[DAY 9] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Explanation: 

• The services sector continues to be a significant contributor to India’s growth, accounting for about 55 per cent of the total size of the economy in FY24. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Top 5 sectors receiving highest FDI Equity Inflow during FY 2023-24 are Services Sector (16%), Computer Software & Hardware (15%), Trading (6%), Telecommunications (6%) and Automobile Industry (5%). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• In 2023-24, India’s merchandise exports were 437.1 billion, while services exports were USD 341.1 billion. Overall exports (goods and services) reached USD 778.2 billion. So, Services sector accounts for less than half of our total exports. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.2) With reference to the impacts of the economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India, consider the following statements:

1. De-Commercialization of agriculture 
2. De-industrialization of textiles sector 
3. Ruralisation of the population

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• British policies led to Commercialisation of agriculture. Commercialization increased the level of sub-infeudation in the countryside and money was channelised into trade and usury. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• With the coming of industrialization in England, there was a massive import of machine-made clothes from English factories to Indian markets. This import of large number of products manufactured by mechanical looms in England led to increase threat for the handicraft industries as the British goods were sold at a much cheaper price. This made a huge impact on the Indian handloom weaving industry leading to its virtual collapse. This process of uneven competition faced by the Indian handloom industry was later dubbed by the Indian nationalist leaders as de-industrialization. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The British enforced a one way free trade, whereby the entry of Indian commodities in British markets was restricted by high custom duties. In turn, the Industrial Revolution in Europe enabled the mass production of cheap machine-made goods, which flooded Indian markets. Unable to compete with this, Indian commodities lost both their overseas and domestic markets. This destructive process led to deindustrialisation that in turn led to the decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies abandoned their professions, moved to villages and took to agriculture.  Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• By June 1991, India had less than $1 billion in foreign exchange reserves, bar barely enough to cover imports for three weeks. India lacked sufficient foreign exchange reserves to conduct international trade and was about to default on its international debt obligations. Investors withdrew their funds. By June 1991, India had less than $1 billion in foreign exchange reserves, barely enough to cover imports for three weeks. India lacked sufficient foreign exchange reserves to conduct international trade and was about to default on its international debt obligations. The average rate of inflation was 7.5 percent in 1989-90, which went up to 10 percent in the year 1990-91. In 1991-92, it crossed 13 percent. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• Gulf War was a conflict between Iraq and 34 other countries, led by the United States. It started with the invasion of Kuwait. This affected oil prices. India’s oil import bill swelled, exports slumped, credit dried up, and investors took their money out. Large fiscal deficits, over time, had a spillover effect on the trade deficit culminating in an external payment crisis. By the end of the 1980s, India was in serious economic trouble. The Government Expenditure was more than the earnings. Hence the Fiscal Deficit was high. The Gross Fiscal deficit rose from 9 % of GDP in 1980-81 to 12.7 % of GDP in 1990-91. The Internal Debt of the Government rose due to the above reason. It rose from 35 % of GDP in 1985-86 to 53 % of GDP in 1990-91. Hence Options 2 and 3 are correct.

 Before economic reforms occurred, imports grew at a very high rate without matching the growth of exports. Government could not restrict imports even after imposing heavy tariffs and fixing quotas. This had resulted in huge balance of payment of crisis. Added to that, there was a consistent rise in the general price level of essential goods in the economy.  Hence Option 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Poverty has always been and still is higher in rural areas compared to urban areas. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Report for India, recently released by NITI Aayog has found that while the overall headcount ratio of multidimensional poor in India is 25.01%, for rural areas it is 32.75%, while for urban areas it is 8.81% of the population. Hence Statement a is incorrect.
• According to the MPI Index for India, released by the NITI Aayog recently, Poverty is concentrated mostly in the Eastern and North Eastern regions of India. Overall, South India is much more prosperous than North India.  Hence Statement b is incorrect.

