).Why important for UPSC?
Exchange rate dynamics and balance of payments appear in Economy (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024, 2026). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Assertion (A): A team from Google has identified that ionising radiation (cosmic rays, environmental particles) disrupts qubits by causing quantum decoherence, limiting the scalability of quantum computers.
Reason (R): Quantum decoherence causes qubits to lose their quantum state (superposition) due to environmental disturbances, and radiation-induced errors occur unpredictably, making fault-tolerant quantum computing difficult even at near-zero temperatures.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Both A and R are true, and R explains why radiation poses a scalability challenge.- Quantum computers use qubits that can exist in superposition (0 and 1 simultaneously).
- Quantum decoherence is the loss of this quantum state due to interactions with the environment.
- Google’s research found that ionising radiation (cosmic rays, environmental radioactive particles) causes decoherence within milliseconds.
- Even highly controlled systems at near-zero temperatures remain vulnerable.
- These errors occur unpredictably, limiting reliability for long computations.
- This is a major bottleneck in achieving fault-tolerant quantum computers. The findings were published in a study by Google. UPSC tests this decoherence mechanism.
Why this question?
Tests the cause of quantum decoherence (radiation) – a key challenge in quantum computing.Why important for UPSC?
Emerging technologies and quantum computing appear in Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Both A and R are true, and R explains why radiation poses a scalability challenge.- Quantum computers use qubits that can exist in superposition (0 and 1 simultaneously).
- Quantum decoherence is the loss of this quantum state due to interactions with the environment.
- Google’s research found that ionising radiation (cosmic rays, environmental radioactive particles) causes decoherence within milliseconds.
- Even highly controlled systems at near-zero temperatures remain vulnerable.
- These errors occur unpredictably, limiting reliability for long computations.
- This is a major bottleneck in achieving fault-tolerant quantum computers. The findings were published in a study by Google. UPSC tests this decoherence mechanism.
Why this question?
Tests the cause of quantum decoherence (radiation) – a key challenge in quantum computing.Why important for UPSC?
Emerging technologies and quantum computing appear in Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend). -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the concept of ‘Ecocide’ and its legal status under international law:
- The term ‘ecocide’ was coined in 1970 by biologist Arthur W. Galston to describe the devastation caused by Agent Orange during the Vietnam War.
- The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) currently lists five international crimes, including ecocide alongside genocide and war crimes.
- The Council of Europe adopted the first-ever international treaty criminalizing severe environmental destruction (comparable to ecocide) in 2025.
- Small island nations like Vanuatu are among the lead proponents pushing for ecocide to be added as the ‘fifth crime’ to the Rome Statute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The term was coined by Arthur W. Galston in 1970.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rome Statute (1998) currently lists four international crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and aggression. Ecocide is not yet a standalone crime. Environmental damage is prosecutable only during war (under ‘war crimes’).
- Statement 3 is correct: The Council of Europe in 2025 adopted the first international treaty criminalizing severe environmental destruction (comparable to ecocide).
- Statement 4 is correct: Small island nations like Vanuatu (vulnerable to climate change) and several EU countries are pushing for ecocide to be added as the “fifth crime”. Inclusion requires a 2/3 majority vote in the Assembly of States Parties. About 13 countries (e.g., Vietnam, France, Russia, Chile) have domestic laws against ecocide. UPSC tests the current number of Rome Statute crimes (four).
Why this question?
Tests the current inclusion status of ecocide in the Rome Statute (not included, still four crimes) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
International law, ICC, and environmental crimes appear in IR and Environment (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The term was coined by Arthur W. Galston in 1970.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rome Statute (1998) currently lists four international crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and aggression. Ecocide is not yet a standalone crime. Environmental damage is prosecutable only during war (under ‘war crimes’).
- Statement 3 is correct: The Council of Europe in 2025 adopted the first international treaty criminalizing severe environmental destruction (comparable to ecocide).
- Statement 4 is correct: Small island nations like Vanuatu (vulnerable to climate change) and several EU countries are pushing for ecocide to be added as the “fifth crime”. Inclusion requires a 2/3 majority vote in the Assembly of States Parties. About 13 countries (e.g., Vietnam, France, Russia, Chile) have domestic laws against ecocide. UPSC tests the current number of Rome Statute crimes (four).
Why this question?
Tests the current inclusion status of ecocide in the Rome Statute (not included, still four crimes) – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
International law, ICC, and environmental crimes appear in IR and Environment (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).
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