Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Context: Recently, the Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme was launched.

Background:-

• It was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
• This national forest certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country.

About INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME:-

• Launched: 2023.
• Objective: to promote Sustainable Management of forests and agroforestry(Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980)
• Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
• The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management certification, and chain of custody certification.
• The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices in their operations.
• This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value chain.
• The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard, consisting of 8 criteria, 69 indicators and 254 verifiers, which is an integral part of the National Working Plan Code 2023, launched earlier this year.
• A separate Trees Outside Forests Standard, is now introduced as a part of the newly launched Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme.
• Supervision: The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a multistakeholder advisory body.
  • The Council is represented by members from eminent institutions such as Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, Forest Survey of India, Quality Council of India, Indian Institute of Forest Management including representatives from the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Ministry of Commerce and Industry, State Forest Departments, Forest Development Corporations, and representatives from wood-based industries.
• Implementation: The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme.
• Accreditation: The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India will accredit the certification bodies which will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme.

MUST READ: Natural Farming

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017)

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, insurance stocks declined up to 5 per cent in trade after the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) proposed a higher surrender value and lower charges for life insurance companies in a consultation paper.

Background:-

• An exposure draft released by the insurance regulator pitched for a significant increase in the surrender value specifically for non-participating insurance products.
• Some modifications have also been suggested in the calculation of surrender charges.

About Surrender value:-

• In insurance policies, ‘surrender’ indicates the voluntary conclusion of a life insurance policy opted by the policyholder prior to its maturity or before the occurrence of the insured event.
• It applies only to those term insurance policies with a surrender benefit.
• The surrender value is usually a percentage of the total premiums paid minus any applicable charges or fees.
• The IRDAI rules say that anyone with a term plan can give up their insurance policy. (Digital India – Financial Inclusion)
• However, only after the policy has been in effect for three years will the policyholder get the payout of the surrender value.
• As per the existing norms, a policy can be surrendered at any time during the policy term, provided two full years’ premiums have been paid.
  • However, in the first year, the regulator now proposes to offer Adjusted Surrender Value to the policyholder.

About the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):-

• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance
• Head Office:
• It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999.
• It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India.
• Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India.
• Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body.
  • It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members.
  • They are appointed by the Government of India.
• Functions:-
  • To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations.
  • Registering and regulating insurance companies.
  • Protecting policyholders’ interests.
  • Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries.
  • Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers.

MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)

SOURCE: HINDU BUSINESS LINE

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022)

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recent National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data revealed that Delhi leads in the rate of FIRs of crimes against women in 2022.

 Background:-

• Delhi logged the highest rate of FIRs linked to crimes against women in the country in 2022.

About National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):-

• Established: 1986.
• HQ: New Delhi.
• Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
• NCRB was set up to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
• It was recommended by the Tandon Committee, the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task force (1985).
• NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating, and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project. (Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022)

Important publications of NCRB:-

• Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India.
• Prison Statistics India.
• Fingerprints in India.
• Report on missing women and children in India.

MUST READ: CBI and ED

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023)

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022)

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recent data shows that over 500,000 tonnes of e-waste were collected and processed in 2021-22.

Background:-

• In the financial year 2021-22, 527,131.57 tonnes of e-waste was collected, dismantled and recycled, Ashwini Kumar Choubey, minister of state in the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change told the Rajya Sabha.

About E-waste:-

• E-Waste is short for Electronic-Waste and the term is used to describe old, end-of-life or discarded electronic appliances.
• It includes their components, consumables, parts and spares.
• Electronic waste, also called e-waste, is various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have ceased to be of value to their users or no longer satisfy their original purpose.
• E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage recycled by scientific methods or transported from one place to the other in parts or totality in the formal sector.

E-Waste in India:-

• India generates about 18.5 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of electronic waste every year, with Mumbai and Delhi-NCR accounting for the biggest chunk.
• The figure is likely to reach up to 30 lakh MT per year by 2018.
• Bangalore, Chennai, Kolkata, Ahmadabad, Hyderabad, Pune, Surat, and Nagpur are other important cities generating a substantial amount of e-waste.
• Among the eight largest e-waste generating states, Maharashtra ranks first followed by Tamil Nadu (2nd), Andhra Pradesh (3rd), Uttar Pradesh (4th), Delhi (5th), Gujarat (6th), Karnataka (7th), and West Bengal (8th).
• Over half of the e-waste generated in the developed world is exported to developing countries, mainly to China, India, and Pakistan, where metals like copper, iron, silicon, nickel, and gold are recovered during the recycling process.
• Unlike developed countries, which have specifically built facilities for recycling of e-waste, recycling in developing countries often involves manual participation thus exposing workers to toxic substances present in e-waste.