•  Among all the social sections and vulnerable communities (SC, ST, Minorities etc.), Tribals (ST) have been found to be the poorest. Every second (50%) of tribal people in India are poor. Among other vulnerable sections, both Dalits and Muslims have a poverty headcount ratio of 33%. Hence Statement c is incorrect.
•  A recent World Bank study has found that there has been a decline in the poverty headcount ratio in India. Poverty reduction was higher in rural areas compared to urban India as rural poverty declined from 26.3% in 2011 to 11.6% in 2019, while in urban areas the decline was from 14.2% to 6.3% during the corresponding period. Rural and urban poverty dropped by 14.7 and 7.9 percentage points during 2011-2019 according to the World Bank’s working paper. Hence Statement d is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The poverty gap is the ratio by which the mean income of the poor falls below the poverty line.  Poverty gap measures the intensity of poverty. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The intensity of poverty makes it possible to see how far the living standard of the poor population is from the poverty line. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• 3- Under the Air Corporations Act, 1953, the Government nationalised nine airlines—Air India, Air Services of India, Airways (India), Bharat Airways, Deccan Airways, Himalayan Aviation, Indian National Airways, Kalinga Airlines, and Air India International—and brought them under two PSEs, Indian Airlines, and Air India International. 
• 2- This was followed by nationalisation of life insurance in 1956 through the Life Insurance Corporation Act 1956, whereby 154 Indian insurers, 16 non-Indian insurers, and 75 provident societies were nationalised into Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
• 1- In the banking system, the government nationalised 14 banks in 1969 through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970, followed up by a second round of bank nationalisation in 1980, through which another six banks were nationalised.

4- Through the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972, the general insurance business of 55 Indian companies and the 52 foreign insurers was nationalised. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The following factors determine market demand for a commodity:
  • Tastes and Preferences of the Consumers: A good for which consumers’ tastes and preferences are greater, its demand would be large and its demand curve will therefore lie at a higher level.
  • Income of the People: The greater income means the greater purchasing power. Therefore, when incomes of the people increase, they can afford to buy more. It is because of this reason that increase in income has a positive effect on the demand for a good.
  • Changes in Prices of the Related Goods: When the price of a substitute for a good fall, the demand for that good will decline and when the price of the substitute rises, the demand for that good will increase.
  • The Number of Consumers in the Market: The greater the number of consumers of a good, the greater the market demand for it.
  • Consumers’ Expectations with Regard to Future Prices: If due to some reason, consumers expect that in the near future prices of the goods would rise, then in the present they would demand greater quantities of the goods so that in the future they should not have to pay higher prices. Hence options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
  • Changes in prices of factors of production impacts the supply side of the commodity.  When the amount payable to factors of production and cost of inputs increases, the cost of production also increases. This decreases the profitability. As a result, seller reduces the supply of the commodity. Hence option 2 is not correct. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

