[DAY 1] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Liberty means freedom for the people to choose their way of life. However, liberty does not mean freedom to do anything. A person can do anything only within the limits set by the law.
• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. It means ‘All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family and no one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.’ Therefore, in the absence of fraternity among people,liberty may produce the supremacy of the few over the many. Hence, option a is correct.
• Fraternity requires more than just equality, such as empathy, solidarity, and a sense of community. In addition, equality can sometimes be difficult to achieve and may not always be prioritized by individuals or institutions. Therefore, promoting fraternity requires a concerted effort from all members of society, not just a focus on achieving equality.Hence, option b is incorrect.
• Fraternity is a feeling of an emotional attachment to the country and its people. It, therefore, helps promote dignity and unity in the nation. Hence, option c is incorrect.
• Liberty, equality and fraternity cannot be divorced from each other. The liberty of individuals and equality between them is crucial for fraternity.Hence, option d is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Freedom, is defined as the state of being free to enjoy political, social, and civil liberties.
• Freedom is the basic requirement of humans, but when the said freedom affects others and can cause harm. However, freedom is not absolute and the constitution imposes certain restrictions on freedom. For example, Article 19(2) imposes restrictions on Freedom of speech and expression.  Hence, option a is incorrect.
• Freedom is not enjoyed by thosewho are in prison or under detention. Hence, b is incorrect.
• Freedom is the power to decide one’s actions and the state of being free from restraintsor confinement. A person can be regarded as free if he/she isn’t challenged by outside controls or coercion and is capable of making impartial selections and acting in a self-sustaining manner. Hence, option c is correct
• Freedom is referred to as “free will.” However, even if an individual has free will or freedom, he is still bound to conform to religious and ethical doctrines because he is accountable for all his actions.Hence, option d is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

• The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitutions of various other countries as well as from the Government of India Act of 1935.
• The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
• Features borrowed from the Government of India Act 1935 include the Federal Scheme, Office of Governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions, and administrative details. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy) derives their inspiration from the American and Irish ConstitutionsHence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The term “sovereignty” implies that India is a sovereign state, not a dependency or dominion of another country. It has no higher authority than itself and is free to manage its own affairs (both internal and external).Thus this statement is part of sovereignty concept and not democratic or republic Hence, option a is incorrect.
• It is not necessary that a largest party will form the government in a democracy.Rather in the era of coalition politics there is a possibility of forming the government by minor parties.Further in presidential form of republic and democracy the president can be directly elected rather than by a pool of representatives Hence, option b is incorrect.
• There can be a written constitution even in a monarchy or a dictatorship.For example Hitler ruled Germany with a written constitution.Hence, option c is incorrect.
• In a republic, the main focus is on the constitution.In a democracy, the main focus is the general will of the people.  In India both the constitution and the will of the people (as represented by its elected individuals are ensured). Hence, option d is correct.

Solution (b)

 Explanation:

• In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution but opined that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. However, later in n the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity–to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. A republic means, the vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• A constitution is the supreme rule book of the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It describes the main institutions of the state, defines the relationship between these institutions (for example, between the executive, legislature, and judiciary) and also places limits on the exercise of power, and sets out the rights and duties of citizens. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It sets out the fundamental principles by which the state is governed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The nature of the amendmentdetermines whether a constitution is rigid or flexible.
• In a rigid constitution, the provisions for the amendment of the constitutional laws and ordinary laws are separate while in a flexible constitution, both constitutional and ordinary laws can be amended in a similar manner. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
• The U.S. Constitution is rigid, as an amendment requires supermajorities at both the proposal and ratification stages (the most common method of amendment is proposal by a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress followed by ratification by three-fourths of the states).
• The United Kingdom’s constitution is flexible, because any of its constitutional institutions and rules can be abrogated or modified by an act of Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The term “Territory of India” refers to both the Statesand the Union Territories, as well as any new territories that India may acquire. Hence, option a is incorrect.
• The Federation of the USAwas a political agreement between the different independent states where states can separate anytime while the federation of India is an indestructible Union of States. Hence, option b is incorrect.
• Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a broader expression than the ‘Union of India,’ because the latter includes only states, whereas the former includes not only states, but also union territories and territories that the Government of India may acquire at any time in the future. Hence, option c is correct.
• The Federation of India is not the result of a political agreement between the different independent states as the federation of the USA. Hence, option d is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The philosophy underlying the Indian Constitution was embodied in the Objectives Resolution which was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted after considerable debate and deliberation in the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
• The objectives resolution read as follows -:
• This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as the Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution; (Socialist was not included) hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• WHEREIN the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States, and such other parts of India as are outside British India and the States as well as such other territories as are willing to be constituted into Independent Sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all.
• WHEREIN the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous Units, together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of government and administration, save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union, or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting therefrom;
• WHEREIN all power and authority of Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and organs of government, are derived from the people;
• WHEREIN shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social economic and political: equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• WHEREIN adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• WHEREBY shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea, and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and

This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Federalism is a form of government in which the two levels of government share control of the same region.
• Features of a Federal system:

1. Dual form of government
2. Division of powers between central and federal units

• rigid constitution

1. An Independent judiciary
2. Dual citizenship
3. Bicameralism

• Hence option b is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The term ‘Justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms– social, economic, and political. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Social justicedenotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based on caste, color, race, religion, sex, and so on. It means the absence of privileges being extended to any particular section of society, and improvement in the conditions of backward classes (SCs, STs, and OBCs) and women. Hence statement  2 is correct
• Economic justicedenotes the non-discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors. It involves the elimination of glaring inequalities in wealth, income, and property. It means equitable distribution of wealth and not equal.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Political justice implies that all citizens should have equal political rights, equal access to all political offices, and equal voice in the government.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. It means ‘All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family.

No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.’

The citizens need to internalize the principles of equality, justice, and liberty to promote fraternity among all, regardless of religious beliefs, and regional and local diversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Part -II (Citizenship) of the Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by providing for a system of single citizenship enshrined in ‘Article 9’. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of commonality.
• The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) while the word fraternity was present in the original constitution. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Kesavananda Bharati case brought the Basic structure doctrine into the limelight. It held that the “basic structure of the Indian Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”.
• The judgment listed some basic structures of the constitution:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution
2. Unity and sovereignty of India
3. Democratic and republican forms of government
4. Federal character of the Constitution
5. Secular character of the Constitution
6. Separation of power
7. Individual freedom

Over time, many other features have also been added to this list of basic structural features. Some of them are:

• Rule of law Indira Nehru Gandhi case  (1975) (popularly known as the Election Case).Hence statement 2 is Incorrect
• Judicial review
• Parliamentary system
• Rule of equality
• Harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Free and fair elections
• Limited power of the parliament to amend the Constitution
• Power of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 142 and 147
• Power of the High Court under Articles 226 and 227

• Any law or amendment that violates these principles can be struck down by the Supreme Court on the grounds that they distort the basic structure of the Constitution.
• In India, the meaning of rule of law has been expanded. It is regarded as a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, it cannot be abrogated or destroyed even by Parliament. The Supreme Court added ‘Rule of Law’ to the list of basic features of the constitution in the ‘Indra Sawhney and Union of India case (1992)’. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• In India, socialism is a political movement that began in the early twentieth century as part of a larger struggle to free the country from colonial authority. However, the term socialism was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
• There are different ideas of thought in Socialism.
• Indian Socialism is a blend of “Gandhian Socialism’ and ‘Marxist Socialism’. The goal of socialism here is to ensure that production meets the needs and desires of its public and that distribution is fair and equitable.
• The main aim of both Gandhiji’s and Karl Marx’s ideologies was to establish a classless and stateless society. They resorted to different ways to achieve it. Marx took the violent path to achieve this aim, but Gandhiji believed that non-violence could be a weapon to end this problem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• After independence, the Government of India (GOI) adopted planned economic development for the country. The nationalizationof Banks was in accordance with the national policy of adopting the socialistic pattern of society. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Gandhiji had a firm faith in democracy. His suggestion was to decentralize the power. He supported the state’s welfare and was against autocracy or dictatorship. On the other hand, Marxists believed in the ideology of Dictatorship of the Proletariat . Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950.
• It succeeded the Federal court of India established under Government of India Act, 1935. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

However, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is greater than that of its predecessor. This is because, the Supreme Court has replaced the British Privy Council which is the highest court of appeal after the commencement of the Indian constitution in 1950. Hence statement 2 is  correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773. This act resulted in dual control of British possessions in India by the British government and the Company with the final authority resting with the government.
• It established a system of Double Governmentin which the Court of Directors managed the commercial affairs and the Board of Control was created to manage the political affairs.
• The features of this Act were as follows:
• It distinguished between the commercial and political functionsof the Company.
• It allowed the Court of Directorsto manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called the Board of    Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.
• It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.