E-waste Management Rules, 2016:

• The Central Government, in the exercise of the powers provided under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, had notified e-waste management rules in 2016.
• These rules supersede the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. (Draft E-waste Management Rules)
• The rules aim to enable the recovery and/or reuse of useful material from e-waste, and to ensure the environmentally sound management of all types of waste of electrical and electronic equipment.
• For the first time, the rules brought the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets.
• Producers have been made responsible for the collection of E-waste and for its exchange.
• The manufacturers, dealers, e-retailers, and refurbishers have been brought under the ambit of these rules to ensure that the e-waste is effectively channelized and disposed of.
• The urban local bodies have been assigned the responsibility of collecting back the e-waste arising from the orphan products and channelizing it to authorized dismantler or recycler

MUST READ: Extended Producer Responsibility

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022)

1. Database created by a coalition of research organizations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022)

1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1,2, 4 and 5
2. 1,3 and 4 only
3. 2,3 and 5 only
4. 1,2, 3, 4 and 5

Syllabus

• Prelims –SPORTS

Context: Recently, the First-ever Khelo India Para Games concluded in New Delhi.

Background:-

• Addressing the closing ceremony, Union Sports and Youth Affairs Minister Anurag Thakur hailed the Khelo India Para Games as a celebration of human passion and spirit.

About Khelo India Para Games:-

• Date: December 10 and 17,2023.
• Venue: New Delhi.
• Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Over 1400 athletes from across the nation will compete in seven para sports—athletics, shooting, archery, football, badminton, table tennis, and weightlifting. (Grand Slam)
• The grand opening ceremony will take place at the KD Jadhav Indoor Hall, Indira Gandhi Sports Complex.
• The Delhi Police band will showcase a grand performance, followed by a lively dance performance by ‘We Are One’ group.
• Objective behind organizing the Khelo India Para Games is to empower para-athletes.
• Several key projects have been initiated for the welfare of the physically challenged, and the inaugural Khelo India Para Games marks a significant step in this direction.

Results:-

• Haryana winning the inaugural title by securing 105 medals including 40 gold, 39 silver, and 26 bronze.
• Uttar Pradesh came second with 62 medals including 25 gold, 23 silver, and 14 bronze.
• Tamil Nadu finished third with 20 gold, eight silver, and 14 bronze medals. Athletes from 32 states and Union Territories participated in the Games.

MUST READ: Chess Olympiad

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. ·

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021)

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Scientists have created Anthrobots recently.

Background:-

• These are tiny living robots from human cells that can move around in a lab dish and may one day be able to help heal wounds or damaged tissue, according to a new study.

About Anthrobots:-

• Anthrobots are novel bioengineered robots created from human tracheal cells.
• These biobots possess the remarkable ability to autonomously configure into diverse forms and sizes.

WORKING:-

• The process involves cultivating groups of human tracheal skin cells to create anthrobots equipped with cilia functioning as paddles.
• When positioned on damaged neural tissue, the anthrobots amalgamate into a ‘superbot,’ facilitating full recovery within three days without the need for genetic alterations.

Significance:-

• The researchers anticipate employing personalized anthrobots for various functions such as arterial clearance, mucus disruption, or drug administration, showcasing potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine.
• In contrast to earlier xenobots derived from frog cells, anthrobots possess self-assembling capabilities and are crafted from human tissue, offering a promising avenue for personalized medicine.

MUST READ: Robo Sapiens- Future of the Work

SOURCE: INDIATIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021)

1. Food preservatives
2. Fruit-ripening substances
3. reused plastic containers
4. Toiletries

Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021)

1. Low-density polyethene
2. Polycarbonate
3. Polyethene terephthalate
4. Polyvinyl Chloride

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Khelo India Para Games were held in New Delhi.

Statement-II :

It was organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to Anthrobots, consider the following statements:

1. These are tiny living robots created from human cells.
2. They have potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine.
3. They possess self-assembling capabilities.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  18th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – d

Q.3) – a