•  The Government of India announced its first industrial policy resolution on 6 April,1948. The policy resolution laid stress on the role of the state in the development of industry. The Industrial Policy of 1948 laid down the foundation of a mixed economy wherein the public sector (the state) and the private sector were to co-exist and work in their demarcated areas. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956) was also regarded as the “Economic Constitution of India”. Major Objectives of Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956) are as follows: improving living standards and working conditions for the mass of the people; to reduce disparities in income and wealth; to prevent private monopolies and concentration of economic power. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Industrial Policy Statement of July, 1980 was based on Industrial Policy Resolution (30 April, 1956). The major objectives are as follows: Optimum utilisation of installed capacity; Maximum production and achieving higher productivity; Higher employment generation; Promotion of export-oriented industries; Consumer protection against high prices and bad quality; Correction of regional imbalances; Strengthening of the agricultural base through agro based industries and promotion of optimum intersectoral relationship. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of the goods and services produced by a nation. 
• GDP does not provide information about the distribution of income, which bears importantly on the welfare of individuals within an economy. GDP per capita is only an average. When GDP per capita rises by 5%, it could mean that GDP for everyone in the society has risen by 5% or that the GDP of some groups has risen by more while the GDP of others has risen by less—or even declined. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Another shortcoming of GDP as a measure of economic well-being is GDP’s exclusion of non-market activities that create welfare for households. Because GDP uses market prices to value goods and services, it excludes the value of almost all activity that takes place outside markets. Child care provided in day-care centers is part of GDP, whereas child care by parents at home is not.  Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold thus they are not part of GDP calculation. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Land reform is a form of agrarian reform involving the changing of laws, regulations, or customs regarding land ownership. Land reform may consist of a government-initiated or government-backed property redistribution, generally of agricultural land.
• Land reform policy was spelled out in the First Five-Year Plan. The plan aimed to reduce disparities in income and wealth, eliminate exploitation, and provide security to tenants, as well as achieve social transformation through equality of status and an opportunity for different sections of the population to participate in development initiatives. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• From the 1950s to the 1970s, a series of land reform laws were passed – at the national level as well as in the states. The first important legislation was the abolition of the zamindari system, which removed the layer of intermediaries who stood between the cultivators and the state. Of all the land reform laws that were passed, this was probably the most effective. In most areas it succeeded in taking away the superior rights of the zamindars over the land and weakening their economic and political power. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Because land is subject to state control in India and the relationship between production and land tenure varies from state to state, the national policy recommendations resulted in differing tenancy reform laws in each state. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Price elasticity of demand is an indicator of the impact on the demand for a product in relation to its price change. Non-essential goods have a high elasticity of demand, while essential goods or consumer staples have a low elasticity of demand. Price Elasticity of Demand represents change in Quantity Demanded per unit change in Price.
• There are a wide range of specific products that have higher price elasticity of demand. Example: Fast foods, Airline tickets, Movie and Concert tickets, Clothing and Apparel, Luxury Cars, OTT Subscription Services etc. Hence, points 1 and 3 are correct.
• Necessities like staple food items (rice, lentils, flour etc.), branded medicines (Non generic) and utilities (electricity , water etc.) often have inelastic demand. Consumers tend to continue purchasing these products even if prices rise because they are essential for daily living, and viable substitutes may be limited. Hence, points 2 and 4 are incorrect.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

•  The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders. Gross Value Added (GVA) calculates the national income from the supply side by looking at the value-added in each sector of the economy. The two measures of national income are linked as follows:
• GDP = GVA + Taxes earned by the government — subsidies provided by the government

Hence, if the government earned more from taxes than it spent on subsidies, GDP will be higher than GVA. If the government provided subsidies in excess of its tax revenues the situation will lead to a lower GDP than GVA.  Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

 The GDP gap is the difference between potential GDP and actual GDP. Potential GDP is the level of output that the economy can produce when all resources are fully employed. Actual GDP is the level of output that the economy actually produces. The GDP gap is a measure of the economy’s output shortfall.  Hence Option b is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Solution (b)

Explanation:

All the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more are called formal sector establishments and those who work in such establishments are formal sector workers. All other enterprises and workers working in those enterprises form the informal sector. The informal economy includes mostly small scale activities in traditional sectors of the economy, but also a part of new production strategies and changing patterns of employment in the global economy. It includes various types of work and businesses that operate independently and are often characterized by low wages, limited job security, and lack of legal protection. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Gotipua child artists, who experience the world as their stage and applaud as a constant companion, face an uncertain future when they hit puberty, leaving them without the skills required for a job. 

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Economic Survey that preceded this year’s Union Budget presentation makes a suggestion that has implications for inflation control. It is that the price of food be taken out of the inflation target that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is mandated with. In technical jargon, this would amount to targeting ‘core’ instead of ‘headline’ inflation, which is the practice now.

• Inflation refers to the overall increase in the prices of goods and services, coupled with a decrease in people’s purchasing power.
• Food inflation refers to the increase in the prices of food items over time. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Food inflation in India is primarily calculated using the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for food and beverages, a key measure tracking price changes of a typical consumer basket.
• Headline Inflation is the measure of total inflation within an economy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It includes price rises in food, fuel, and all other commodities.
• The inflation rate expressed in Wholesale Price Index (WPI) usually denotes the headline inflation. Though Consumer Price Index (CPI) values are often higher, WPI values traditionally make headlines.
• Climate-related issues, increased fuel prices, supply chain disruptions, and government policies on export curb can contribute to food inflation. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Britain abandoned its intent to challenge the prosecutor’s application for arrest warrants before the International Criminal Court (ICC) against Israel’s Prime Minister and Defence Minister. 