• Thus, the act was significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British Government was given supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administrationin India. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IVof the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• DPSP mentions the provisions for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief in ‘Article 42’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• DPSP mentions the provisions that promote the voluntary formation of cooperative societies in ‘Article 42 A’. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• The expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 is different from the expression ‘due process of law’ contained in the American Constitution.
• The procedure established by law means a law that is duly enacted by the legislature is valid if it has followed the correct procedure. If Parliament passes a law, then the life or personal liberty of a person can be taken off according to the provisions and procedures of that law.
• On the other hand, the ‘due process of law’, a doctrine not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also sees if the law made is fair, just, and not arbitrary. This doctrine provides for fairer treatment of individual rights.
• In the Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21. The protection under Article 21 is available only. But, in the Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21 and introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of the nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.
• Unlike the parliamentary system of the Indian Constitution, the American Constitution provides for the presidential form of government. Some of the differences between the features of the parliamentary system in India and the presidential system of America are:
• The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Presence of dual executive in the Indian parliamentary system. Whereas, the American President is both the head of the State and the head of government i.e Single executive. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In the Indian parliamentary system, the political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. Whereas, in presidential system of America the President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years.
• The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. Whereas, in the American presidential system, the President cannot dissolve the House of Representatives—the lower house of Congress.
• The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. Whereas the presidential system provides a stable government as the President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of Indian parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. Whereas, the doctrine of separation of powers is the basis of the American presidential system. The legislative, executive and judicial powers of the government are separated and vested in the three independent organs of the government. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies. Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.
• The introduction of universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was a bold experiment and highly remarkable in view of the vast size of the country, its huge population, high poverty, social inequality and overwhelming illiteracy.
• Universal adult franchise makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Though it upholds democracy but it does not ensure a responsible government. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – The Financial Services Institutions Bureau will select the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies. The FSIB will have the clear mandate to issue guidelines and select general managers and directors of state-run non-life insurers, general insurers and Financial Institutions.
• Statement 2 – FSIB will be the single entity for making recommendations for appointments of WTD (Whole-time Director) and NEC (Non-executive Chairman) in Public Sector Banks, India Private Limited company and Financial Institutions.
• Statement 3 – The FSIB will comprise a chairperson nominated by the central government; the secretaries of the departments of financial services and public enterprises; the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India; and a deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Apart from them, there will be three members with knowledge of banks and other financial institutions, and three more with knowledge of insurance, according to the order.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – It aims to digitally upskill 10 lakh youth by on promoting entrepreneurship amongst tribal communities of the country and opening up opportunities for them using digital technology.
• Statement 2 – Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the 2nd Phase of the Going Online as Leaders Programme (GOAL) programme. The programme is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Meta (FaceBook)

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The gene transcription factor MADS27, which regulates nitrate absorption, root development and stress tolerance, is activated by the micro-RNA, miR444, therefore offering a new way to control these properties of the plant.
• This ‘miR444’ can be used to increase nitrate absorption, enhance root development and help the plant to tolerate more stress.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – The index does not cover programs and schemes implemented by other ministries and departments under the NFSA.
• The Index denotes only the efficiency of TPDS operations, it does not reflect the level of hunger, if any or malnutrition, or both, in a particular state or union territory, the report clarified.
• Statement 2 – Odisha has topped the ranking of states for implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), followed by Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh in the index released by the Ministry of Food and Consumer Affairs.
• Among the special category states (the North Eastern states, Himalayan states, and the Island states), Tripura has obtained the first rank. Himachal Pradesh and Sikkim are at the second and third positions

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest and highest-energy particle collider.
• It was built by the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) between 1998 and 2008 in collaboration with over 10,000 scientists and hundreds of universities and laboratories, as well as more than 100 countries
• Statement 2 – The LHC’s goal is to allow physicists to test the predictions of different theories of particle physics, including measuring the properties of the Higgs boson searching for the large family of new particles predicted by super symmetric theories, and other unresolved questions in particle physics.
• Statement 3 – The LHC primarily collides proton beams, but it can also accelerate beams of heavy ions: lead–lead collisions and proton–lead collisions are typically performed for one month a year.
• The collider has four crossing points where the accelerated particles collide. Seven detectors, each designed to detect different phenomena, are positioned around the crossing points.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Prime numbers between 1 and 1111 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,…

There is no other prime no. ending with 5 as unit digit, except one ‘5’

2 x 5 = 10 gives only one zero in the product of all prime numbers

So, number of zeros at the end of the product = 1

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Remember: The difference between the numbers too leaves the same remainder!

Let N be the 3 digit number.

Let R be the remainder.

So, 573921 – R and 575713 – R will be divisible by N

This means the difference between them is also divisible by N.

Difference = (575713 – R – 573921 + R) is divisible by N

Or 1792 divisible by N

N can be 256 from the answer choices.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Since the product is involved, we will keep the numbers as close as possible

bc = 96 and c < 9

b c

12 × 8 = 96

16 × 6 = 96

24 × 4 = 96

ab = 432

a b

12 × 36 = 432

16 × 27 = 432

24 × 18 = 432

So possible values of a = 36, b = 12, c = 8 Sum = 58

a = 27, b = 16, c = 6 Sum = 49

a = 18, b = 24, c = 4 Sum = 46

Least possible value = 46

Solution (c)

Explanation:

If only first statement is taken into consideration: y-x = 2 where x, y and z are three odd integers.

Nothing absolute can be said about divisibility of x+z with 4.

Now if only second statement is taken into consideration: z-y = 2 and nothing absolute can be said about divisibility of x+z with 4.

If we consider both statement simultaneously then

We get x+z = 2y; Now as we know y is an odd integer, so 2y will never get a factor of 4

Hence x+z is not divisible by 4.

As we find an absolute answer by using both statements, answer will be option c.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Refer these lines, “Another bold and much-sought-after change introduced in the budget is the abolition of taxation of dividend in the hands of the shareholder…. We can clearly infer from the 2nd last sentence of the last paragraph of the passage that the abolition of taxation of dividend in the hands of shareholder was a major change in the budget for 2004-05.

Hence, option b is the correct answer.