• The International Criminal Court (ICC) is a not United Nations body but has a cooperation agreement with the UN. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the UN Security Council can refer the situation to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction.
• It is a permanent judicial body established by the Rome Statute (1998) to investigate, prosecute, and try individuals accused of genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression, and to impose prison sentences upon individuals who are found guilty of such crimes. 
• It is headquartered in Hague, Netherlands. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority. The notable exceptions are the US, China, Russia, and India.
• It is funded by contributions from the state parties and by voluntary contributions from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
• It handles prosecutions of individuals. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:

• The country where the offence was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
• The perpetrator’s country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute.
• The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
• The ICC only has jurisdiction over offences committed after the Statute entered into force on 1 July 2002.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Hungary, Slovakia, and the Czech Republic still receive Russian crude oil through the southern branch of the Druzhba pipeline — which passes through Ukraine — from Lukoil and other suppliers.

• Several EU member states such as Austria, Hungary, and Slovakia are still heavily dependent on Russian gas via the Ukrainian transit route. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Lukoil and other suppliers continue to deliver Russian crude oil to Hungary, Slovakia, and the Czech Republic via the southern branch of the Druzhba pipeline, which goes via Ukraine.
• The European Union has considerably cut the amount of Russian gas it imports, from approximately 40% in 2021 to 15% in 2024. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the first half of 2024, EU member states bought €11 billion worth of Russian oil and gas, with €3.6 billion from liquefied natural gas (LNG) and €4.8 billion from pipeline natural gas.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The chaos in Bangladesh has shed light on Bangladesh’s famous intricate terracotta Hindu temples from the medieval period.

The Mosque City of Bagerhat, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is situated in Bangladesh. The Mosque City of Bagerhat preserves the surviving monuments of Khalifatabad, a town built in the fifteenth century under the governorship of Khan Jahan Ali when the dominant power in the region was the Bengal Sultanate. Khan Jahan laid out his capital along the course of the Bhairab River, building mosques, water tanks, and a network of roads and bridges in an architectural style resembling the Tughlaq style of Delhi, adapted to the more tropical local climate. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Coffee Board of India has started a special initiative to restore climate-resilient farming practices in Idukki.

• The Coffee Board of India is a statutory organization constituted under the Coffee Act of 1942. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It comprises 33 Members including the chairperson.
• It is mainly focusing its activities in the areas of research, extension, development, market intelligence, external & internal promotion, and welfare measures.
• It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It has a Central Coffee Research Institute at Balehonnur (Karnataka).

It is headquartered in Bengaluru. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context:

• International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) is an intergovernmental consultative and technical body to enhance navigation safety and protect the marine environment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) promotes international cooperation in marine sciences, capacity development, ocean observations and services, ocean science, tsunami warning, and ocean literacy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its work contributes to UNESCO’s mission to promote the advancement of science and its applications for economic and social progress.
• The IOC is coordinating the United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development 2021-2030, also known as the “Ocean Decade.”

India is a member of the International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) and the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Cabinet approved the Clean Plant Programme (CPP), with an outlay of Rs 1,766 crore, under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).

• The Cabinet approved the Rs 1,766 crore Clean Plant Programme (CPP) under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It will prioritise inexpensive access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless of land size or socioeconomic background.
• The CPP will enable access to virus-free, high-quality planting material, resulting in higher agricultural yields and better earning opportunities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Programme will actively involve women farmers in its design and implementation, ensuring that they have access to resources, training, and decision-making power.
• The program will ensure that consumers receive high-quality, virus-free food, improving the taste, appearance, and nutritional content of fruit. 
• The mission will be implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Programme will handle India’s different agroclimatic conditions by producing clean plant varieties and technology tailored to each region.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Kerala Minister for General Education has indicated that the State will implement the PM-SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) scheme though no final decision has been taken.

• The PM SHRI Schools (PM Schools for Rising India) Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme for the upgradation and development of schools across the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Its objective is to establish over 14,500 PM SHRI Schools, overseen by the Central Government, State/UT Governments, local bodies, as well as Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS).
• These schools aim to create an inclusive and welcoming atmosphere for every student, ensuring their well-being and providing a secure and enriching learning environment.
• The goal is to offer a diverse range of learning experiences and ensure access to good physical infrastructure and appropriate resources for all students.
• It aligns with the vision of the National Education Policy 2020, striving to build a society characterized by equity, inclusivity, and pluralism. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The pedagogy adopted in these schools will be more experiential, holistic, integrated, play/toy-based (particularly in the foundational years), inquiry-driven, discovery-oriented, learner-centered, discussion-based, flexible, and enjoyable.
• The schools will be upgraded with labs, libraries, and art rooms. They will be developed as green schools with water conservation, waste recycling, energy-efficient infrastructure, and integration of the organic lifestyle as part of the curriculum.
• The duration of the scheme is from 2022-23 to 2026-27, after which it shall be the responsibility of the States/UTs to continue to maintain the benchmarks achieved by these schools.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: There was a sharp decline in the major stock markets across the world due to the unwinding of the yen carry trade.

In the context of the Indian Economy, the term “carry trade” refers to a situation when money is borrowed from a country where interest rates are low and invested in a country where interest rates are high. Hence option c is correct.

Passage 

The Arctic Ocean, a critical component of the Earth’s climate system, is witnessing unprecedented change due to the accelerated melting of ice. This dramatic shift profoundly impacts polar bears, iconic symbols of the region, as their primary habitat, sea ice, diminishes. Melting ice forces polar bears to travel longer distances in search of food, increasing their vulnerability. Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations. 

Solution (b) 

Statement Analysis:

Option (a) is incorrect: The context of polar bears being shifted to other oceans is not a part of the passage. The passage is about climate change and its impact on polar bears. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.  

Option (b) is correct: The passage conveys that climate change has impacted polar bears and even threatened their survival. So, any policy for the Arctic Ocean must keep polar bears in focus. The lines “Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations” also carry the same essence. So, this is the most logical inference from the passage.  

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention reversing climate change as the ‘only’ way to protect polar bears. It only mentions mitigation of climate change for the survival of polar bears in the lines “Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations.” Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.   

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is about polar bears and the impact of climate change on them. The passage does not mention that polar bears are keystone species. Therefore, this option is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation:

Let the first digit be n.  

Third digit is equal to first digit. So, it will also be n. 

Second digit = Sum of first and third digits = n + n = 2n 

Fifth digit = Sum of third and second digits = n + 2n = 3n 

Sixth digit = Sum of third and fifth digits = n + 3n = 4n 

Fourth digit = Sum of fifth and sixth digits = 3n + 4n = 7n Ratio of fifth and fourth digit = 3n : 7n = 3 : 7 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

C1 →     <-C2  

A→1→P→→→→4→→→→B

Let Car C1 took “t” hours to reach at point P. Then Car C2 will take “t+2” hours to reach point P. 

If AP = d km, then BP = 4d km 

It is given that speed of C2 is 80% (4/5th) that of C1. So, if speed of Car C1 is d/t km/hr, then speed of Car C2 would be 4d/5t km/hr. 

So, d/(d/t) + 2 = 4d/(4d/5t) 

Or t + 2 = 5t 

Or t = 2/4 = ½ hour = 30 minutes 

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

17 + (2 * 3) = 23 

23 + (3 * 4) = 35 

35 + (4 * 5) = 55 

55 + (5 * 6) = 85 

85 + (6 * 7) = 127 

Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Let 10 years ago the ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya were 5x and 4x. 

So, the present ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya would be (5x + 10) and (4x + 10) respectively. 

According to the question, 

5x + 10 = 4x + 10 + (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or 5x = 4x + (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or x = (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or 6x = (4x + 10) 

Or 2x = 10 

Or x = 5 

So, Present age of Abhishek = 5x + 10 = 5×5 + 10 = 25 + 10 = 35 years 

Present age of Aishwarya = 4x + 10 = 4×5 + 10 = 20 + 10 = 30 years The total present age of the family = 35 + 30 + (9×3) + (6×2) + 3 = 107 years Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.